Canine MSK + ORAL Flashcards

1
Q

most common causes of discospondylitis

A

UTI
dental disease
endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

the alveolar ridge should be ___ below the CEJ

A

2-3 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

most common pathogen of discospondylitis

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

radiographic findings of discospondylitis

A

lysis
sclerosis and/or new bone formation
narrowing of joint space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

radiographic findings of IVDD

A

narrowing of IV disc space
mineralized disc
increased opacity and change in size/shape of IV foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does a focal decrease in vertebral opacity likely suggest

A

neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does a focal increase in vertebral opacity likely suggest

A

chronic compression fracture
osteomyelitis
possibly degenerative change
possibly neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does a multifocal decrease in vertebral opacity suggest

A

metastasis (osteosarc, carcinoma)
multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why would you have normal lucency on the ventral aspect of vertebral bodies L2-L4

A

diaphragm attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the classification of fractures that involve the physes?

A

SALTER harris classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what does SALTER stand for

A

separation
above
lower
thru and thru
rammed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which salter harris classification have articular involvement?

A

III
IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is an avulsion fracture

A

where an attached tendon/ligament pulls fragment off bone

e.g. tibial tuberosity avulsion fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

humeral condyl fracture
common?
congenital or acquired?
unilateral or bilateral?

A

spanials/bulldogs & pigs
can be congenital
often bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

acute vs chronic fractures

A

acute - sharp, soft tissue swelling

chronic - round, less swelling, periosteal proliferation/callus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

capital physeal fracture
common in?
what does this cause?

A

young male neutered cats, esp obese
delayed closure of physis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

osteomyelitis
common site?
when?

A

lucency around implant
7-10 days on radiographs (clinical signs precede radiographic signs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

healed in abnormal alignment:

A

malunion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

healing taking longer than normal:

A

delayed union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

types of non-union

A

vital (hypertrophic or oligotrophic)
non-vital (atrophic, necrotic, defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hypertrophic non-union

A

proliferation
NO bridging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

oligotrophic non-union

A

little-no proliferation
NO bridging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

atrophic non-union

A

bone resorbing at edges

19
Q

necrotic non-union

A

sequestrum

20
Q

defect non-union

A

too big to bridge

21
Q

criteria of an aggressive lesion

A

ill-defined margin (long zone of transition)
cortical lysis
irregular periosteal proliferation

22
Q

what are the three types of bone lysis? which one can be nonaggressive?

A

geographic
moth eaten
permeative

23
Q

primary bone tumor characteristics

A

osteosarcoma
“flees the elbow seeks knee”
metaphysis
old, large breed dogs

24
Q

metastatic neoplasia characteristics

A

occurs anywhere, diaphyseal
lytic

25
Q

multicentric neoplasia characteristics

A

multifocal regions of lysis
multiple myeloma

26
Q

what if you have an older patient with small-well defined lucencies in typical locations?

A

osteopenia NOT multiple myeloma

27
Q

soft tissue neoplasia characteristics

A

multiple bones
joint space crossed
large soft tissue mass

28
Q

if you have a young-middle aged animal with travel history, systemic illness and radiographic findings on diaphysis or multiple bones, what is higher on your ddx

A

fungal osteomyelitis

29
Q

what is pathognomonic for hypertrophic osteopathy?

A

irregular periosteal proliferation of all limbs

+ swollen limb, lameness, fever

30
Q

hypertrophic osteopathy is due to what

A

mass in the lung

31
Q

7 signs of osteoarthrosis

A

joint swelling
narrowed joint
sclerosis
erosion (lucency)
osteophyte
enthesophyte
change in joint margin/shape

32
Q

osteochondrosis signs

A

flat subchondral bone or concave lucent defect
bilateral
surounding sclerosis

33
Q

common osteochondrosis regions

A

caudal aspect of humeral head
medial humeral condyle
medial femoral condyle
lateral trochlear ridge of talus

34
Q

what views are better for evaluating joint instability?

A

stress views

35
Q

cause of hip dysplasia

A

increased laxity of hip joints

36
Q

effects of hip dysplasia

A

flat femoral head
shallow acetabulum
secondary osteoarthrosis

37
Q

3 types of elbow dysplasia

A

ununited anconeal process
elbow incongruity
medial coronoid process disease

38
Q

how can you differentiate between septic arthritis and IMPA?

A

joint tap – too similar

39
Q

difference between erosive and non-erosive IMPA

A

non-erosive - no lysis
erosive - bony lysis

40
Q

German shepherd (5-18 months) with ill or well-defined patches of variably faint sclerosis in the medullary cavity

A

panosteitis

41
Q

treatment for panosteitis?

A

self limiting

42
Q

large breed, fast growing dog (2-7 months old) that is febrile and lame in multiple limbs

A

hypertrophic osteodystrophy

43
Q

irregular lucent line in metaphysis parallel to normal physeal line is indicative of what

A

hypertrophic osteodystrophy

44
Q

large-giant breed dog with a lucent, conical cartilage core in the medullary region of the ulnar metaphysis

A

retained cartilage core

45
Q

most common site for retained cartilage core?

A

distal ulna

46
Q

2 types of osteopenia

A

hyperparathyroidism
disuse osteopenia

47
Q

osseous disorder of too much mineral

A

polyostotic hyperostosis

48
Q

radiographic findings of hyperparathyroidism

A

cortical thinning
decreased bone opacity
loss of lamina dura

49
Q

young animal or exotic with cortical bone thinning, decreased opacity +/- folding fracture

A

nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

50
Q

animal with loss of lamina dura around teeth, thin cortex but teeth remain dense

A

renal secondary hyperparathyroidism

51
Q

overall decreased opacity and coarse trabecular pattern in medulla

A

disuse osteopenia

52
Q

what is most evident in the femur and due to female reproductive activity, usually seen in birds

A

polyostotic hyperostosis (more opaque/dense bone)