Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nurs. 401 > Cancer Quiz > Flashcards

Cancer Quiz Flashcards

0
Q

Which statements are true of cancer cells?

A
  1. Cancer cells divide nearly continuously
  2. they are harmful to the body
  3. they are abnormal
  4. they have an unlimited lifespan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Benign cells have which characteristics?

A
  1. Tissue a necessary for normal function
  2. resemble the parent tissue
  3. have a small nucleus
  4. perform their differentiated function
  5. nonmigratory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why do cancer cells spread throughout the body?

A
  1. They make little fibronectin
  2. they are able to metastasize
  3. there persistent in their growth cell
  4. division occurs under adverse conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which are actions of carcinogens?

A
  1. Damage the DNA
  2. change the activity of a cell
  3. begin the initiation step of carcinogenis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which characteristics described the initiated sells response to the promoter?

A
  1. Promoted or enhance cell growth
  2. shorten latency.
  3. Irreversible changes in the cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Promoters may include which factors?

A
  1. Chemicals
  2. hormones
  3. drugs
  4. viruses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If a primary tumor is located in a vital organ what happens?

A

There is interference with the organs functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which statement correctly describes metastasis tumors?

A

They are caused by cells breaking off from the primary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

During metastasis which actions take place?

A
  1. tumor vascularization results and blood supply to the tumor
  2. enzymes open up pores in the patient’s blood vessel
  3. clumps of the cells break off for transport
  4. Cells stop circulating and then invade
  5. increasing tumor size causes invasion of surrounding tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which characteristics described a high-grade tumor?

A
  1. Barely resembles the parent cell
  2. rapidly metastasizes
  3. very aggressive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which information can be obtained from grading a tumor?

A
  1. Evaluating prognosis and appropriate therapy

2. cell differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What information can be obtained by surgical staging?

A
  1. Assessment of tumor size
  2. number of tumors
  3. sites of tumors
  4. pattern of spread of tumors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the primary factors influencing the development of cancer?

A
  1. Environmental exposure to carcinogens
  2. genetic predisposition
  3. immune function
  4. health history
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which statement are true regarding tobacco use and cancerous?

A
  1. Tobacco is considered an initiator of cancer
  2. tobacco is considered a promoter of cancer
  3. person through for cancer depends on the amount of tobacco use
  4. a person’s risk for cancer depends on the type of tobacco use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ionizing radiation is found in which elements?

A
  1. Radon
  2. uranium
  3. soil
  4. medical x-rays
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which factors are forms of UV radiation?

A
  1. Son or solar
  2. tanning beds
  3. germicidal lights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A few viruses are known as oncoviruses because they perform which actions?

A
  1. Infect the cell
  2. break the DNA chain
  3. insert their own genetic material
  4. mutate the cells DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does immune system protects the body from cancer?

A
  1. By using cell mediated immunity
  2. by using natural killer cells
  3. by using helper T cells
  4. identifying cancer cells of nonself cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which people are considered to be at greater risk for developing cancer?

A
  1. Organ transplant recipients
  2. adults over the age of 60
  3. people with AIDS
  4. African-Americans
  5. people who are immunocompromise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For which type of cancer is risk modifiable?

A
  1. Breast
  2. Colon
  3. ovarian
  4. cervical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which are cancers that have genetic predisposition?

A
  1. Breast
  2. colorectal
  3. melanoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which groups of the highest rate of incidents, death rate, and largest increasing incidence of cancer?

A

African-Americans and lower socioeconomic people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which patient would have the best prognosis for survival based on the TNM staging classification listed?

A

T (IS) N (O) M(O)

23
Q

The American Cancer Society reports that the cancer incidence and survival rate are related to which factors?

A

Availability of Healthcare Services and early healthcare

24
Q

Which are included in the seven warning signs of cancer?

A
  1. Hoarseness
  2. I thickening lump
  3. obvious change in a mole
  4. inability of a sore to heal
  5. difficulty swallowing
25
Q

Which are dietary practices that may help reduce the risk of cancer?

A
  1. Low-fat diet
  2. avoidance of nitrates
  3. eating foods high in vitamin a and C
  4. increasing fiber intake
27
Q

Which measures are considered secondary prevention for cancer?

A
  1. Yearly mammography for women over age 40
  2. yearly fecal occult blood testing in adults
  3. colonoscopy at age 50 and then every 10 years
28
Q
  1. What is the best response by the nurse?
A

-“Select whatever day you can best remember to perform BSE consistently every month.”

29
Q
  1. What instructions should the nurse provide?
A

“When lying down, your arm should be positioned over your head.”

30
Q
  1. How should the nurse respond?
A

“The combination of yearly CBE and monthly BSE is the best approach for early detection.”

31
Q
  1. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
A

-Teach Barb that even women with no identified risk factors are at risk.

32
Q
  1. How should the nurse respond?
A

“You may experience some discomfort, but only for a few minutes.”

33
Q
  1. What is the best response by the nurse?
A

“its hard to believe that this is happening, isn’t it

34
Q
  1. How should the nurse respond
A

“Are you saying that you do not want to have surgery?”

35
Q
  1. Which nursing diagnosis should be reflected in Sandra’s plan of care
A

-Anticipatory grieving

36
Q
  1. What is the best response by the nurse?
A

“To ensure your safety, I need to notify the surgeon of the snack you ate.”

37
Q
  1. Which ethical principle has the greatest weight in the nurse’s decision to inform Sandra’s surgeon about the snack?
A

-Nonmaleficence

38
Q
  1. What action should the nurse implement?
A

-Notify the surgeon that further explanation of the procedure is necessary.

39
Q
  1. Which nursing actions have the highest priority in the initial postoperative period? (select all)
A
  • Observe the Jackson-Pratt drainage device
  • Administer a PRN dose of prescribed analgesic.
  • Monitory vital signs and pulse oximetry
40
Q
  1. What action should the nurse take?
A

Encourage Sandra to continue performing these exercises.

41
Q
  1. What action should the nurse implement first?
A

-Advise the UAP to immediately stop and obtain a larger cuff so the BP reading can be taken in the leg.

42
Q
  1. What should the nurse emphasize in the discussion?
A

-Both the GN and UAP are at fault for the incorrect action of the UAP.

43
Q
  1. What action should the nurse take first?
A

-Ask Sandra to clarify how she learned this information so that a plan for further teach can be developed.

44
Q
  1. Which complication is most often associated with tamoxifen?
A

-Blood clots

45
Q
  1. How should the nurse respond?
A

“The medication decreases estrogen levels, which is what also causes the symptoms of menopause.”

46
Q
  1. What side effects are most often associated with antineoplastic chemotherapy used to treat breast neoplasms should be included in this discussion? (select all)
A
  • diarrhea

- alopecia

47
Q
  1. What intervention is appropriate for the nurse to implement?
A

Label the two lumens as non-functional, and use one of the remaining lumens.

48
Q
  1. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to suspect that an immunosuppressed client has an infection?
A

-Oral temp of 99.5 F

49
Q
  1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for Sandra?
A

altered tissue perfusion

50
Q
  1. Which nursing care measure(s) will be most beneficial in the management of Sandr’as highest priority problem? (select all)
A
  • apply a sequential compression device

- elevate the affected arm

51
Q
  1. When is the best time to obtain the vancomycin serum trough level?
A

-15 mins prior to administration of the next dose of the drug.

52
Q
  1. It is time for Sandra’s vancomycin. The vanco IV 1 g is in a 250 ml bag of normal saline to be delivered in 1 hours. The IV tubing set is 15 drops/ml. How many drops per minute would the nurse set on the IV pump? (Enter the numerical value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the whole number.)
A

-63 drops/min

53
Q
  1. What is the most probable cause of this finding?
A

-Candida superinfection

54
Q
  1. Which client’s history indicates the person at highest risk for breast cancer?
    .
A

-a 65 year-old woman, who is a retired teacher and who never married or had children

55
Q
  1. The development of breast cancer by which family member indicates Sandra’s increased risk?
A

-Younger sister

56
Q
  1. Which symptom of breast cancer does this describe?
A

-Unusual skin texture

57
Q
  1. Which description of a breast lump is most typical of breast cancer?
A

-Hard, irregular, and does not move freely

Nurs. 401 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions