Cancer key factors Flashcards
What is the most common primary brain tumor in children
Astrocytoma
What is the most common primary brain tumor in adults?
glioblastoma multiforme
overall the most common cancer in brains is
metastatic tumors
the most common routes of spread for Cns tumors are local invasion and seeding through
Cerebrospinal fluid CSF
the most common area for CSF seeding is in the
lumbralsacral area
What is the main pathology for oral cavity cancers
Squamous cell carcinomas
Which of the following are included in the main route of lymphatics spread for oral activity?
- Buccinator
- Supraclavicular
- Jugulodigastric
- Submandibular
- Subdigastic
- Submental nodes
- Cervical nodes
Hint ( B, J, S, SM, *C)
- main one
1,3,4,6,7
What is the most common site of spread for oral cavity cancers?
Cervical lymph nodes
Which of the following parts of the pharynx is located at the level of C2-C3
Oropharynx
which of the following parts parts of the pharynx is located posterior to the larynx
laryngopharynx
Which of the following parts of the pharynx is located at the level of C1
nasopharynx
Which of the following parts of the pharynx is located at the level of C3-C6
laryrngopharynx
Which of the following parts of the pharynx is associated with EBV (Epstein bar virus)
Nasopharynx
Where is the most common location of cancer in the oropharynx
tonsils
Both oropharyngeal and hypopharyngeal cancers are associated with
HPV
Which part of pharynx - oraphraynx drains too
( Sg , uc , sm , p )
subdigastric, upper cervical, submaxillary and parapharyngeal nodes
Which part of nasopharynx drains to
(c, r , j )
Nasopharynx
-cervical nodes, retropharyngeal node (node of Rouviere), and jugulodigastric nodes
Which part of pharynx - hypopharynx drains to
( mc , sd , mj , lj , r )
Hypopharynx
-midcervical nodes, superior deep, middle and low jugular nodes; and retropharyngeal node (node of Rouviere)
Which of the following extends from C3-C6
Larynx
Which of the following is the false vocal cords
Supraglottis
Which of the following is the true vocal cords?
Glottis
What is related disease to larynx cancer?
larynx - the hollow muscular organ forming an air passage to the lungs and holding the vocal cords in humans and other mammals; the voice box.
HPV
What is the most common pathology of larynx cancer
Squamous cell carcinomas
Which of the following does the field size of only 5x5 cm (postage stamp) apply to
LArynx
What is the largest of all the salivary glands
Parotid
The most common malignant type of salivary gland tumors is?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Which best describes how the salivary gland spreads via the nodes
Ipsilateral -belonging to or occurring on the same side of the body.
What is the most common type of thyroid cancer
papillary
What is the most aggressive thyroid cancer
Anaplastic
Which of the following nodes is located below the mastoid tip
Jugulodigastric
Which lymph node receives almost all lymph from the head and neck area
- Jugulodigastric
- Node of Rouviére
- Spinal accessory chain
- Subdigastric Node
- Mastoid node
hint : JS
1,4
the breast is positioned between the ___ and the ___ rib.
2nd and the 6th rib
What is the name of the connective tissue that extend throughout the breast to help support it
Coopers suspensory ligmanets
What is the name of the breast tissue that is close to the axilla
Tail of Spence
most common site for breast cancer is the
Upper outer quadrant (UOQ)
What is the chemotherapy combination for breast cancer
CMF
What chemotherapy agent can be used to treat hormone- receptors - positives and early staged breast cancer
Tamoxifen
The following explain what level of the axilla: located under the pectoralis minor muscle
level 2
The following explain what level of the axilla: lowest and most superficial; first place for drainage; located lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle
Level 1
The following explain what level of the axilla: located superior to the pectoralis minor muscle
Level 3
What is the most common type of breast cancer ?
infiltrating ductal carcinoma
Regional involvement of the breast spreads to what nodes?
Axillary and IM nodes
The lungs are lined by two membranes which is called
the pleura
the area where the trachea bifurcates and is located around T4-T5 is called the
carina
Where is the location where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged? (inside lungs)
Alveolar ducts
What is the location within the lungs where blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves gain entry to the lungs
Hilum
Which lung cancer is associated with tobacco use
Small cell
Which lung cancer is not associated with tobacco use
Non- small cell
what is the most common type of lung cancer
Adenocarcinoma
which of the following is connected with asbestos exposure?
Mesothelioma
Which of the following best describes small cell limited stage?
On one side of lung
Which of the following best describes small cell extensive stage
On both sides of lung
Which of the following starts around C6 and ends around T10?
Esophagus
Which of the following is associated with Barretts Esophagus
Adenocarcinomas
Which of the following best describes the metastatic pattern of the esophagus
Skip mets
Which of the following histologies are common in the upper and middle sections of the esophagus
Squamous cell carcinomas
Which of the following histologies are common in the lower section of the esophagus and GE junction
Adenocarcinomas
What is the most common esophageal cancer in the U.S. ?
Adenocarcinoma
What layer of the stomach do most tumors start
mucosa
What is the most common lymph node involved with stomach cancers
Celiac node
What is the most common histology of Stomach cancer
Adenocarcinoma
What is the longest part of the GI tract
Small bowel
List the three sections of the small intestine in order
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
What are the two most common nodes with small intestine cancer
Mesenteric and celiac nodes
the colon (large intestine) is divided into how many regions?
8 sections
What is the most common histology for small bowel cancer
Adenocarcinoma
What is the type of resection that Removes colon, but leaves the sphincter and rectum
Anterior resection
What is the type of resection that Removes the anus and part of rectum
Abdominoperineal resection
Which of the following is a major risk factor for large bowel cancer
polyps
What is the most common histology of large bowel?
Adenocarcinoma
Which of the following best describes the large bowel spread pattern
via direct extension in a radial style
what is the most common symptom of anal cancer?
Rectal bleeding
Anal cancer is associated with?
HPV
What is the most common histology of anal cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Which of the following is located around L1 L2
Pancreas
Which location within the pancreas is the most common?
HEAD
What is the most common surgery for pancreatic cancer?
Whippel procedure
What is the most common pathology for pancreatic cancer?
Ductal cell carcinoma
Which lymphatic is most common for adrenal tumors
Paraaortic nodes
What is the most common pathology for Adrenal tumors
Adrenocortical tumors
Which is the largest gland in the body
liver
What is the most common type of Liver cancer
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Which of the following stores bile and empties it into the duodenum when stimulated
the. gall bladder
What is the most common location of liver cancers
Upper right quadrant
What is most common pathology for gallbladder cancer
Adenocarcinoma
Which of the following Bring urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder
Ureter
What is most common pathology for ureter cancer
Transitional cell carcinoma
Which of the following is located from around T12 to L3 in the retroperitoneal space
Kidney
What is most common pathology for Kidney cancer?
Renee cell carcinomas
Kidney cancers spread via direct extension through
renal capsule
what is a typical presentation for bladder cancer
gross or microscopic hematuria
Is the male or female urethra longer?
MAle
What is most common pathology for bladder cancer
Transitional cell carcinoma
what is the most common pathology for urethra cancer
squamous cell carcinoma
The prostate is ___ to the bladder and ____ to the rectum
Inferior, anterior
which node for prostate cancer is involved with metastasis
paralytic nodes
What is most common pathology for prostate cancer
Adenocarcinoma
What location is the most common for prostate cancer for bone metastasis
the spine
What part of the male reproductive system holds the spermatozoa and produces testorone
Testes
Which of the following leads to increased risk of testicular cancer
Cryptorchidism -a condition in which one or both of the testes fail to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum.
What is the common treatment field for testicular cancer
Hockey stick
hat is most common pathology for testicular cancer
Germ cell tumors
What is most common pathology for Penile cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the innermost layer of the uterus
endometrium
What is the most common clinical presentation for endometrium cancers?
Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding
Which of the following is the most common gynecologic malignancy
Endometrial cancer
All GYN cancer use what staging system
FiGo
What is most common pathology for Endometrium cancer
Adenocarcinoma
Which of the following is inferior to the uterus and superior to the vagina
cervix
What is the opening between the body of the uterus and the cervix
Internal Os
What is the opening from the cervix leading into the vagina
externals Os
Which cancer is detected by Pap smear
Cervical
For HDR which point is explain below for cervical cancer:
2 cm superior to the cervical os and 2 cm lateral to the endocervical canal
Point A
What is most common pathology for Cervical cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
What GYN cancer is the most deadly
Ovarian
Serum CA-125 is elevated when which of the following is present
Ovarian carcinoma
Which of the following nodes do cervical cancer primarily spread to
periaortic nodes
what is most common pathology for ovarian cancer
Epithelial carcinoma
The vagina is ____to the bladder and _____to the rectum
posterior anterior
What is the most common location for vaginal cancers
posterior wall of the upper third
What is clinical presentation of vaginal cancer
Vaginal bleeding
Most common node involved for vaginal cancer is the
inguinal node
What is most common pathology for vaginal cancers is
Squamous cell carcinoma
Most vulvar cancers occur in the
labia majora
What is most common pathology for vulvar cancer is
squamous cell carcinoma
Which part of the body had the most bone marrow
pelvis
Why do most skeletal tumors occur in the distal femur and proximal tibia?
because they have the largest growth plates
What is the most common clinical presentation of skeletal tumors
Pain
For skeletal tumors Lymphatic spread is not common unless the tumor occurs in what region of the body
Trunk
Reed-Sternberg cells indicate what
Hodgkin lymphoma
Which of the following are B symptoms
Fever, night sweats, and 10 percent weight loss within six months
Which of the following is a common chemotherapy drug combo for hodgkins lymphoma
MOPP
Which of the following is true regarding hodgkins lymphoma
occurs in bimodal age groups
Which of the following fields is used for hodgkins lymphoma
Mantle field and inverted Y
What is most common pathology for Hodgkin lymmhoma
Nodular sclerosino Hodgkins lymphoma (NSHL)
Which of the following best describes non- Hodgkins spread pattern
Random with no order
Which chemotherapy combination is used for NOn-hodgkins lymhoma
CHOPP
What is most common pathology for Non- hodgkins lymphoma
B-cell, diffuse
Soft tissue sarcoma most occur in what location in adults
Extremities
When irradiating sarcomas, it is important that the entire circumference of the extremity or area is
not within the treatment field
What is most common pathology for STS’s in adults
malignant fibrous histiocytoms (MFH)
What is most common pathology for STS’s in children
rhabdomysarcoma
Where is the most common site of rhabdomyosarcoma
genitourinary tract
where is the most common site of rhabdomysarcoma
genitourinary tract
which of the following is the most common bone tumor in children
osteosarcoma
which of the following is the most common bone tumor in adults
chondrosarcoma
What is staging system for lymphoma
ANN Arbor staging system
What is staging system for lymphoma
ANN Arbor staging system
Which of the following has an onion-shaped appearance on radiographic images
Ewings sarcoma
Which of the following is a malignancy of plasma cells
multiple myeloma
Multiple myeloma occurs is what type of cells of the bone marrow
B-cells
When can the patient can be diagnosed with multiple myeloma
When 10 percent of bone marrow cells are plasma cells upon aspiration
Which of the following cancers lymph node involvement vastely depends on the location of the cancer
Skin
Which of the following is a Skin cancer in the stem cells of the deepest layer of the skin (stratum basale
Basal cell carcinoma
Which of the following is a Skin cancer in the superficial layers of the epidermis
Squamous cell carcinoma
Which of the following is the most common type of skin cancer
Basal cell carcinoma
Which of the following is the most aggressive skin cancer
melanoma
what rule should you follow for melanoma
ABCD
Where are some Common locations for melanomas
Face and scalp
Which staging system do leukemias use
FAB
Which of the following is an Overgrowth of cells that are unable to differentiate in response to hormonal signals and cellular interactions
AML
Which of the following is caused by Abnormal hematopoietic stem cells that contain the Philadelphia chromosome (Phil)
CML
Which of the following is an overgrowth of unhealthy lymphoblasts, B lymphocytes, or T lymphocytes which limits the growth of healthy cells
ALL
Which of the following is cause because of Increased number of leukemic cells in the bone marrow, blood, lymph nodes, and spleen
CLL
Which of the following is the most common in children
ALL
Which of the following is the most common type of acute leukemia in adults
AML
Which of the following is associated with Auer rods
AML
Which of the following does not have any assoication with radiation being a risk factor
CLL
Which of the following has these three stages
1. Chronic
2. Accelerated
3. Blast Crisis
CML
Which of the following are not treated with bone marrow transplants
CLL
Who are the best donors for Bone marrow transplants
Identical twins
Which type of bone marrow transplant is where the patient’s own bone marrow is reinfused after leukemic cells have been removed
Autologous BMT
Which type of bone marrow transplant is where bone marrow is donated by a compatible donor (family member or stranger)
Allogeneic BMT
Which of the following is a Subgroup of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
Mycosis fungicides
Which of the following is primary treatment for mycosis fungoides
Total-skin electron beam (TSEB)
Heterotopic ossification happens in some patients who undergo what type of surgery
HIP
Which of the following is a Benign condition of uncontrolled growth of connective tissue
Keloid
When must radiation occur for keloids
Within 24 hours of surgery
Which of the following is An abnormality where the arteries and veins become tangled and are unable to transfer oxygen and nutrients to vital organs, such as the brain
Arteriovenous Malformations (AVM)
Which of the following are typically used when treating Arteriovenous Malformations (AVM)
SRS
which of the following is the most common type of tumor in the head and is benign
Meningioma
