Cancer Chemotherapy Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Casodex/eulixin/nilandron MOA (2):

A
  • Blocks androgen-induced growth.

- Normally combined with leuprolide or other LH releasing hormone agonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mercaptopurine toxicities (2):

A
  • Cholestasis

- Oral and intestinal ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bendamustine cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cyclophosphamide cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pentostatin/cladribine/fludarabine use:

A

Hairy cell leukemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Busulfan cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Docetaxel MOA:

A

Prevents MT depolymerization by binding to and stabilizing polymerized tubulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Leucovorin rescue:

A

Drug is used to minimize the toxic effects of folate depletion in normal cells. Bypasses the metabolic block induced by MTX.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vincristine/vinblastine/vinorelbine toxicities (3):

A
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Alopecia
  • Nephrogenic SIADH secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Interferons cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prednisone MOA (2):

A
  • Anti-inflammatory properties and alter immune responses.

- Cause apoptosis in leukemic cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Procarbazine MOA:

A

Blocks DNA replication and transcription. Damages DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Doxorubicin/daunorubicin cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CVD use:

A

Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vincristine/vinblastine/vinorelbine MOA:

A

Bind specifically to soluble tubulin of MTs, block polymerization and arrest cellular mitosis in metaphase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cytarabine cell cycle profile:

A

S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dacarbazine/temozolomide:

A

Methylates DNA and RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dactinomycin Toxicity (2):

A
  • Oral and GI ulceration.

- Stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fluorouracil 5-FU toxicities (2):

A
  • Oral and GI ulceration.

- Stop at early signs of stomatitis and diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Carmustine/Lomustine/Semustine/Streptozocin toxicity (3):

A
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Streptozotocin: pancreatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dacarbazine/temozolomide MOA:

A

Blocks DNA replication and transcription. Damages DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CHOP use:

A

Non-hodgkin’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bleomycins toxicity (3):

A
  • Pulmonary fibrosis.
  • Pneumonitis.
  • Cutaneous reaction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Docetaxel toxicity:

A

Peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

BEP use:

A

Ovarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cytarabine toxicity:

A

Oral ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

BIP use:

A

Cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Procarbazine (4):

A
  • Decrease DNA, RNA, protein synthesis.
  • Chromatid breakage and translocation.
  • Inhibits G1 –> S.
  • Avoid MAO inhibitors and alcohol.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Camptothecin/topotecan/irinotecan cell cycle profile:

A

S-phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CAF use:

A

Breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Chlorambucil toxicity:

A

Hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mercaptopurine cell cycle profile:

A

S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Etoposide/Tenopside MOA:

A

Forms a ternary complex with DNA and topisomerase II.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Procarbazine cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pentostatin/cladribine/fludarabine MOA:

A

Inhibit adenosine deaminase directly or via metabolites –> build up of adenosine and deoxyadenosine decreases DNA synthesis by inhibiting ribonucleotide reductase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Doxorubicin/daunorubicin MOA (2):

A
  • Blocks activity of topoisomerase II.

- Binds between base pairs of DNA –> ROS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Denusomab MOA:

A

Blocks RANK-RANKL in bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Interferons MOA (2):

A
  • Inhibits tumors by regulating the host immune system.

- Direct activity against cancer cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Dactinomycin:

A

Peptide loops of dG-dC.

40
Q

Cisplatin/Carboplatin/oxaloplatin cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

41
Q

Crizotinib MOA:

A

Blocks ALK-1 kinase

42
Q

Prednisone uses (2):

A
  • Hodgkin’s disease.

- Manage hemolytic anemia and hemorrhagic complications.

43
Q

Bleomycins MOA:

A

Creates ROS.

44
Q

Paclitaxel MOA:

A

Prevents MT depolymerization by binding to and stabilizing polymerized tubulin.

45
Q

Mercaptopurine 6-MP MOA:

A

Inhibits synthesis of adenine and guanine by blocking conversion of inosinate to purine precursors.

46
Q

Imatinib MOA:

A

Blocks Bcr-Abl kinase

47
Q

Estramustine phosphate cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS and M-phase.

48
Q

Cisplatin/Carboplatin/oxaloplatin toxicity (3):

A
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Ototoxicity
49
Q

Progestins MOA:

A

Used in hormone responsive cancers expressing progesterone receptors.

50
Q

PACE use:

A

Small cell lung cancer

51
Q

CMF use:

A

Breast

52
Q

Bleomycins cell cycle profile:

A

G2 phase.

53
Q

Chlorambucil MOA:

A

Blocks DNA replication and transcription. Damages DNA.

54
Q

PEB use:

A

Testicular

55
Q

Cisplatin/Carboplatin/oxaloplatin MOA:

A

Binds guanine in DNA and forms intra-strand crosslinks/adducts.

56
Q

Busulfan toxicity (2):

A
  • Pulmonary fibrosis.

- Hyperpigmentation.

57
Q

VIP use:

A

Germ cell

58
Q

Cyclophosphamide:

A

Must be activated by CYP 450 in the liver.

59
Q

Doxorubicin/daunorubicin toxicity (2):

A

Cardiotoxicity

- Can be prevented with dexrazoxane, expensive.

60
Q

Carmustine/Lomustine/Semustine/Streptozocin MOA:

A

Blocks DNA replication and transcription. Damages DNA.

61
Q

Tamoxifen/foremefine use:

A

Used in estrogen receptor positive breast cancer.

62
Q

Busulfan MOA:

A

Blocks DNA replication and transcription. Damages DNA.

63
Q

MOPP use:

A

Hodgkin’s disease.

64
Q

Vincristine/vinblastine/vinorelbine cell cycle profile:

A

M phase

65
Q

Dactinomycin MOA:

A

Interaction of peptide loops at purine-pyrimidine base pairs of DNA and intercalate between the DNA strands, prevents transcription.

66
Q

Etoposide/Tenopside cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS but kills in S and G2 phases.

67
Q

ABVD use:

A

Hodgkin’s disease.

68
Q

Mitoxantrone MOA:

A

Binds to DNA and blocks topisomerase II leading to DNA strand breaks.

69
Q

Cyclophosphamide MOA:

A

Blocks DNA replication and transcription. Damages DNA.

70
Q

Fluorouracil 5-FU cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

71
Q

Bendamustine MOA:

A

Blocks DNA replication and transcription. Damages DNA.

72
Q

Methotrexate/Trimetrexate/pemetrexed cell cycle profile:

A

S phase

73
Q

Trastuzumab MOA:

A

Blocks Her2/c-Neu

74
Q

Estramustine phosphate MOA:

A

Blocks DNA replication and transcription. Damages DNA.

75
Q

Docetaxel cell cycle profile:

A

M phase

76
Q

MESNA (2):

A
  • Reacts with acrolein in urine to detoxify and prevent binding to bladder wall.
  • Decrease hemorrhagic cystitis produced by acrolein.
77
Q

M-BACOD

A

Lymphomas

78
Q

Methotrexate/Trimetrexate/pemetrexed toxicities (3):

A
  • Oral and GI ulceration
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Pulmonary toxicity
79
Q

Camptothecin/topotecan/irinotecan MOA:

A

Inhibitors of topoisomerase I.

80
Q

Erlotinib/gefitinib MOA:

A

Blocks EGFR signaling.

81
Q

Carmustine/Lomustine/Semustine/Streptozocin cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

82
Q

Chlorambucil cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

83
Q

Mechlorethamine MOA:

A

Blocks DNA replication and transcription. Damages DNA.

84
Q

Fluorouracil 5-FU MOA:

A

Decrease DNA synthesis by blocking thymidylate synthesis –> not enough nucleotides and will use FUTP and FdUTP –> cell damage and death.

85
Q

Thioguianine 6-TG MOA:

A

Inhibits several steps in biosynthesis of purines.

86
Q

Bevuczimab MOA:

A

Blocks VEGF-R and prevents angiogenesis.

87
Q

Dacarbazine/temozolomide cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

88
Q

Methotrexate/Trimetrexate/pemetrexed MOA (2):

A
  • MTX inhibits DHF reductase to block biosynthesis of thymidylate and purines –> decrease in DNA synthesis.
  • Pemetrexed directly inhibits thymidylate synthase.
89
Q

Estramustine phosphate (4):

A
  • Given orally.
  • Phosphate cleaved during absorption.
  • In vivo binds to beta-tubulin.
  • Anti-mitotic effects.
90
Q

Cyclophosphamide toxicity (2):

A
  • Hemorrhagic cystitis.

- SIADH.

91
Q

Paclitaxel toxicity:

A

Peripheral neuropathy.

92
Q

Paclitaxel cell cycle profile:

A

M phase

93
Q

Mechlorethamine cell cycle profile:

A

CCNS

94
Q

Thioguianine cell cycle profile:

A

S phase

95
Q

Cytarabine MOA:

A

Inhibits DNA polymerase alpha incorporation into DNA –> unstable.