Cancer Flashcards

0
Q

the death of cells that occurs as a normal and controlled part of an organism’s growth or development.

A

Apoptosis

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1
Q

What is a oncogene?

A

A gene that has the potential to cause cancer. In tumor cells, they are often mutated or expressed at high levels. Most of the normal cells undergo a programmed form of rapid cell death (apoptosis). Activated oncogenes can cause those cells designated for apoptosis to survive and proliferate instead.

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2
Q

What happens in division

A

Uncontrolled cell division

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3
Q

What are tumor suppressor genes?

A

A tumor suppressor gene, or antioncogene, is a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer. When this gene mutates to cause a loss or reduction in its function, the cell can progress to cancer, usually in combination with other genetic changes.

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4
Q

What happens during growth

A

Formation of a lump (tumor) of large members of abnormal white cells in the blood

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5
Q

What can happen with the tumor during growth

A

Pressure on nerves, blocking organs, stopping normal function, altering nerve signals, fungating

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6
Q

What is fungating

A

Tumor erupts through skin

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7
Q

What happens during mutation

A

There are changes to how the cell is viewed by the immune system

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8
Q

Ability to move within the body and survive in another part

A

Spread

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9
Q

What is metastasis

A

Spread of cancer, traveling

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10
Q

the development of new blood vessels.

A

Angiogenesis

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11
Q

Adeno-

A

Gland

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12
Q

Chrondro-

A

Cartilage

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13
Q

Erythro-

A

Red blood cell

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14
Q

Hemangio-

A

Blood vessels

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15
Q

Hepato-

A

Liver

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16
Q

Lipo-

A

Fat

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17
Q

Lympho-

A

Lymphocyte

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18
Q

Melano-

A

Pigment cell

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19
Q

Myelo-

A

Bone marrow

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20
Q

Myo-

A

Muscle

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21
Q

Osteo-

A

Bone

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22
Q

What does benign mean

A

Not cancerous

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23
Q

What is the single biggest cause of cancer

A

Smoking

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24
Q

What is the gene associated with breast cancer

A

BRCA 1&2

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25
Q

What are some physical causes of cancer

A

Ultraviolet radiation (sunlight and certain industrial sources) and radiation (radon and cancer treatment)

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26
Q

What are some consequences to obesity

A

Cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, hypertension

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27
Q

What do classifications of cancer do?

A

Provide a standardized way to communicate with health care system, prepare and evaluate treatment plan, determine prognosis, and compare groups statistically

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28
Q

What does in situ mean

A

Very localized in tissue

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29
Q

Do you want cancer to be in situ?

A

Yes because you can usually cut it out because it is very localized

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30
Q

How is anatomic site classification indentified?

A

By tissue of origin

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31
Q

Where do carcinogens originate from?

A

Embryonal ectoderm (skin, glands) or endoderm (mucous membrane of respiratory tract, GI and GU tracts)

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32
Q

Where do sarcomas originate from?

A

Embryonal mesoderm (connective tissue, muscle, bone, and fat)

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33
Q

Where do lymphomas and leukemias originate from?

A

Hematopoietic system

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34
Q

How can tumors be classified?

A

By anatomic site, histology (grading severity), and extent of disease (staging)

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35
Q

What is histological classification

A

Average of cells and degree of differentiation are evaluated to determine he closely cells resemble tissue if origin

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36
Q

How many grades of abnormal cells are there?

A

4

37
Q

Cells differ slightly from normal cells and are well differentiated

A

Grade 1

38
Q

Cells more abnormal and moderately differentiated

A

Grade 2

39
Q

Cells very abnormal and poorly differentiated

A

Grade 3

40
Q

Cells immature and primitive and undifferentiated. Cell of origin is difficult to determine

A

Grade 4

41
Q

What are the clinical staging classifications

A

0: cancer is in situ
1: tumor limited to tissue or origin, localized tumor growth
2: limited local spread
3: extensive local and regional spread
4: metastasis

42
Q

What are proto-oncogenes?

A

Are normal cell genes that regulate normal cell processes to keep them in their mature, functioning state

43
Q

What are tumor-inducing genes called?

A

Oncogenes

44
Q

When proto-oncogenes are mutated what can they begin functioning as?

A

Oncogenes (Tumor-inducing genes)

45
Q

What types of tumors are well differentiated

A

Benign neoplasms

46
Q

What are the most frequent sites of metastasis

A

Lungs, bone, brain, liver, and adrenal glands

47
Q

What does TNM classification system mean

A

T- tumor size and invasiveness
N- spread to lymph nodes
M- metastasis
The TNM classification system is anatomical extent of disease based on those three parameters

48
Q

Should you tell a patient “it’s going to be ok”

A

No because that is giving false hope. Don’t say that because you don’t know that

49
Q

What is the goal for palliative care

A

For them to be comfortable

50
Q

What does adjuvant therapy mean

A

To be used with

51
Q

What is debulking

A

Do surgery but it is for a different purpose

removal of excess bulk of tissue from a lesion either to assist in healing or as an adjunct to chemotherapy.

52
Q

What is the mainstay for most solid rumors and hematologic cancers?

A

Chemotherapy

53
Q

When is radiation therapy typically delivered

A

Once a day for 5 days a week for 2-8 weeks

54
Q

How can radiation be delivered

A

Internally or externally

55
Q

What is the most common radiation treatment?

A

External radiation (teletherapy)

56
Q

What is external radiation

A

Patient exposed to radiation from a megavolt machine

57
Q

What is internal radiation

A

Implantation or insertion of radioactive materials into or close to tumor, minimal exposure to healthy tissue, used in combination with teletherapy

58
Q

What is another name for external radiation

A

Teletherapy

59
Q

What is another name for internal radiation

A

Brachytherapy

60
Q

If a patient is receiving internal radiation what should you do as the nurse

A

Limit amount of time near patient being treated: organize care, shielding should be used, wear film badge to monitor exposure

61
Q

What do you have to teach patients getting internal radiation

A

Patients should understand needs for time and distance restrictions on health care providers

62
Q

What are common side effects of chemotherapy and radiation

A

Bone marrow suppression, fatigue, GI disturbances, integumentary and mucosal reactions, pulmonary effects, reproductive effects

63
Q

What is the most common side effect of chemotherapy

A

Myelosuppression (bone marrow suppression)

64
Q

What happens in myelosuppression?

A

bone marrow activity is decreased, resulting in fewer red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. The treatment-induced reductions in RBC and WBC can result in infection, hemorrhage, and overwhelming fatigue

65
Q

What is nadir

A

When counts are at low points

66
Q

What kind of diet should patient be on

A

Nonirritating, low-fiber, high calorie, high protein diet

67
Q

How do you monitor someone’s protein?

A

Albumin or prealbumin

68
Q

What should you do with a dry skin reaction

A

Lubricate with Nonirritating lotion or solution that contains no metal, alcohol, perfume, or additives

69
Q

What should you do with a wet skin reaction

A

Keep clean and dry and protected from further damage

70
Q

What is xerostomia

A

Dry mouth

71
Q

Secondary malignancies are usually ______ to therapy

A

Resistant

72
Q

What does targeted therapy do

A

Able to kill tumor cells without damaging normal cells. Alter cell receptors or pathways that are important for tumor growth

73
Q

What to biologic response modifiers do?

A

Modify response between tumor and surrounding host tissue
-anti tumor effect, modulate immune response to tumor cells, interfere with the cells ability to metastasize and differentiate

74
Q

What are side effects of biologic therapy?

A

Flu like symptoms

75
Q

With malnutrition when are supplements needed

A

When 5% weight loss is noted

76
Q

Biologic and targeted therapies cannot be administered _______

A

Orally

77
Q

What test should you monitor with malnutrition

A

Albumin and prealbumin levels

78
Q

What is normal prealbumin level

A

19-38 mg/dl

79
Q

What is normal albumin level

A

3.4-5.4 g/dl

80
Q

What is albumin

A

Protein status for a period of time (last month)

81
Q

What is prealbumin

A

Protein status recently ( last few days)

82
Q

What is the primary cause of death in cancer patients

A

Infection

83
Q

What are some gerontologic considerations

A

Clinical manifestations may be mistaken for age related changes, more vulnerable to complications of cancer and cancer therapy, functional status should be considered when selecting a treatment plan

84
Q

How can chemotherapy be administered

A

Oral or IV

85
Q

Emission and distribution of energy through space or a material medium

A

Radiation

86
Q

What are the two major dysfunctions in the process of cancer development

A

Defective cell proliferation (growth) and defective cell differentiation

87
Q

What is contact inhibition?

A

Normal cells respect the boundaries and territories of cells surrounding them

88
Q

Cell proliferation originates in ______ and begins with the ______ enters the _________

A

Cell proliferation originates in the stem cell and begins when the stem cell enters the cell cycle

89
Q

What do tumor suppressor genes do

A

Function to regulate cell growth. They prevent cells from going through the cell cycle

90
Q

The primary difference between benign and malignant neoplasms is the

A

Characteristic of tissue invasiveness