Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Why is ovarian cancer frequently diagnosed at an advanced stage?

A

often diagnosed at an advanced stage due to non-specific symptoms, which can result in the disease being widely metastatic within the abdomen by the time it is detected

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2
Q

State the most common type of ovarian cancer and give 4 subtypes

A

epithelial cell tumours
* serous adenocarcinoma (mc)
* endometroid carcinoma
* clear cell carcinoma
* mucinous adenocarcinoma

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3
Q

How does the number of ovulations relate to the risk of ovarian cancer?

A

Factors that increase the number of ovulations increase the risk of ovarian cancer.
* Early menarche
* late menopause
* nulliparity

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4
Q

What are some risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A
  • increase age
  • FHx - BRCA1 & 2 gene
  • obesity
  • many ovulations - early, late menopause, nulliparity
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5
Q

Give 3 factors that are protective against ovarian cancer

A
  • combined contraceptive pill
  • breastfeeding
  • pregnancy
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6
Q

What are some symptoms that may indicate ovarian cancer?

A
  • persistent abdo distension (bloating)
  • early satiety (feeling full)
  • loss of appetite
  • pelvic/abdo pain
  • urinary symptoms (frequency/urgency)
  • weight loss
  • abdominal/ pelvic mass
  • ascites.
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7
Q

When should a 2-week-wait referral for suspected ovarian cancer be made based on physical examination findings?

A
  • ascites
  • pelvic mass (unless clearly due to fibroids)
  • abdominal mass
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8
Q

What are the initial investigations for ovarian cancer in primary care?

A
  • CA125 blood test
  • pelvic ultrasound: ascites and/ or mass = urgent referral
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9
Q

What investigations are done in secondary care for suspected ovarian cancer

A
  • CT pelvis/ abdo: establish disease extent
  • calculate risk of malignancy index
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10
Q

What factors does the Risk of Malignancy Index (RMI) use to estimate the risk of an ovarian mass being malignant?

A
  • menopausal status
  • ultrasound findings
  • CA125 level.
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11
Q

When calculating the Risk of Malignancy Index (RMI), how is the ultrasound result scored?

A

the ultrasound result is scored 1 point for each of the following characteristics:
* multilocular cysts
* solid areas
* metastases
* ascites
* bilateral lesions
U=1: 1pt
U=3: 2-5pts

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12
Q

What tumour markers are required for women under 40 years with a complex ovarian mass to assess for a possible germ cell tumour

A
  • Alpha-fetoprotein (α-FP)
  • Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
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13
Q

What are the stages of ovarian cancer according to the International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging system?

A
  • Stage 1: Confined to the ovary.
  • 2: Spread past the ovary but inside the pelvis.
  • 3: Spread past the pelvis but inside the abdomen.
  • 4: Spread outside the abdomen (distant metastasis).
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14
Q

How is ovarian cancer managed surgically

A
  • total hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophrectomy and partial omentectomy
  • mid line laparotomy - assess abdo and pelvis
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15
Q

How is ovarian cancer managed medically

A

confirmed tissue diagnosis needed before chemotherapy (stage 1C onwards)
* 6 cycles of neoadjuvant chemo: carboplatin and paclitaxel

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16
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia

A

a precancerous condition involving thickening of the endometrium

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17
Q

What are the 2 types of endometrial hyperplasia

A
  • Hyperplasia without atypia
  • Atypical hyperplasia
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18
Q

How is endometrial hyperplasia managed

A
  • Intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena coil)
  • Continuous oral progestogens (e.g. medroxyprogesterone or levonorgestrel)
  • hysterectomy for atypia
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19
Q

Give 5 RFs of endometrial cancer related to unopposed endogenous/exogenous oestrogen

A
  • obesity (endo)
  • PCOS - prolonged amenorrhea (endo)
  • early menarche (endo)
  • nulliparity (endo)
  • late menopause (endo)
  • tamoxifen therapy (exo)
  • HRT (exo)
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20
Q

Give 3 RFs of endometrial cancer that are NOT associated with unopposed oestrogen

A
  • T2DM
  • > 55yo
  • Lynch 2 syndrome
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21
Q

Give 3 protective factors of endometrial cancer

A
  • combined contraceptive pill
  • pregnancy
  • smoking
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22
Q

Give 3 symptoms of endometrial cancer

A
  • postmenopausal bleeding (10% risk) - mc presentation
  • intermenstrual bleeding
  • unusually heavy menstrual bleeding
  • haematuria
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23
Q

What is the referral criteria for a 2-week-wait urgent cancer referral for endometrial cancer?

A

women over the age of 55 with Postmenopausal bleeding (more than 12 months after the last menstrual period) should be investigated within two weeks by ultrasound for endometrial cancer

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24
Q

How is endometrial cancer investigated

A
  • transvaginal ultrasound for endometrial thickness
  • Pipelle biopsy - highly sensitive
  • Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy (GS)
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25
Q

When should women over 55 years be referred for a transvaginal ultrasound

A
  • Unexplained vaginal discharge
  • Visible haematuria plus raised platelets, anaemia or elevated glucose levels
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26
Q

What are the stages of endometrial cancer according to the FIGO staging system?

A
  • Stage 1: Confined to the uterus.
  • Stage 2: Invades the cervix.
  • Stage 3: Invades the ovaries, fallopian tubes, vagina, or lymph nodes.
  • Stage 4: Invades the bladder, rectum, or beyond the pelvis.
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27
Q

How is endometrial cancer managed surgically

A
  • total laparoscopic hysterectomy with salpingo-oophrectomy
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28
Q

How is endometrial cancer managed medically

A
  • external beam radiotherapy
  • adjuvant chemo: paclitaxel and carboplatin
  • progesterone hormone Tx
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29
Q

What are the most common types of cervical cancer?

A
  • 80% of cervical cancers are squamous cell carcinoma
  • adenocarcinoma - 2nd mc
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30
Q

What is the most common cause of cervical cancer

A

infection with human papillomavirus (HPV)

31
Q

Which 2 HPV strains are most associated with cervical cancer and targeted with the HPV vaccine

32
Q

At what age are children vaccinated against certain strains of HPV to help reduce the risk of cervical cancer?

A

aged 12 to 13 years

33
Q

Explain the pathology of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

A
  • As the columnar epithelium of the cervix undergoes metaplasia to squamous epithelium, exposure to certain HPV results in incorporation of viral DNA into cell DNA
  • Viral proteins (E6 and E7) inactivate tumour suppressor genes (P53 and pRb)
  • mutations accumulate and can lead to carcinoma
34
Q

Give 5 RFs of cervical cancer

A
  • HPV infection
  • smoking
  • non-engagement with screening
  • Immunosuppression - HIV/ transplant
  • early onset of sexual activity, multiple sexual partners
  • high parity
  • COCP
35
Q

What is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

A

histological abnormality of the cervix in which abnormal epithelial cells occupy varying degrees of the squamous epithelium

36
Q

What test is used to diagnose Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN) ?

A

colposcopy

37
Q

What are the grades of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN) and their characteristics?

A

CIN I: Mild dysplasia affecting 1/3 of the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to return to normal spontaneously
CIN II: Moderate dysplasia affecting 2/3 of the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to progress to cancer if untreated.
CIN III: Severe dysplasia affecting full thickness of epithelium, very likely to progress to cancer if untreated. This is carcinoma in situ.

38
Q

What is the cervical screening schedule for women and transgender men with a cervix?

A
  • Every three years for those aged 25–49.
  • Every five years for those aged 50–64.
39
Q

What are the notable exceptions to the cervical screening program?

A
  • Women with HIV are screened annually.
  • Women >65 can request a smear if they haven’t had one since age 50.
  • Women with previous CIN may need additional tests (e.g. test of cure after treatment).
  • Certain immunocompromised women (e.g., on dialysis, cytotoxic drugs, or organ transplant) may have additional screening.
  • Pregnant women due for a smear should wait until 12 weeks post-partum.
40
Q

What is the aim of cervical cancer screening

A

aims to detect women that are likely to have cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and therefore at risk of subsequent development of cancer

41
Q

What is the method used to transport cervical cells for examination in a smear test?

A

liquid-based cytology

42
Q

What term is used for cellular abnormalities identified in cervical smears?

A

dyskaryosis

43
Q

What are the possible cytology results in cervical screening?

A
  • Inadequate
  • Normal
  • Borderline changes
  • Low-grade dyskaryosis
  • High-grade dyskaryosis (moderate/severe)
  • invasive squamous cell carcinoma
  • cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (any grade)
44
Q

What happens if a sample tests positive or negative for high-risk HPV in cervical screening?

A

The samples are first tested for high-risk HPV.
* negative hrHPV - no cytology, woman returns to routine screening
* hrHPV positive -> cytology.

45
Q

What is the next step if the patient is hrHPV positive and cytology is abnormal

A

refer for colposcopy

46
Q

What is the next step if cytology is normal but the patient is hrHPV positive?

A

Repeat the test in 12 months.

47
Q

What should be done if the repeat smear test at 12 months is hrHPV negative?

A

Return to normal recall.

48
Q

What is the next step if the repeat smear test at 12 months is hrHPV positive but cytology remains normal?

A

Perform a further repeat test in 12 months.

49
Q

What is the next step if the repeat smear test at 24 months is hrHPV negative?

A

Return to normal recall.

50
Q

What should be done if the repeat smear test at 24 months is still hrHPV positive?

A

Refer for colposcopy.

51
Q

When should individuals treated for CIN1, CIN2, or CIN3 be invited for a follow-up test?

A

should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment in the community

52
Q

What is the next step if a sample comes back as ‘inadequate’

A

repeat test in 3 months

53
Q

What is the next step if two consecutive cervical samples are ‘inadequate’?

A

The patient should be referred for colposcopy.

54
Q

How are abnormal areas differentiated during colposcopy?

A

stains such as acetic acid and iodine solution can be used to differentiate abnormal areas

55
Q

What effect does acetic acid have on abnormal cells during colposcopy

A

Acetic acid causes abnormal cells to appear white.

56
Q

What symptoms should prompt consideration of cervical cancer as a differential diagnosis?

A
  • abnormal vaginal bleeding (intermenstrual, postcoital, or post-menopausal bleeding)
  • Offensive vaginal discharge
    Late features:
  • Pelvic pain
  • Dyspareunia (pain or discomfort during sex)
57
Q

How is cervical cancer investigated

A
  • vaginal/ speculum - mass/ bleeding
  • colposcopy
  • cone biopsy or large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ)- confirm diagnosis
  • MRI - lymph node involvement
58
Q

How is cervical cancer staged using the FIGO system?

A
  • Stage 1: Confined to the cervix
  • Stage 2: Invades the uterus or upper 2/3 of the vagina
  • Stage 3: Invades the pelvic wall or lower 1/3 of the vagina
  • Stage 4: Invades the bladder, rectum, or beyond the pelvis
59
Q

What are the typical treatments for cervical cancer based on its stage?

A
  • CIN/ stage 1a: LLETZ or cone biopsy (maintain fertility), radical trachelectomy
  • Stage 1B-2A: Radical hysterectomy and removal of local lymph nodes with chemo and radiotherapy
  • stage 2B-4A/ +ve nodes: pelvic external beam radiotherapy and chemo (cisplatin)
  • 4B: chemo (cisplatin + paclitaxel +/- bevacizumab)
60
Q

What are the complications of cone biopsy

A
  • bleeding
  • preterm labour
  • pain
61
Q

What is vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), and what can it lead to if untreated?

A

pre-cancerous condition affecting the squamous epithelium of the skin, which can lead to vulval cancer if left untreated

62
Q

Give 4 RFs for vulval intraepithelial neoplasia

A
  • HPV 16 & 18
  • Smoking
  • lichen sclerosus
  • HSV-2
63
Q

What are the two types of vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), and what are their associations?

A
  • Usual: High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) - associated with HPV
  • Differentiated VIN - associated with lichen sclerosis
64
Q

At what ages do the 2 types of VIN typically occur?

A
  • High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion - younger women aged 35–50 years.
  • Differentiated VIN - older women aged 50–60 years.
65
Q

Give 3 features of vulval intraepithelial neoplasia

A
  • itching
  • burning
  • raised, well-defined skin lesion
66
Q

How is vulval intraepithelial neoplasia investigated

A
  • Punch/ excisional biopsy - histological diagnosis
  • HPV testing
67
Q

How is vulval intraepithelial neoplasia managed

A
  • Topical: imiquimod (immune response modifier)
  • Surgical: wide local excision or laser ablation
  • follow-up: rpt colposcopy and biopsy if recurrence/ progression is suspected
68
Q

What type of cancer makes up the majority of vulval cancers?

A

Around 90% of vulval cancers are squamous cell carcinomas.

69
Q

Give 5 RFs of vulval cancer

A
  • Advanced age >75
  • immunosuppression
  • lichen sclerosus
  • HPV infection
  • Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia
  • smoking
70
Q

Give 4 clinical features of vulval cancer

A
  • lump or ulcer of labia majora
  • Inguinal lymphadenopathy
  • itching or irritation
  • bleeding
71
Q

How is vulval cancer diagnosed

A
  • biopsy of the lesion
  • sentinel node biopsy - demonstrate lymph node spread
72
Q

How is vulval cancer treated

A
  • wide local excision
  • groin lymphadenectomy
  • chemo and radiotherapy