CA3Final Flashcards by Christina Johnson | Brainscape

Q

Acepromazine (Dose, route, indications/contraindications)

A

D : 0.1 mg/lb, C: 10mg/ml, Route : IM, Phenothiazine, Ind : calming/sedation/antiemetic effects, Contra : seizures/aggression/hypotensive complications

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Q

What is the dose of Ketamine?

A

CSCC dose: 2-4 mg/#, 5-10 mg/# as sole induction agent

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Q

Important info about Ketamine (group, schedule, indications)

A

Dissociative (Cyclohexamine), Schedule 3, Painful IM admin, produces catalepsy, reflexes remain intact, metabolized by the liver

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Q

Propofol info

A

Ultra-short acting, sedative-hypnotic alkylphenol, dose 2-4mg/kg IV; rapid onset and short duration of action (2-5min), protein bound, vasodilation and decrease in BP, rapid recovery

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Q

Why should an animal under gas anesthesia receive an assisted ventilation per min?

A

Prevent atelectasis and ensure gas exchange

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Q

Appropriate rebreathing bag size calculation?

A

50ml/kg or 25ml/lb = bag size in ml

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Q

MAC and solubility of Iso and Sevo

A

minimum alveolar concentration

The MAC value of an anesthetic agent is a measure of potency and is the alveolar concentration that prevents gross purposeful movement in 50% of patients in response to a standardized painful stimulus.
Lower numbers indicate more potent agents, and values may vary slightly between species.

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Q

How to respond to anesthetic adverse changes (Hypotension, hypertension, bradycardia, tachycardia…)

A

???

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Q

What is the best setting of ECG for average sized dogs vs small dogs/cats

A

Small : 50 run speed, 2 sensitivity
Average : 25 or 50 RS, 1-2 sensitivity

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Q

How does the alteration of amplitude affect ECG strip?

A

???

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Q

How does the alteration of run speed affect ECG strip?

A

???

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Q

How does altering the run speed and amplitude (sensitivity) affect the resultant complex?

A

run speed affects space between complexes (faster=smaller/closer, slower=spread out/ longer); sensitivity affects the height of the complexes (1x=normal, 2x=tall, 1/2x=short)

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Q

If the sensitivity (amplitude) of an ECG machine is changed from 1 to 2, the resultant pQRSt complexes will be?

A

taller

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Q

When performing an ECG strip, what does RUN 25 mean?

A

that the paper is moving at 25mm/sec

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Q

When performing an ECG strip, what happens to the pQRSt complexes when the run speed is changed from Run 25 to Run 50?

A

the complexes become wider and farther apart

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Q

Identify common arrhythmias and intervention for abnormal findings

A

???

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Q

Identify common arrhythmias and intervention for abnormal findings

A

???

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Q

Identify common arrhythmias and intervention for abnormal findings

A

???

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Q

Identify common arrhythmias and intervention for abnormal findings

A

???

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Q

Identify common arrhythmias and intervention for abnormal findings

A

???

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Q

Indications for placing a urinary catheter

A

blockage, stone, paralysis, long surgery, difficulty urinating, neurologic bladder, urinary sample

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Q

Indications for performing a cystocentesis

A

???

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Q

How to correctly place a urinary catheter

A

???

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Q

Anechoic

A

When the echogenicity of a structure appears black. (fluids)

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Q

Hypoechoic

A

these structures appear darker on the ultrasound screen as compared to the structures around them

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Q

Hyperechoic

A

these structures appear lighter on the ultrasound screen as compared to the structures around them

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Q

Echogenicity

A

a term referring to how tissues reflect the sound waves

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Q

Basic principles of ultrasound guided cystocentesis

A

???

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Q

what is the blood vessel of choice when drawing a larger volume of blood from a dog or cat for most blood tests?

A

jugular vein

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Q

What are some indicators of poor blood sample collection or handling techniques?

A

hemolysis, clotting, improper anticoagulant/blood ratio

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Q

purple top blood collection tubes have what in them and are used for what purpose?

A

EDTA and CBC

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Q

Blue topped collection tubes have what in them and are used for what purpose

A

sodum citrate for blood coagulation determination

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Q

For hematology tests, are clots in EDTA blood acceptable?

A

never acceptable

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Q

Complications that may occur during venipuncture

A

subcutaneous hematoma, hemorrhage, thrombosis of the vein, skin irritation at needle penetration site

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Q

EDTA plasma cannot be used for diagnostic testing because it forms a complex with what?

A

calcium

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Q

identify appropriate restraint techniques used when obtaining blood samples

A

???

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Q

What is the purpose of leaving toes exposed when bandaging a limb?

A

allows for monitoring of swelling and toe comparison

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Q

Which digits should be visible to assess for swelling and hypothermia?

A

third and fourth

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Q

Problems that may occur if a bandage is placed incorrectly (too loose / too tight)

A

Too tight —> pressure sores and irritation, vascular compromise (hypothermia and swelling from veinous stasis), compress peripheral nerves (limb dysfunction)
Too loose —> friction abrasions from movement

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Q

Proper order of bandage materials used for application of soft bandages/splints

A

???

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Q

Methods and reasons for performing a complete physical exam

A

???

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Q

Which lymph nodes can be palpated in a healthy animal?

A

Submandibular, prescapular, popliteal

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Q

names and locations of heart valves

A

???

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Q

characteristics of 5% Dehydration

A

undetectable

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Q

characteristics of 5-8% Dehydration

A

mild delay in return of skin to normal position, normal to slightly prolonged CRT, mm=tacky

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Q

characteristics of 8-10% Dehydration

A

definite delay in return of skin to normal position, slightly prolonged CRT, mm=dry/tacky, eyes may be sunken into orbits

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Q

characteristics of 10-12% Dehydration

A

skin easily tents and stands in place, prolonged CRT, dry mucous membranes, eyes sunken into orbits/Nictitans prominent, signs of shock may be observed (tachycardia, weak pulse)

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Q

characteristics of 12-15% Dehydration

A

shock, collapse, severe depression, imminent death

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Q

What vision tests and other ophthalmic tests are done?

A

History, Observation, Vision test (Menace, Tracking, Maze), Pupillary light response, Schirmer tear test, Examine front of the eye, Examine back of the eye, Tonometry, Corneal staining, electroretinography

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Q

Common clinical signs of ophthalmic disease

A

squinting, chemosis, epiphora, miosis, mydriasis, anisocoria, exophthalmos, enophthalmos, proptosis, hyphaema, hypopyon, phthisis bulbi

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Q

Chemosis

A

swelling of the conjunctivia

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Q

Epiphora

A

tear overflow

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Q

Miosis

A

constricted pupil

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Q

Mydriasis

A

dilated pupil

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Q

Anisocoria

A

different in size of the two pupils

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Q

Exophthalmos

A

abnormal protrusion of the eye

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Q

Enophthalmos

A

sunken eye

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Q

Proptosis

A

forward displacement of the globe

Q

Hyphaema

A

blood within the anterior chamber

Q

Hypopyon

A

white blood cells (pus) within the anterior chamber

Q

Phthisis bulbi

A

shrinkage of the globe due to disease

Q

What are the different types of hemorrhage

A

Petechiae, Ecchymoses, Hematoma, Purpura

Q

Petechiae

A

small pinpoint hemorrhage

Q

Ecchymoses

A

Larger more spread out areas of hemorrhage

Q

Hematoma

A

blood blister, Localized collection of blood

Q

Purpura

A

ecchymoses combined

Q

Otitis Externa

A

Acute or chronic inflammation of soft tissue components of external auditory meatus which sometimes involves pinna

Q

What are the primary causes of Otitis Externa

A

Allergic disease, Metabolic diseases (Hypothyroidism, Cushing’s), Anatomical or congenital abnormalities

Q

What specific organisms cause Otitis Externa

A

Malazzezia (black, moist, allergies), Otodectes (black dry, granular, itchy kittens), Bacteria (yellow moist to wet), Psudomonas (green moist, harder to treat)

Q

Fluorescein stain: Purpose, techniques and interpretation

A

???

Q

Schirmer: Purpose, techniques and interpretation

A

???

Q

Tonopen: Purpose, techniques and interpretation

A

???

Q

What are the rules of the Tridan Numbering system?

A

100=Maxilla right, 200 = Maxilla left, 300= Mandible left, 400 = Mandible right; incisors 1-3, Canines always 4, Last premolar always 8, K9 maxilla last molar 10, K9 mandible last molar 11, feline maxilla and mandible 9

Q

Alveolar bone

A

aka alveolar process, the thick ridge of bone which contains the tooth sockets

Alveolar process is comprised of alveolar bone, trabecular bone and compact bone

Q

Pulp

A

vascular and nerve tissue forming the inner tooth

Q

Dentin

A

a hard substance similar to bone forming the bulk of the tooth around the pulp cavity

Q

Enamel

A

the hardest substance in the body, covering only the crown

Q

Apical delta

A

space within the root canal that allows free passage of blood vessels and nerves from the periapical compartment to the pulp tissue

Q

Cementum

A

hard tissue forming the surface of the root

Q

Periodontal ligament

A

connective tissue of the root with attaches to the socket

Q

Lamina dura

A

dense layer of bone between the cementum and lamina dura, radioopaque

Q

Crown

A

the part of the tooth projecting above the gingiva covered with enamel

Q

Root

A

the part of the tooth that extends into the bone and holds the tooth in place

Q

Label the parts of this tooth

A

A - Alveolar bone
B - Pulp
C - Dentin
D - Enamel
E - Apical Delta
F - Cementum
G - Periodontal ligament
H - Lamina Dura
I - Crown
J - Root

Q

Abnormal dental/periodontal structures/terms, causes, means of diagnosis

A

???

Q

explain a proper canine/feline home preventative dental care plan for pet owners

A

???

Q

Extractor

A

This instrument can be used to loosen and remove the major portion of supragingival calculus.

Q

Periodontal probe

A

this instrument is used to determine gingival sulcus depth. It is calibrated into millimeter lengths. The tip is gently inserted into the sulcus, parallel to the long axis of the tooth, until soft resistance of the sulcar epithelial attachement is felt

Q

Explorer

A

this instrument is used to determine defects of the tooth surface. AKA the shepherd’s hook. It can be used sub- and supra- gingivally

Q

Ultrasonic scalers

A

ultrasonic vibration of a metal tip and water to remove supreagingival plaque, tartar, necrotic tissue, and debris. Each tip vibrates at a certain frequency. With the appropriate frequency of vibration and water pressure, a fine mist is produced

Q

Drawbacks of Ultrasonic scalers

A

can scratch enamel, cut and etch dentin and cementum, and cause thermal damage to dental and periodental structures

Q

P-3 Ultrasonic scaler

A

blunt tip (beaver tail), lateral edge used against the tooth surface, back and forth motion with the tow facing the marginal gingiva

Q

P-10 Ultrasonic scaler

A

pointed tip (perio probe) tip can be used for fine detail work intral and inter dental spaces, caution as to not place too much force on the tip thus increasing the etching to the enamel

Q

Hand scaler

A

usually sickle shaped with sharp edges and points, these instruments are used to remoe supragingival plaque, tartar, necrotic tissue and debris. hold with modified pencil grip. particle removal is best achieved with hand instruments

Q

Curette

A

similar to hand scalers, but have curved, blunted toes with sharp edges. they are designed to remove subgingival plaque, tartar, necrotic tissue and debris.

Q

Subgingival curettage

A

cleaning of the sulcus, sulcular epithelium and subgingival tooth surface

Q

root planning

A

cleaning of the root surface

Q

What are the instrumentation and principles for the steps of a complete dental cleaning

A

???

Q

Parallel technique

A

Most consistently accurate image of an object; position film directly behind and parallel to the long axis of the area being radiographed and the xray beam is directly perpendicular to that area and the film; onlu used in mandibular premolars and molars

Q

Bisecting angle

A

Use bisecting angle (an imaging plan that equally divides the distance btwn the planes of the long axis of the area being radiographed and the film) and position the tube head for the primary beam to be perpendicular to this imaginary bisecting plane

Q

Superimposition

A

x-ray beam is obliquely aligned in a mesial/distal direction -> interdental spaces appear narrow or superimposed

Q

Elongation

A

The tube head or beam is perpendicular to tooth; results in a long tooth picture, the angle of the beam will be too close to the horizontal plane (beam is too low)

Q

Foreshortening

A

tube head/beam is perpendicular to film/sensor; results in stubby teeth

Q

What are the advatages/disadvantages of common suture patterns and knots

A

???

Q

What are the advatages/disadvantages of common suture patterns and knots

A

???

Q

What are the advatages/disadvantages of common suture patterns and knots

A

???

Q

What are the advatages/disadvantages of common suture patterns and knots

A

???

Q

problems associated with improper tension of sutures

A

???

Q

What are the primary causes of Otitis Externa

A

Allergic disease, Metabolic diseases (Hypothyroidism, Cushing’s), Anatomical or congenital abnormalities

Q

Toxocara

A

(roundworm), infective by oral route, transmamary, transplacental, zoonotic potential (visceral/ocular larval migrans), very resistant in environment

Q

Ancylostoma

A

(hookworm), infective by oral route, transmammary, transplacental, and percutaneous, causes anemia and diarrhea (tarry stool), zoonotic potential (cutaneous larval migrans)

Q

Trichuris

A

(whipworm), infective oral route (eggs), may cause bloody diarrhea and large bowel inflammation

Q

Cystoisospora

A

(Isospora/Protozoa/coccidia), overcrowding, kennels, poor sanitation, and stres, rodents are carriers

Q

Protozoa

A

Cryptosporidium (contaminated water), Giardia (contaminated water, waxing and waning vomiting and diarrhea), Toxoplasma (cats are definitive host, immunocompromised)

Q

Taenia

A

(tapeworm - multiple species), cattle, rodents, rabbits, and sheep can be intermediate host, zoonotic

Q

Dipylidium

A

(tapeworm) from fleas, aka cucumber tape worm, transmitted from fleas to pets via ingestion

Q

Canine 100

A

Toxocara canis - Roundworm

Q

Canine 100

A

Trichuris vulpis - Whipworm

Q

Canine 100

A

Dipylidium caninum - Tapeworm

IH : flea

Q

Canine/Feline 100

A

Taenia pisiformis/taeniaeformis - Tapeworms

IH : Rabbit/rodent

Q

Canine 100

A

Ancylostoma caninum - hookworm

Q

A

Dipylidium caninum

Q

A

Dipylidium caninum

Q

A

Dipylidium caninum
Toxocara canis
Ancylostoma

Q

A

Dipylidium caninum
Toxocara canis
Ancylostoma
coccidia

Q

A

Isospora

Q

A

Isospora

Q

A

Sodium Nitrate Crystals

Q

A

Taenia

Q

A

Taenia

Q

A

Toxocara canis

Q

A

Toxocara

Capillaria

Q

A

Toxocara

Taenia

Q

A

Toxocara

Toxascaris

Q

A

Trichuris

Baylisascaris

Q

A

Trichuris vulpis

Q

A

Trichuris vulpis

Q

A

Zinc sulfate crystals

Q

A

Air bubbles

Q

A

Ancylostoma

Toxocara

Q

A

Ancylostoma

Trichuris

Q

A

Budding yeast

Q

A

Cryptoisospora