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VET - ClinAppii/iii > CA3 midterm > Flashcards

CA3 midterm Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the dose of Ketamine?

A

CSCC dose: 2-4 mg/#, 5-10 mg/# as sole induction agent

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2
Q

Important info about Ketamine (group, schedule, indications)

A

Dissociative (Cyclohexamine), Schedule 3, Painful IM admin, produces catalepsy, reflexes remain intact, metabolized by the liver

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3
Q

Isoflurane percentages and effects

A

Induction 3%, Maintenance 1-2%; Halogenated organic compound, dose dependent cardiac and respiratory depression, rapid induction and recovery

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4
Q

Sevoflurane percentages and effects

A

Induction 5-7%, Maintenance 3-4%; Halogenated organic compound, dose dependent cardiac depression, relative insoluble in blood

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5
Q

Atropine info

A

Anticholinergic (parasympatholytic), emergency drug, dose 0.01 mg/#, Duration 60-90 min, vagal tone inhibition -> increased heart rate, bronchodilation, Mydriasis, reduces salivation, bronchial secretions and GI motility.

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6
Q

Propofol info

A

Ultra-short acting, sedative-hypnotic alkylphenol, dose 2-4mg/kg IV; rapid onset and short duration of action (2-5min), protein bound, vasodilation and decrease in BP, rapid recovery

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7
Q

When to use a partial rebreathing system vs non-rebreathing system

A

Rebreating (>7kg/15#) Nonrebreathing (<7kg/15#)

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8
Q

When to use parallel technique vs bisecting angle technique

A

Bisecting angle : Incisors/canines, P1-2, M2-3;
Parallel technique : Mandibular 3rd/4th P/M

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9
Q

What are the rules of the Tridan Numbering system?

A

100=Maxilla right, 200 = Maxilla left, 300= Mandible left, 400 = Mandible right; incisors 1-3, Canines always 4, Last premolar always 8, K9 maxilla last molar 10, K9 mandible last molar 11, feline maxilla and mandible 9

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10
Q

Alveolar bone

A

aka alveolar process, the thick ridge of bone which contains the tooth sockets

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11
Q

Pulp

A

vascular and nerve tissue forming the inner tooth

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12
Q

Dentin

A

a hard substance similar to bone forming the bulk of the tooth around the pulp cavity

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13
Q

Enamel

A

the hardest substance in the body, covering only the crown

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14
Q

Apical delta

A

space within the root canal that allows free passage of blood vessels and nerves from the periapical compartment to the pulp tissue

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15
Q

Cementum

A

hard tissue forming the surface of the root

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16
Q

Periodontal ligament

A

connective tissue of the root with attaches to the socket

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17
Q

Lamina dura

A

dense layer of bone between the cementum and lamina dura, radioopaque

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18
Q

Crown

A

the part of the tooth projecting above the gingiva covered with enamel

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19
Q

Root

A

the part of the tooth that extends into the bone and holds the tooth in place

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20
Q

Label the parts of this tooth

A

1-10
A - Alveolar bone
B - Pulp
C - Dentin
D - Enamel
E - Apical Delta
F - Cementum
G - Periodontal ligament
H - Lamina Dura
I - Crown
J - Root

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21
Q

Extractor

A

This instrument can be used to loosen and remove the major portion of supragingival calculus.

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22
Q

Periodontal probe

A

this instrument is used to determine gingival sulcus depth. It is calibrated into millimeter lengths. The tip is gently inserted into the sulcus, parallel to the long axis of the tooth, until soft resistance of the sulcar epithelial attachement is felt

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23
Q

Explorer

A

this instrument is used to determine defects of the tooth surface. AKA the shepherd’s hook. It can be used sub- and supra- gingivally

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24
Q

Ultrasonic scalers

A

ultrasonic vibration of a metal tip and water to remove supreagingival plaque, tartar, necrotic tissue, and debris. Each tip vibrates at a certain frequency. With the appropriate frequency of vibration and water pressure, a fine mist is produced

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25
Drawbacks of Ultrasonic scalers
can scratch enamel, cut and etch dentin and cementum, and cause thermal damage to dental and periodental structures
26
P-3 Ultrasonic scaler
blunt tip (beaver tail), lateral edge used against the tooth surface, back and forth motion with the toe facing the marginal gingiva
27
P-10 Ultrasonic scaler
pointed tip (perio probe) tip can be used for fine detail work intral and inter dental spaces, caution as to not place too much force on the tip thus increasing the etching to the enamel
28
Hand scaler
usually sickle shaped with sharp edges and points, these instruments are used to remove supragingival plaque, tartar, necrotic tissue and debris. - hold with modified pencil grip. - particle removal is best achieved with hand instruments
29
Curette
similar to hand scalers, but have curved, blunted toes with sharp edges. they are designed to remove subgingival plaque, tartar, necrotic tissue and debris.
30
Subgingival curettage
cleaning of the sulcus, sulcular epithelium and subgingival tooth surface
31
root planning
cleaning of the root surface
32
Anechoic
When the echogenicity of a structure appears black. fluids
33
Hypoechoic
these structures appear darker on the ultrasound screen as compared to the structures around them
34
Hyperechoic
these structures appear lighter on the ultrasound screen as compared to the structures around them
35
Echogenicity
a term referring to how tissues reflect the sound waves
36
What is the preferred lead when performing an ECG
Lead 2
37
Amplitude
height of a waveform
38
Arrhythmia
an abnormal heart rhythm
39
Atrial fibrillation
a rapid, irregular heart rhythm in which the atria are chaotically depolarized by impulses that do not originate in the sinus node
40
AV node
atrioventricular node; the electric connection between the atria and the ventricles where impulse conduction slows
41
Depolarization
electric activation
42
Duration
with of a waveform the amount of time a waveform takes
43
First-degree AV block
on an ECG, the P-R intervals are longer than normal
44
Repolarization
electric resetting so that depolarization can occur
45
SA node
Sinoatrial node
46
Ventricular escape complex
a ventricular originating complex that occurs after a long pause in the rhythm
47
V-tach
ventricular tachycardia; three or more consecutive VPCs with a faster-than-normal heart rate
48
What vision tests and other ophthalmic tests are done? (For a PE)
History, Observation, Vision test (Menace, Tracking, Maze), Pupillary light response, Schirmer tear test, Examine front of the eye, Examine back of the eye, Tonometry, Corneal staining, electroretinography
49
Common clinical signs of ophthalmic disease
squinting, chemosis, epiphora, miosis, mydriasis, anisocoria, exophthalmos, enophthalmos, proptosis, hyphaema, hypopyon, phthisis bulbi
50
Chemosis
swelling of the conjunctivia
51
Epiphora
tear overflow
52
Miosis
constricted pupil
53
Mydriasis
dilated pupil
54
Anisocoria
different in size of the two pupils
55
Exophthalmos
abnormal protrusion of the eye
56
Enophthalmos
sunken eye
57
Proptosis
forward displacement of the globe
58
Hyphaema
blood within the anterior chamber
59
Hypopyon
white blood cells (pus) within the anterior chamber
60
Phthisis bulbi
shrinkage of the globe due to disease
61
What are the different types of hemorrhage
Petechiae, Ecchymoses, Hematoma, Purpura
62
Petechiae
small pinpoint hemorrhage
63
Ecchymoses
Larger more spread out areas of hemorrhage
64
Hematoma
"blood blister", Localized collection of blood
65
Purpura
ecchymoses combined
66
Otitis Externa
Acute or chronic inflammation of soft tissue components of external auditory meatus which sometimes involves pinna
67
What are the primary causes of Otitis Externa
Allergic disease, Metabolic diseases (Hypothyroidism, Cushing's), Anatomical or congenital abnormalities
68
What specific organisms cause Otitis Externa
Malazzezia (black, moist, allergies), Otodectes (black dry, granular, itchy kittens), Bacteria (yellow moist to wet), Psudomonas (green moist, harder to treat)
69
Toxocara
(roundworm), infective by oral route, transmamary, transplacental, zoonotic potential (visceral/ocular larval migrans), very resistant in environment
70
Ancylostoma
(hookworm), infective by oral route, transmammary, transplacental, and percutaneous, causes anemia and diarrhea (tarry stool), zoonotic potential (cutaneous larval migrans)
71
Trichuris
(whipworm), infective oral route (eggs), may cause bloody diarrhea and large bowel inflammation
72
Cystoisospora
(Isospora/Protozoa/coccidia), overcrowding, kennels, poor sanitation, and stress, rodents are carriers
73
Protozoa
Cryptosporidium (contaminated water), Giardia (contaminated water, waxing and waning vomiting and diarrhea), Toxoplasma (cats are definitive host, immunocompromised)
74
Taenia
(tapeworm - multiple species), cattle, rodents, rabbits, and sheep can be intermediate host, zoonotic
75
Dipylidium
(tapeworm) from fleas, aka cucumber tape worm, transmitted from fleas to pets via ingestion
76
Which lymph nodes can be palpated in a healthy animal?
Submandibular, prescapular, popliteal
77
characteristics of 5% Dehydration
undetectable
78
characteristics of 5-8% Dehydration
mild delay in return of skin to normal position, normal to slightly prolonged CRT, mm=tacky
79
characteristics of 8-10% Dehydration
definite delay in return of skin to normal position, slightly prolonged CRT, mm=dry/tacky, eyes may be sunken into orbits
80
characteristics of 10-12% Dehydration
skin easily tents and stands in place, prolonged CRT, dry mucous membranes, eyes sunken into orbits/Nictitans prominent, signs of shock may be observed (tachycardia, weak pulse)
81
characteristics of 12-15% Dehydration
shock, collapse, severe depression, imminent death
82
Complications that may occur during venipuncture
subcutaneous hematoma, hemorrhage, thrombosis of the vein, skin irritation at needle penetration site
83
What fundamental knot is used in suturing due to its ability to lie flat and maintain slipping
Surgeon's knot??
84
What is the main reason for administration of IV fluids during a procedure?
hmmm?

VET - ClinAppii/iii (5 decks)

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