CA2FinalStudyGuide Flashcards

1
Q

Acepromazine (Dose, route, indications/contraindications)

A

D : 0.1 mg/lb,
C: 10mg/ml,
Route : IM,
Phenothiazine,
Ind : calming/sedation/antiemetic effects
Contra : seizures/aggression/hypotensive complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Atropine (Dose, route, indications/contraindications)

A

D : 0.01 mg/lb,
C: 0.54mg/ml,
Route : IM,
Anticholinergic/Parasympatholytic,
Ind : Inc HR(inhibit vagal tone)/dec GI motility and salivation/Myadriasis,
Contra : cardiac arrythmias, Mydriasis, Inc myocardial oxygen consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tiletamine/zolazepam
(Dose, route, indications/contraindications)

A

D :3-6 mg/lb,
C: 100mg/ml,
Route : IM,
Dissociative/cyclohexamine,
Ind : skeletal muscle relaxation/maintain reflexes/some viceral anesthesia,
Contra : excessive salivation, painful injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maintenance IV fluids equation (distinguish rate for administration pump and administration set)

A

5ml/lb/hr (admin pump) / 3600 x drip rate (gtts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why should an animal under gas anesthesia receive an assisted ventilation per min?

A

Prevent atelectasis and ensure gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the minimum acceptable breaths per minute and how low the heart rate can get for the cat and dog?

A

D 8-20 RR, 60-150 HR;
C 8-20 RR, 120-180 HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the induction, recovery and maintenance oxygen flow rates for the partial rebreating system>

A

I: 3L, R: 3L, M: 10-20ml/lb/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the equation for maintenance oxygen flow ranges

A

10-20ml/lb/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Minute ventilation

A

the act of giving an assisted breath per Minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Appropriate rebreathing bag size for an anesthetic system calculation?

A

50ml/kg or 25ml/lb = bag size in ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Total rebreathing system vs partial rebreathing system vs non-rebreathing system

A

total ???; Partial - circle, scavenge system goes out, uses carbon dioxide absorbing crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the percentages for an isoflurane vaporizer settings for induction and maintenance

A

I: 3% M:1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MAC

A

Lung pressure?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the monitoring paramerters for the anesthetized patient

A

Reflexes : palpebral, pedal, gag,
Pulse : femoral, pedal;
monitoring equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the placements of the lines for Lead II ECG

A

***?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Identify the pQRSt complexs parts

A

P: begins and ends on baseline; depolarization of atrial muscle as negativity spreads from the SA node toward the ventricles; Q:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does altering the run speed and amplitude (sensitivity) affect the resultant complex?

A

run speed affects space between complexes (faster=, slower=); sensitivity affects the height of the complexes (1x=, 2x=, 1/2x=)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Indications for placing a urinary catheter

A

blockage, stone, paralysis, long surgery, difficulty urinating, neurologic bladder, urinary sample

19
Q

What is the layers of application for a Mason meta-splint?

A

stirrups, cotton padding, splint, stretch wrap/gauze, stirrups reflected up, vet wrap

20
Q

Complications seen with a bandage or splint

A

too tight (veinous stasis), too lose, pressure sores

21
Q

Anatomic vs Triadan system for tooth ID

A

***?

22
Q

Dental abnormalities

A

***?

23
Q

Periodontal disease stages

A

Stages 0-4

24
Q

Steps of a complete dental cleaning

A

conscious oral evaluation, anesthetized intraoral radiography, teeth scaling, crown polishing, periodontal probing, periodontal probing, subgingival irrigation, periodontal therapy or extractions, +/- Antibiotic therapy, antiplaque sealant application, oral mass biopsies, anesthesia recovery, home care education

25
Q

Dental scaler

A

***?

26
Q

Curette

A

***?

27
Q

Periodontal probe

A

***?

28
Q

Explorer

A

***?

29
Q

Polisher

A

***?

30
Q

Operator safety measures and reasoning

A

mask and face shield (aerosolized bacteria); water spray to decrease heat to teeth

31
Q

Parallel technique

A

Most consistently accurate image of an object; position film directly behind and parallel to the long axis of the area being radiographed and the xray beam is directly perpendicular to that area and the film; onlu used in mandibular premolars and molars

32
Q

Bisecting angle

A

Use bisecting angle (an imaging plan that equally divides the distance btwn the planes of the long axis of the area being radiographed and the film) and position the tube head for the primary beam to be perpendicular to this imaginary bisecting plane

33
Q

Superimposition

A

x-ray beam is obliquely aligned in a mesial/distal direction -> interdental spaces appear narrow or superimposed

34
Q

Elongation

A

The tube head or beam is perpendicular to tooth; results in a long tooth picture, the angle of the beam will be too close to the horizontal plane (beam is too low)

35
Q

Foreshortening

A

tube head/beam is perpendicular to film/sensor; results in stubby teeth

36
Q

Positive and negative contrast agents used during the radiology section

A

***?

37
Q

The dosage range of air that can be safely introduced into the bladder

A

***?

38
Q

Positive v negative v double contrast studies

A

***?

39
Q

The contrast study to visualize the upper urinary system

A

***?

40
Q

OFA views, landmarks, borders and area of measurement

A

***?

41
Q

Where are lateral, DV and open mouth VD measured and centered

A

***?

42
Q

Cervical spinal views, landmarks, borders and area of measurement

A

***?

43
Q

Thoracolumbar spinal views, landmarks, borders and area of measurement

A

***?