C-146A SMA MQF SEP 2015 Flashcards
1
Q
What is NOT a condition of a Chapter 3 movement?
A
General
2
Q
On the segregation table, the letter “O” indicated what?
A
Must not be loaded together unless separated by 88 inches in all directions
3
Q
Where can the crash axe be found?
A
In the floor step
4
Q
The following emergency equipment is located with the crash axe:
A
Fire extinguisher and PBE
5
Q
What is the maximum take off weight?
A
30843
6
Q
what is the maximum ramp weight?
A
31019
7
Q
The reference datum line is located _____ inches forward of the tip of the radome?
A
59.1
8
Q
What is the allowable CG range at MAX Takeoff weight?
A
22.5% to 40%
9
Q
What is the maximum for Flaps 12?
A
200 KIAS
10
Q
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 20?
A
180 KIAS
11
Q
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 32?
A
160 KIAS
12
Q
What is the maximum speed for operating the landing gear?
A
200 KIAS
13
Q
What is the maximum tire speed?
A
165 KIAS
14
Q
What are the engine operating limitations for max takeoff power?
A
100% - 100%
15
Q
What are the engine operating limitations for max takeoff TQ?
A
100%
16
Q
Where is the cargo area floor limitation limited to 75 lbs/ft2?
A
Zone 10 & Aft Stowage
17
Q
Where is the cargo area floor limitation limited to 82 lbs/ft2?
A
Zones 1-9
18
Q
What is the engine operating limitation for max takeoff ITT?
A
800
19
Q
What is the engine operating limitation for transient torque up to 20 seconds?
A
120
20
Q
Starting ITT is limited from 850C to 950C for ___ seconds
A
5
21
Q
Transient ITT up to 850*C is limited to ____ seconds
A
20
22
Q
What is the maximum operating limiting speed?
A
270 KIAS
23
Q
The APU shall not be started above _____ft. pressure altitude
A
20000
24
Q
A restart of the APU is allowed only after a complete roll down of the APU; ___ munites after the APU MASTER button is selected off.
A
2
25
The maximum allowable inflight fuel imbalance between the left and tight wing tank group is ____lbs.
210
26
The maximum refueling pressure is ____ PSI.
50
27
The maximum defueling pressure is ____ PSI.
-10
28
The maximum fuel quantity for automatic pressure refueling is?`
7300 lbs
29
The maximum fuel quantity for manual/gravity refueling is?
7531 lbs
30
What is the maximum altitude for single ECS pack operations?
25000 ft MSL
31
An inflight start of the APU IS permitted with one or both main generations inoperative.
False
32
With surface winds above ___ knots, taxi with the CONDITION levers in the HIGH TAXI position
25
33
When completing the 781, the takeoff time is logged when the aircraft begins to move forward on takeoff roll.
True
34
What is the flap setting for takeoff?
12
35
What is the maximum altitude with flaps extended?
18000 ft MSL
36
Takeoff is prohibited if the BRK TEMP HIGH CAUTION message is displayed on the EICAS
True
37
What is the maximum operating altitude?
31000 ft
38
Flights above 27000 ft are limited to less than ___ hours.
3
39
What is the maximum altitude for takeoff and landing?
12000
40
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff/landing?
21
41
What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff/landing?
10
42
What is the maximum demonstrated wind for taxiing?
40
43
Aircraft which are to be parked outdoors for long periods, or with current or predicted winds of more than ___, must be moored to prevent damage during storms.
30 knots
44
Takeoff and landing with the Environmental Control System (ECS) flow mode set to HIGH is prohibited if the ECS is fed by the engine bleed air.
True
45
These color codes are used on the displays, EICAS page, and difference system pages:
Red: Operation Limit/Amber: Caution Range/White/Green: Normal Operating Range
46
What is the maximum flight hours that can be logged in 30 consecutive days?
125
47
What is the maximum flight hours that can be logged in 7 consecutive days?
56
48
Crewmembers that require corrective spectacles while performing aircrew duties must only use AF provided spectacles. Crewmembers must also carry a spare set of clear AF provided spectacles.
True
49
When authorized, the PIC may extend the FDP a maximum of ___ hours to compensate for mission delays
2 hours
50
Tobacco use in all forms, including electronic nicotine delivery systems, is prohibited on all aircraft.
True
51
Crewmembers must occupy their assigned duty stations from takeoff to landing unless absence is normal in the performance of crew duties or in connection with physiological needs.
True
52
For missions that keep an aircrew off station 16 hours of more, compute post mission crew rest at the rate of ___ hour for each ___ hours off station/up to ___ hours.
1/3/96
53
Without supplemental oxygen: Flight time between ____ and ____ ft. MSL is unrestricted, but shall not exceed 1 hr if any portion of the flight is conducted in IMC, at night (with or without NVG’s) while employing weapons, conducting airdrop, air refueling, or if performing high-G maneuvers.
10000/12500
54
Without supplemental oxygen, flight time between ___ and ____ft MSL shall not exceed 30 minutes.
12500/14000
55
Individuals suspected of DCS shall be administered and remain on 100% oxygen (using that fitting mask or equivalent) until by an aviation medical authority
True
56
IF anyone experiences hypoxia symptoms, descend immediately to the lowest practical altitude and land at a suitable location to obtain medical assistance.
True
57
If equipped, landing lights should be turned on when takeoff clearance is receive, when commencing takeoff roll at an airport without an operating control tower, or when operating bellow ____ft MSL within normal MDS specific operating procedures
10000
58
List passengers on a DD Form ____, Passenger Manifest, or a MAJCOM approved form
2131
59
Aircrew members will not fly within ____ hours after donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow
72
60
_____ takeoff with ice, snow, frost, or other contamination adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, unless authorized by the flight manual.
DO NOT
61
A thin coating of frost is permitted on the fuselage, provided the lettering and/or paint lines are visible.
True
62
Do not takeoff where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions are producing hail, strong winds, sut fronts, heavy rain, lighting, wind shear, or microbursts.
True
63
Do not turn after a takeoff until at least ____ft above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of he runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing a closed pattern
400
64
The minimum crew complement for flight operations is the two pilots and one loadmaster.
True
65
The basic FDP is ___ hours providing no training events or maintenance ground runs are accomplished after ___ hours. Fully qualified and current crew members must occupy duty stations past ___ hours.
16/12/12
66
The PIC is the approval authority for operations with degraded equipment wishing the guidelines of the aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL) and Minimum Equipment Subsystems (MESL)
True
67
What passenger eligibility code is the least restrictive?
P5
68
Aircrew will complete the Before Landing Checklist no lower than ___ Feet AGL. Aircraft will be established on final, wings level, with a controlled rate of descent in a position to execute a safe landing ____ ft AGL.
200/100
69
All crew members will be at their duty stations doing all _____, _____, _____ and _____.
Takeoffs, departures, approaches, and landings.
70
The loadmaster's primary duty station is the jump seat for critical phases of flight. The AC may assign an alternate duty station for abnormal situations.
True
71
Floor loading is authorized to support dedicated special operations forces team members or littered medical patients during _____, _____, _____.
Contingencies, exercises, or training.
72
With out wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at lest ____ ft.
25
73
With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at lest _____ ft.
10
74
The minimum runway width for normal operations is _____ ft.
35
75
The minimum runway length for Flaps 20 touch and go landings is _____ ft.
6000
76
The minimum runway length for Flaps 0 and 32 touch and go landings is _____ ft.
7000
77
Any crew member will immediately advice the PF when observing unannounced heading deviations greater than 10 degrees, airspeed deviations of 10 knots, altitude deviations of 100 ft. during approach or 200 ft. while enroute, or potential terrain or obstruction problems and no attempt is being made by the PF to correct the deviation.
True
78
Who retains overall responsibility during Engine Running Onload/Offload operations?
PIC and Loadmaster
79
During reverse taxi, stop no less then _____ feet from an obstruction even if using wing walkers.
25
80
AMP-3 markings will consist of a box marked by four lights at the corners of the touchdown zone and a strobe will mark the end of the usable LZ surface or distance. The box length should be _____ feet for both short field and non-short field procedures.
300
