C-146A SMA MQF 2015 Flashcards
1
Q
Where can the crash axe be found?
A
In the Floor Step
2
Q
The Following emergency equipment is located with the crash axe:
A
Fire extinguisher and PBE
3
Q
What is the maximum takeoff weight?
A
30,843 lbs
4
Q
What is the maximum ramp weight?
A
31,019 lbs
5
Q
What is the maximum zero fuel weight?
A
27,800 lbs
6
Q
What is the maximum landing weight?
A
29,167 lbs
7
Q
What is the minimum flight weight?
A
20,724 lbs
8
Q
Cargo area floor limitation for 75 lb/ft2?
A
FS 602 to FS 705
9
Q
Cargo area floor limitation configuration 3 and 4, for 82 lb/ft2?
A
FS 457 to FS 602
10
Q
Cargo area floor limitation configuration 5, for 82 lb/ft2?
A
FS 298 to FS 602
11
Q
With MAX Takeoff weight of 30,843 lbs, Center of Gravity Limitation will be ___ to ___ during Takeoff and Landing.
A
22.5% to 40%
12
Q
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 12?
A
200 KIAS
13
Q
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 20?
A
180 KIAS
14
Q
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 32?
A
160 KIAS
15
Q
What is the maximum lading gear operating speed (Vle=Vlo)?
A
200 KIAS
16
Q
What is the maximum tire speed, (ground speed)?
A
165 KTS
17
Q
Engine operating limitations for max takeoff power?
A
100% at 100%
18
Q
Engine operating limitations for max takeoff TQ?
A
100%
19
Q
Engine operating limitations for max takeoff ITT?
A
800*C
20
Q
Engine operating limitations for transient TQ up to 20 seconds?
A
120%
21
Q
Engine operating limitations for starting ITT from 850C to 950C is limited to ___ seconds.
A
5
22
Q
Engine operating limitations for transient ITT up to 850*C is limited to ___ seconds.
A
20
23
Q
Engine operating limitations for transient TQ up to ___ is limited to 20 seconds.
A
120%
24
Q
CONDITION lever movements from MIN to MAX in less than 2 seconds are prohibited.
A
True
25
The APU shall not be started above ___ ft pressure altitude.
20,000
26
A restart of the APU is allowed only after a complete roll down of the APU: ___ minutes after the APU MASTER button is selected off.
2
27
Maximum allowable inflight fuel imbalance between contents of left and right wing tank group: ___ lbs.
210
28
Maximum fueling pressure: ___ psi.
50
29
Maximum defueling pressure: ___ psi.
-10
30
Total fuel quantity for automatic pressure refueling is?
7300 lbs
31
Total fuel quantity for gravity or manual pressure refueling is?
7531 lbs
32
Maximum altitude for ECS single pack operation is?
25,000 ft MSL
33
Maximum differential pressure is?
6.9 psi
34
Maximum differential pressure for landing is?
0.40 psi
35
What is the flap setting for takeoff?
12
36
What is the maximum altitude with flaps extended?
18,000 ft MSL
37
Takeoff is prohibited if the BRK TEM HIGH CAUTION message is displayed on the EICAS?
True
38
Maximum Operating Altitude: ___ ft presssure altitude.
31,000
39
Flights above 27,000 ft are limited to less than ___ hours.
3
40
Maximum altitude for takeoff and landing ___ ft.
12,000
41
Maximum demostrated crosswind for takeoff/landing - Dry runway: ___ kt, Wet runway: ___ kt.
21/21
42
Maximum tailwind for takeoff/landing - Dry runway: ___ kt, Wet runway: ___ kt.
10/10
43
Maximum demonstrated wind for taxiing: ___ kt.
40
44
Aircraft, which are to be parked outdoors for long periods or with current or predicted winds of more than 30 KT, must be moored to prevent damage during storms.
True
45
Takeoff and landing with the Environmental Control System (ECS) flow mode set to HIGH is prohibited if the ECS is fed by engine bleed air.
True
46
These color codes are on the displays, EICAS page, and different system pages:
Red: Operation limit/ Amber: Caution range /white/Green: Normal Operating Range
47
Provide a minimum of ___ hours (except ARC at home station and U-28) from arrival at aircraft to stations time for crew members to complete preflight duties, unless preflight duties have been accomplished.
2
48
Spectacles. Crew members that require corrective spectacles while performing aircrew duties must only use Air Force-provided spectacles (T-1). Crew members must also carry a spare set of clear Air Force-provided spectacles while performing aircrew duties (T-1).
True
49
Flashlights (N/A for UAS). Each crew member must have an operable flashlight for night operations (T-2).
True
50
Tobacco use in all forms, including electronic nicotine delivery systems, is prohibited on all aircraft (T-0).
True
51
Crew members must occupy their assigned duty stations from takeoff to landing unless absence is normal in the performance of crew duties or in connection with physiological needs (T-0)
True
52
In the absence of MAJCOM guidance, aircrew of fixed-wing aircraft shall minimize non-essential cockpit conversations and other extraneous activities which could interfere with flight duties when bellow ___ ft. MSL., during critical phases of flight, and during all taxi operations.
10,000
53
Without supplemental oxygen: Flight time between ___ and ___ ft. MSL is unrestricted, but shall not exceed 1 hour if any portion of the flight is conducted in IMC, at nights (with or with our NVD's), while employing weapons, conducting airdrop, air-refueling, or if performing high-g maneuvers.
10,000/12,500
54
With our supplemental oxygen: Flight time between ___ and ___ ft. MSL shall not exceed 30 minutes.
12,500/14,000
55
Individuals suspected of DCS shall be administered and remain on 100% oxygen (using tight-fitting mad or equivalent) until evaluated by an aviation medical authority (T-1).
True
56
If anyone on the aircraft experiences hypoxia symptoms, descend immediately to the lowest practical altitude and land at a suitable location to obtain medical assistance (T-1)
True
57
If equipped, landing lights should be turned on when takeoff clearance is received, when commencing takeoff roll at tn airport without an operating control tower, or when operating bellow ___ ft MSL within normal MDS- specific operating procedures.
10,000
58
List passengers on a DD Form ___, Passenger Manifest, or a MAJCOM-approved form (T-0). File the manifest and crew list with the flight plan, the passenger service facility, or other responsible agency (T-0). Notify C2 prior to departure if there is a passenger manifest (or crew list) change (T-1).
2131
59
In the absence of MDS-specific guidance, multi-engine aircraft without the availability to in-flight refuel, operated for extended periods over large bodies of water or desolate land areas (outside gliding distance to a suitable landing site) shall calculate and plot on a navigational chart an ETP to a suitable alternate for that mission leg.
True
60
___ takeoff with ice, snow, frost, or other contamination adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, unless authorized by the flight manual (T-2).
Do not
61
A thin coating of frost is permitted on the fuselage, provided the letting and/or paint lines are visible.
True
62
Do not takeoff where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lighting, wind shear, or microburst (T-1)
True
63
Do not turn after a takeoff until at least ___ ft. avocet the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing a closed pattern (T-0).
400
64
Crew Complement, The minimum crew complement for flight operations is two pilots and one loadmaster
True
65
The basic FDP is ___ hours providing no training events or maintenance ground runs are accomplished after ___ hours. Fully qualified and current crew members must occupy duty stations past ___ hours.
16/12/12
66
The PIC is the approval authority for operations with degraded equipment within the guidelines of the aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL) and Minimum Equipment Subsystem List (MESL). Operating outside of the aircraft MEL or MESL guidelines requires Group/CC or COMAFSOF approval.
True
67
Before Landing Checklist. Aircrew will complete the Before Landing Checklist no lower than ___ ft Above Ground Level (AGL). Aircraft will be established on final, wings level, with a controlled rate of descent in a position to execute a safe landing no lower than ___ ft AGL. (T-2)
200/100
68
All crew members will be at their duty stations during all ___, ___, ___, and ___.
Takeoffs, departures, approaches, and landings.
69
The loadmaster's primary duty station is the jump seat for critical phases of flight. The AC may assign an alternate duty station for abnormal situations.
True
70
Crew members occupying a primary crew position will have seat belts ___ at all times.
Fastened
71
Floor loading is authorized to support dedicated special operations forces team members or liter medical patients during ___, ___, or ___.
Contingencies, exercises, or training
72
Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ___ ft.
25
73
With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ___ ft.
10
74
Do not taxi aircraft closer than ___ ft to an obstacle.
10
75
A Minimum of ___ ft of runway is required for Flaps 20 touch-and-go landings.
6000
76
A minimum of ___ ft of runway is required for zero-flap or flaps 32 touch-and-go landings.
7000
77
Any crew member will immediately advice the PF when observing unannounced heading deviations greater than 10 degrees, airspeed deception of 10 knots, altitude deviations of 100 ft during approach or 200 ft while en route, or potential terrain or obstruction problems and no attempt is being made by the PF to correct the deviation.
True
78
Engines Running Unload or Offload (ERO). The ___ will direct all unloading or offloading operations using pre-briefed signals. Other qualified crew members may assist the operation; however, the PIC and loadmaster retains overall responsibility for the operation.
Loadmaster
79
Engines Running Unload or Offload (ERO). Passengers will be escorted by the ___ when enplaning or deplaning.
Loadmaster
80
Civilian clothing worn will consist of casual slacks or cargo pants, collared shirt, shoes or hiking boots.
True
81
All aircrew members ___ have flight gloves readily available during all flights
Will
82
Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Hazards. Aircrew will not wear wigs, hairpieces, rings, scarves, ornaments, pins, hair clips or fasteners, or earrings in the aircraft or on the flight line. Crew members ___ remove rings and scarves before performing aircrew duties.
Will
83
Carry a headset and operable flashlight on ___ flights.
All
84
All crew members will carry and preflight their own NVGs prior to flight for mission using NVGs.
True
85
Passengers Briefings. Prior to each flight, the ___ will ensure that all passengers are briefed.
Loadmaster
86
Any mission planned when the lunar illumination is forecast to be less than 10% during the mission will require an additional level of Operational Risk Management (ORM), as determined by unit supplement.
True
87
___ lbs of fuel remaining during day VFR or night VFR conditions when using NVGs.
600
88
___ lbs of fuel remaining during night VFR conditions when not using NVGs or IFR conditions.
900
89
Land with no less than ____ pounds of fuel on board.
450
90
Minimum Fuel is ___ pounds and Emergency Fuel is ___ pounds.
450/250
91
A copy of each mission’s weight and balance will be maintained at the squadron or operations center (as applicable) and carried with the aircrew.
True
92
For en route stops, weight and balance need not be recomputed provided the zero fuel weight has not changed.
True
93
Review the aircraft maintenance forms before applying power to the aircraft or operating aircraft systems.
True
94
Anytime the APU is running, at least ___ or maintainer will remain within the immediate vicinity of the APU fire suppression control panel in order to adequately hear the APU fire bell.
One Crew Member
95
Crew members will wear hearing protection when operating aft of the 3-9 line while the APU is operating.
True
96
Eye protection ___ be used during refueling operations.
Will
97
The loadmaster ___ backup the PNF with the QRH checklist reading/actions as directed, visual confirmation of the memory items, and scanning of engines/passenger compartment.
Will
98
The ___ is the primary crew member responsible for fighting fires in the cabin/cargo area.
Loadmaster
99
If any crew member calls “Go-around”, the PF will immediately apply power to establish a climb that clears all obstacles. Minimum altitude for overflight of aircraft, equipment, or personnel on the runway is 500 ft AGL.
True
100
The ___ will perform servicing when maintenance personnel are not available. When executing refueling operations, loadmasters will wear gloves and eye protection.
Loadmaster
101
All crew members will ensure the aircraft is clean, stow publications, deposit trash in proper receptacles, and account for all personal equipment before leaving the aircraft.
True
102
The AC and the LM will complete a post mission walk around to determine any changes from their pre-mission inspection (i.e., bird strike).
True
103
Mission Radios. ___ leave the aircraft unattended with crypto loaded into the mission radios.
Do not
104
___ will not permit the inspection of their aircraft by officials of any foreign government. If requested to do so, the PIC and crew will deny access and seek aid from the senior AFSOC or USAF representative or US Embassy or consulate within the host nation.
PIC
105
Cargo Documentation. ___ accept hazardous materials unless proper documentation, certification, and identification of cargo are provided.
Do not
106
The aircraft should be ___ during all off-station missions remaining overnight.
Locked
107
Loading and Transfer of Weapons. Load and unload weapons at approved clearing barrels/facilities if available. To transfer a loaded weapon to another crew member, place the weapon on a flat surface. Do not use a hand-to-hand transfer.
True
108
Due to the sensitivity of weapons in foreign countries, crews will keep their weapons inside the aircraft and out of sight of foreign nationals, even if the FCG allows them to be carried outside the aircraft.
True
109
Weapons need not be unloaded before being placed in the gun box.
True
110
Loadmaster in-flight duties also include backing up the ___ on radio traffic, assigned altitude/heading/airspeeds, altimeter settings, Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) alerts, monitoring systems and periodically accomplishing an interior/exterior scan.
Pilots
111
In addition to the responsibilities listed above, the loadmaster is responsible for, supervises, performs, and/or participates in the following: Perform and or read checklists initiated by the PF or PNF.
True
112
Load aircraft in such a manner that emergency exits are available as follows: At least ___ cabin emergency exit is unobstructed.
One
113
Access to the rear of the aircraft and entry into cargo or baggage areas, or emergency exits ___ be maintained without exception. No less than 30 inch by 14 inch space will be provided.
Must
114
___ allow passengers to lounge on or tamper with equipment, cargo, or baggage.
Do not
115
Customs, Immigration, and Agriculture require certain forms for border clearance. The loadmaster will ensure that required forms are contained in the aircraft mission kit.
True
116
Mission permitting, fueling the aircraft in excess of ___ pounds the night prior should be avoided when practical. Thermal expansion overnight sometimes results in excessive venting. Consider this in your mission planning.
6500
117
Loadmasters not current in an event must fly with an Instructor ___ to regain currency. For Loadmasters not current in NVG operations only, an Instructor Pilot may fulfill this requirement.
Loadmaster
118
Crewmembers ___ change between military uniforms and civilian attire during any single flight duty period (FDP).
Will not
119
Crewmembers will not mix military issue clothing items and civilian attire (such as boots, belts, or jackets).
True
120
The Aircraft Commander ___ be notified if any crew member must arrive more than 30 minutes prior to the normal show time.
Should
121
Emergency Ground Evacuation. Conditions permitting, the primary emergency exit for both crew and passengers will be the ___.
Crew entrance door
122
When directed, the ___ should initiate the evacuation of all passengers through the selected emergency exit. The flight crew should be notified by the Loadmaster of the selected exit and any hazards or issues.
Loadmaster
123
A rally point will should be established 300’ at a 45o angle away from the aircraft centerline on the side exited.
True
124
When all personnel are accounted for, determine if it is necessary to ___ separation from the aircraft.
Increase
125
Prior to conducting reverse operations the ___ will conduct a thorough reverse taxi briefing using the 524 SOS IFG.
Loadmaster
126
The Loadmaster will conduct mission communications, as directed by the Aircraft Commander, and relay pertinent information to the pilots when necessary.
True
127
The loadmasters ___ provide torque call-outs starting at 70% TQ.
Will
128
The loadmasters will announce “Torque” over the interphone when the engine torque reaches either 100% TQ or the green torque markers, whichever is lower. The PNF will verbally acknowledge the call. This restriction does not apply to enhanced field performance operations.
True
129
Full stop landings and touch and go landings are limited to a maximum of ___ per flight hour.
10
130
Unless considerations dictate otherwise, the Pilot’s TCAS should be placed in ABOVE and the Copilot’s TCAS will be in BELOW.
True
131
After landing, the Loadmasters ___ remain seated until the aircraft has taxied clear of the runway, at which point the Loadmaster may leave the jump seat to perform duties for the After Landing Checklist.
Will
132
NVG Operations. The first crew member to positively identify an airfield of intended landing should notify the remaining crew by stating “airfield in sight.” Subsequent crew members identifying the airfield should also state “airfield in sight,” and confirm with the first crew member using clock position and approximate distance.
True
133
Any time the aircraft will be unattended by U.S. military or diplomatic personnel, the aircraft will have all emergency exits pinned and the cargo door will be locked or secured with a strap to prohibit entry.
True
134
If the ___ cannot be secured with an approved lock, tamper-evident seals should be utilized. Tamper evident tape or distinctive numbered seals satisfy this requirement.
Crew entry door
135
Maximum weight limit of the aircraft mounted safe is 20 lbs. and lock boxes will not be used to store liquids of any kind.
True
136
Weapons ___ be stored in the aircraft lock box or kept in a holster on the crew member at all times.
Will
137
Maintain a ___ ft circle of safety from all parts of the aircraft except when authorized in certain loading, unloading, or fueling operations. In these cases, always post guides (spotters) and place wheel chocks in position to prevent the vehicle from backing into the aircraft.
10
138
Vehicles must not be driven towards the aircraft when within ___ ft.
25
139
Base fire marshals prohibit smoking on flight lines, on aprons, in hangars, or on aircraft parking areas except in designated areas. At no time is smoking allowed within ___ ft of an aircraft, fuel tanks, fueling operations, or any flammable substance storage facility.
50
140
Do not use any radios on an aircraft that is being fueled. Do not transmit on a high frequency (HF) radio when fueling operations are being performed within ___ ft of the aircraft.
200
141
Aircrew must conduct HAZMAT transportation IAW ___.
AFMAN
142
[Block 20] Aircraft feature overhead storage in all configurations. There are seven overhead storage bins located above the “B seats” (inner right-side seats). A maximum weight of ___ lb can be placed into each overhead storage bin.
75
143
Performing Routine Steward’s Duties: As the most visible crewmember during the flight, your conduct reflects upon the whole crew. So act as if the whole crew’s image depends on your actions.
True
144
MEASUREMENTS AND CONVERSIONS: __________ = PSF.
PSI x 144 = PSF
145
MEASUREMENTS AND CONVERSIONS: __________=50 PSI.
3.45 Bar = 50 PSI
146
CARGO SHALL ONLY BE ATTACHED TO SEAT TRACKS AT THE PAINTED ___ LOCATIONS.
GREEN
147
Zone 1 maximum allowable loading: 75 lb/ft2, ____ lb total.
771
148
The cargo door dimensions are: ___.
55.1in x 36.2in
149
The service door dimensions are: ___.
49.2in x 20in
150
The passenger/crew door dimensions are: ___.
66.9in x 30.2in
151
The dimensions of the two emergency exit hatches are: ___.
35.8in x 20in
152
Pounds per square inch (psi) is derived by dividing the weight of an item by the area bearing on the cargo floor, in square inches (in2).
True
153
___ USE ANY TYPE OF LEVER OR MECHANICAL MEANS TO ASSIST HAND RATCHETING OF THE STRAPS.
DO NOT
154
A MINIMUM OF ___ TURN ON THE SPOOL MUST BE MAINTAINED TO PREVENT THE STRAP FROM COMING UNSECURE.
1/2
155
The aircraft forms include a continuous and permanent record of aircraft weight, moment, and CG position. This is sometimes referred to as Chart C.
True
156
What is the WAM formula?
Weight x Arm = Moment
157
Configuration one consists of ___ passenger seats and approximately 294 ft3 of cargo space.
27
158
Configuration 2 consists of two options, each providing approximately 294 ft3 of cargo space. Option 2A consists of ___ passenger seats plus four litters. Option 2B replaces one litter rack assembly with three rows of dual seats ( ___ seats and 2 litters).
15/21
159
Configuration 3 consists of ___ passenger seats and approximately 470 ft3 of cargo space.
18
160
Configuration 4 consists of up to ___ passenger seats, two litters, and approx. 470 ft3 of cargo space.
12
161
Configuration 5 consists of ___ passenger seats and approximately 971 ft3 of cargo space aft of the smoke barrier at FS 298.
4
162
BLOCK 20 TWO-WAY COMMUNICATION SYSTEM: The aft most plug may be used for reverse taxi operations by the loadmaster. All three plugs in the ceiling are tied to the observers ICS system.
True
163
The C-146A utility seats are similar to commercial aviation-style seats. A single seat weighs ___ lb and a double seat weighs ___ lb.
19.8/34.4
164
A folded single seat has a weight bearing capacity of ___ lbs.
150
165
A folded double seat has a weight bearing capacity of ___ lbs.
200
166
A double litter stacking system weighs ___ lbs.
133
167
Aisle clearance at its smallest point is ___ in.
20.7
168
[Block 20] Two IV hangars are provided for the litter patients. They are placarded “For IV Use Only” and have a ___ lb IV bag maximum limit.
5
169
[Block 20] The medical bag together with its contents is limited to ___ lb.
100
170
The APU bleed air is fed into the cross-bleed line through a check valve and supplies the ECS ___. The APU bleed air supply is controlled by an APU BLEED switch/light located on the ECS control panel.
Packs
171
The ACP’s are divided into two groups: Flight Deck Croup, Cabin Group. ACP 1, 2 and 5 are in the Flight Deck Group; ACP’s 3, 4 and 6 are in the Cabin Group.
True
172
The flight controls consists of the following components and subsystems:
Ailerons and Trim Tab, Rudder and Trim Tab, Elevator and Trim Tab, Flaps, Ground Spoilers, Gust Locks and Damper, Stall Warning and Prevention.
173
Fuel transfer within each tank group is made by ___ pumps in the inner and the outer wing tanks. These pumps supply fuel to the feeder tank to keep in in the full state during aircraft operation.
jet transfer
174
When the left or right electrical booster pump (ELPMP) AUTO button is in normal mode (dark), the electrical booster pump is triggered to activate automatically if there is a failure in the jet booster pump (JETPMP).
True
175
___ fuel is taken from the right wing tank group, via the tapping in the main engine cross-feed pipeline.
APU
176
A system of float-operated manual magnetic indicators (magna-sticks) can be used on the ground when no ___ power is available to determine the quantity of fuel in the tanks.
Electrical
177
The fuel system receives electrical power from the 28 VDC ESSENTIAL BUS, DC HOT BUS 2, 28 VDC BUS 1, and 28 VDC BUS 2. The circuit breakers of the fuel system are installed on the ___ circuit breaker panel in the flight compartment.
Overhead
178
The left and right wing tank groups can be gravity refueled through a filler well with lockable cap in the inner fuel tank.
True
179
The ___ valves allow the fuel to flow from the inner and the outer tanks into the feeder tank. They do not permit the fuel to flow back again.
Flapper
180
There are ___ drain valves in each fuel tank group. The drain valves are provided for draining condensed water and fuel samples.
5
181
The inner and outer tanks of each wing tank group are vented to the atmosphere by the following components:
Main Vent Line, Vent Float Valves, Vent Tank, Flush Inlet and Overboard Vent Line.
182
The aircraft hydraulic system consists of the following four:
Main Hydraulic System, Standby Hydraulic System, Auxiliary System, Indicating
System.
183
The main system supplies hydraulic pressure to the following consumers:
Landing Gear, Main Landing Gear Wheel Brakes, Emergency and Parking Brake, Trailing Edge Flaps, Nose Wheel Steering, Roll Spoilers, Ground Spoilers.
184
The de-icer boots are externally bonded into a recessed portion of the leading edges on the wing and the vertical and horizontal stabilizer.
True
185
The propeller de-icing system prevents or eliminates ice formation on the propellers. This is done by ___ heating de-icer boots on each blade.
Electrically
