C-130H Flight Engineer MQF 01Sep19 Flashcards
Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is a __________.
a. Warning
b. Caution
c. Note
d. None of the above
Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is a __________.
b. Caution
Normal operation of the NTS system does not commit the propeller to feather. However, a malfunctioning NTS system may completely feather the propeller or cause the engine to
a. Overtemp
b. Overspeed
c. Pitchlock
d. Stall/flameout
Normal operation of the NTS system does not commit the propeller to feather. However, a malfunctioning NTS system may completely feather the propeller or cause the engine to
d. Stall/flameout
The hydromechanical fuel control senses ________ , and varies fuel flow accordingly.
a. TIT and throttle position
b. Temperature, pressure altitude, fuel flow, and RPM
c. Engine inlet air temperature and pressure, RPM, and throttle position
d. Fuel manifold pressure, temperature, and pressure altitude
The hydromechanical fuel control senses ________ , and varies fuel flow accordingly.
c. Engine inlet air temperature and pressure, RPM, and throttle position
In most cases degradation of an individual thermocouple assembly would affect each circuit equally. The indicating signal will be lower (________ ° C) than the actual temperature experienced by each thermocouple sensing element.
a. 5 to 15
b. 3 ½ to 22
c. 3 to 7
d. 5 to 24 ½
In most cases degradation of an individual thermocouple assembly would affect each circuit equally. The indicating signal will be lower (________ ° C) than the actual temperature experienced by each thermocouple sensing element.
b. 3 ½ to 22
The Temperature Datum Control Valve switches lock a fuel correction only when they are positioned at LOCKED/LKD while the:
a. Throttle is in the temperature controlling range
b. ELECTRONIC FUEL CORRECTION lights are out
c. Airplane is within 5,000 feet of field elevation
d. Throttle is in the temperature controlling range and the fuel correction lights are out
The Temperature Datum Control Valve switches lock a fuel correction only when they are positioned at LOCKED/LKD while the:
d. Throttle is in the temperature controlling range and the fuel correction lights are out
The NTS system operates when negative torque applied to the reduction gear exceeds a predetermined value of _____________ inch-pounds.
a. 1260 (±600)
b. -1260 (±600)
c. 600 (±1200)
d. -600 (±1200)
The NTS system operates when negative torque applied to the reduction gear exceeds a predetermined value of -1,260 (±600) inch-pounds.
b. -1260 (±600)
The PROPELLER LOW OIL WARNING light and the PROP LOW OIL QUANTITY
light will illuminate when the oil quantity for any propeller drops approximately ________ below normal in the pressurized sump.
a. 4 quarts
b. 2 quarts
c. 4 gallons
d. 2 gallons
The PROPELLER LOW OIL WARNING light and the PROP LOW OIL QUANTITY
light will illuminate when the oil quantity for any propeller drops approximately ________ below normal in the pressurized sump.
b. 2 quarts
Early stage thermocouple decay may be difficult to identify, due to:
a. Limited changes in TIT, torque, or fuel flow
b. Changes in TIT and fuel flow with little torque change
c. TIT change with only small decrease in torque and fuel flow
d. No change in TIT and minimal increase in fuel flow and torque
Early stage thermocouple decay may be difficult to identify, due to:
d. No change in TIT and minimal increase in fuel flow and torque
During the landing approach, ________before the throttles are retarded should give more equal power distribution on all engines.
a. Placing the TD valve in AUTO
b. Locking the TD valve
c. Selecting null
d. Deenergizing the TD valve
During the landing approach, ________before the throttles are retarded should give more equal power distribution on all engines.
b. Locking the TD valve
In case of power failure, the crossfeed valves:
a. Hold the last deenergized position
b. Hold the last energized position
c. Are failsafe closed
d. Are failsafe open
In case of power failure, the crossfeed valves:
b. Hold the last energized position
The fuel low pressure warning light is turned on when fuel supply pressure at the point where fuel enters the engine pump falls below approximately ________ PSI.
a. 8.5
a. 15
c. 23
d. 28
The fuel low pressure warning light is turned on when fuel supply pressure at the point where fuel enters the engine pump falls below approximately ________ PSI.
a. 8.5
When operating with less than 6,000 pounds of total fuel in the main fuel tanks:
a. Place the crossfeed valve switches to OPEN for all tanks containing fuel
b. Place the boost pump switches to ON for all tanks containing fuel
c. Place the crossfeed separation valve switch to OPEN
d. All the above
When operating with less than 6,000 pounds of total fuel in the main fuel tanks:
d. All the above
The 28 volt external DC source should have a capacity of ________ amperes.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 400
The 28 volt external DC source should have a capacity of ________ amperes.
d. 400
The battery is disconnected from all DC buses except the _______ when external DC power is being used.
a. Battery bus
b. Isolated bus
c. Essential bus
d. Battery and Isolated buses
The battery is disconnected from all DC buses except the _______ when external DC power is being used.
a. Battery bus
The engine hydraulic pump pressure warning light will illuminate whenever the pump output pressure drops below approximately 1,000 PSI or:
a. The circuit breaker opens
b. Essential DC control power is lost
c. Engine pump switch is placed in the OFF position
d. Essential AC power is lost
The engine hydraulic pump pressure warning light will illuminate whenever the pump output pressure drops below approximately 1,000 PSI or:
c. Engine pump switch is placed in the OFF position
The ADS control panel ramp and door control switch must be set to OFF, and the ramp manual control knob, above the ramp control panel, must be set at the ________ position before operating the pump switch on the ramp control panel.
a. Number 1
b. Number 2
c. 3N (neutral)
d. 6N (neutral)
The ADS control panel ramp and door control switch must be set to OFF, and the ramp manual control knob, above the ramp control panel, must be set at the ________ position before operating the pump switch on the ramp control panel.
d. 6N (neutral)
Prior to raising the ramp, ensure that:
a. Locks are retracted and manual control knob is 3N (neutral)
b. The ramp seal area and personnel are clear
c. Locks are retracted and personnel are clear
d. All ramp locks are retracted and the ramp seal area is clear
Prior to raising the ramp, ensure that:
d. All ramp locks are retracted and the ramp seal area is clear
If an individual landing gear position indicator becomes inoperative because of a faulty grounding circuit, the warning horn and warning light will indicate the position of:
a. All of the landing gear
b. The other two gear only
c. The faulty gear position indicator
d. None of the above
If an individual landing gear position indicator becomes inoperative because of a faulty grounding circuit, the warning horn and warning light will indicate the position of:
b. The other two gear only
After any full anti-skid braking operation above 130,000 pounds (aborted takeoff, engine-out/flaps-up landing, etc.), the approximate ground cooling time is ________ minutes.
a. 15
b. 45
c. 60
d. 65
After any full anti-skid braking operation above 130,000 pounds (aborted takeoff, engine-out/flaps-up landing, etc.), the approximate ground cooling time is ________ minutes.
d. 65
Elevator trim tab travel is controlled by limit switches set at ________ degrees nose down and ________ degrees nose up.
a. 6/25
b. 8/27
c. 10/30
d. 5/15
Elevator trim tab travel is controlled by limit switches set at ________ degrees nose down and ________ degrees nose up.
a. 6/25
The landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flap lever is retracted above ________ %.
a. 50
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80
The landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flap lever is retracted above ________ %.
c. 70
When the flight station air conditioning is on, the bleed air pressure indicator reads ________ than the actual pressure in the cross wing manifold.
a. 3 PSI lower
b. 3 PSI higher
c. 6 PSI lower
d. 6 PSI higher
When the flight station air conditioning is on, the bleed air pressure indicator reads ________ than the actual pressure in the cross wing manifold.
c. 6 PSI lower
Cabin differential pressure will be zero for landing. If the differential pressure is less than ________ Hg, no discomfort will be experienced if the air conditioning master switch is turned to a nonpressure position.
a. 3.1
b. 0.6
c. 1.5
d. 0.5
Cabin differential pressure will be zero for landing. If the differential pressure is less than ________ Hg, no discomfort will be experienced if the air conditioning master switch is turned to a nonpressure position.
d. 0.5
When the leading edge temperature reaches approximately ________ the overheat warning light for that area is energized and the light illuminates.
a. 180 degrees C
b. 200 degrees F
c. 190 degrees C
d. 215 degrees F
When the leading edge temperature reaches approximately ________ the overheat warning light for that area is energized and the light illuminates.
b. 200 degrees F
Four low speed ground idle buttons located on the flight control pedestal may be pushed in to reduce engine RPM to approximately __ at any time the throttles are in the range between 9-30°.
a. 92 %
b. 65%
c. 94%
d. 72%
Four low speed ground idle buttons located on the flight control pedestal may be pushed in to reduce engine RPM to approximately __ at any time the throttles are in the range between 9-30°.
d. 72%
Ensure that the secure voice system mode switch is in the ________ position to provide normal operation (plain text) of the UHF radio when secure voice is not to be used.
a. C
b. P
c. CO
d. LD
Ensure that the secure voice system mode switch is in the ________ position to provide normal operation (plain text) of the UHF radio when secure voice is not to be used.
b. P
The electrical control system of the ramp and door is inactivated when the:
a. The door is not up and locked
b. The CDS switches are in the ARM position
c. Anchor line support arms are not in the UP position
d. Anchor line support arms are not in the down position
The electrical control system of the ramp and door is inactivated when the:
c. Anchor line support arms are not in the UP position
The LAPES/CDS switches must remain _________ in the NORMAL/OFF (guarded) position except when required to be in ARM for operational check or mission requirements.
a. Closed
b. Open
c. With the guard closed
d. Safetied
The LAPES/CDS switches must remain _________ in the NORMAL/OFF (guarded) position except when required to be in ARM for operational check or mission requirements.
d. Safetied
When 100 percent oxygen is being supplied, _________ oxygen is consumed per person as altitude ________.
a. More/increases
b. Less/increases
c. Less/decreases
d. Altitude has no effect on oxygen consumption
When 100 percent oxygen is being supplied, _________ oxygen is consumed per person as altitude ________.
b. Less/increases
The normal hydraulic pressure range is based on the following conditions: 100 percent RPM, all flight controls in neutral, suction boost pumps ON, and no system actuation. Pressure as low as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ PSI may be experienced in low speed ground idle and is acceptable as long as the normal limits are attained as specified above. A. 2,200 B. 2,250 C. 2,550 D. 2,750
The normal hydraulic pressure range is based on the following conditions: 100 percent RPM, all flight controls in neutral, suction boost pumps ON, and no system actuation. Pressure as low as _______ PSI may be experienced in low speed ground idle and is acceptable as long as the normal limits are attained as specified above.
C. 2,550
Do not enter/exit from the ________ side of the nose wheel well due to possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen.
a. Forward
b. Aft
c. Left
d. Right
Do not enter/exit from the ________ side of the nose wheel well due to possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen.
d. Right
The CVR is operational anytime the ________ bus is powered by any source other than external power.
a. Essential DC
b. Essential AC
c. Main AC
d. Battery
The CVR is operational anytime the ________ bus is powered by any source other than external power.
b. Essential AC
While visually inspecting the Halon fire extinguisher pressure gage, the needle should be in the green zone, _______ PSIG.
a. 125 +-50
b. 175+-50
c. 100+-50
d. 75+-50
While visually inspecting the Halon fire extinguisher pressure gage, the needle should be in the green zone, _______ PSIG.
a. 125 +-50
With the escape ladder installed, it is impossible to exit the airplane from the center overhead escape hatch using the ________ side of the ladder.
a. Right
b. Left
c. Aft
d. Forward
With the escape ladder installed, it is impossible to exit the airplane from the center overhead escape hatch using the ________ side of the ladder.
b. Left
In emergencies, MIL-L-7808 and MIL-L-23699 may be mixed. The amount of emergency oil added should not exceed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tank capacity. A. One-third B. Two-thirds C. One-half D. Three-quarters
In emergencies, MIL-L-7808 and MIL-L-23699 may be mixed. The amount of emergency oil added should not exceed __________ tank capacity.
C. One-half
During the BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION and before any electrical power is applied to the airplane, the engineer will:
a. Ensure that all locking pins are removed from doors and hatches
b. Check the form 781
c. Ensure that all aircraft switches and circuit breakers are in their normal shutdown position
d. All of the above
During the BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION and before any electrical power is applied to the airplane, the engineer will:
d. All of the above
While accomplishing the POWER ON INSPECTION, if a light in the overheat test panel fails to illuminate during testing, bleed air systems:
a. Should be pressurized after clearance from the ground
b. Should not be pressurized until proper inspection and repairs have been made
c. May be checked after entry has been recorded in the form 781
d. Will be checked, using caution and at a reduced pressure
While accomplishing the POWER ON INSPECTION, if a light in the overheat test panel fails to illuminate during testing, bleed air systems:
b. Should not be pressurized until proper inspection and repairs have been made
During the POWER ON INSPECTION, movement of the flaps is essential at this time to enable detection of ________ or malfunctions during the walk-around inspection.
a. Asymmetric flaps
b. Flap brake engagement
c. Hydraulic leaks
d. Fuel leaks
During the POWER ON INSPECTION, movement of the flaps is essential at this time to enable detection of ________ or malfunctions during the walk-around inspection.
c. Hydraulic leaks
Do not ________ or open the ground test valve if ramp hydraulic actuators are preloaded or cargo loading operations are in progress.
a. Apply hydraulic pressure
b. Check hydraulic pressure
c. Service hydraulic reservoirs
d. Deplete hydraulic pressure
Do not ________ or open the ground test valve if ramp hydraulic actuators are preloaded or cargo loading operations are in progress.
d. Deplete hydraulic pressure
Depletion of the emergency brake hydraulic system pressure with the brake select switch in normal is an indication of a(n) ________ failure.
a. Normal brake selector valve
b. Anti-skid valve
c. Emergency brake selector valve
d. Ground test valve
Depletion of the emergency brake hydraulic system pressure with the brake select switch in normal is an indication of a(n) ________ failure.
c. Emergency brake selector valve
During EXTERIOR INSPECTION, if not previously checked by maintenance, a work stand/ladder will be required to check:
a. Engine inlets
b. Exhaust areas
c. External tank caps
d. All of the above
During EXTERIOR INSPECTION, if not previously checked by maintenance, a work stand/ladder will be required to check:
d. All of the above
Normally, the quick don oxygen mask system is the _______ use equipment.
a. Preferred
b. Alternate
c. Primary
d. Emergency
Normally, the quick don oxygen mask system is the _______ use equipment.
c. Primary
After moving the condition lever to ground stop, do not move the lever from this position until ________.
a. Fuel stops dripping from the drain mast
b. Cleared by the loadmaster
c. RPM decreases below 16%
d. Engine rotation has stopped
After moving the condition lever to ground stop, do not move the lever from this position until ________.
d. Engine rotation has stopped
During low air density conditions (high temperature above approximately 28 degrees C/ high altitude), if the engine accelerates smoothly with no indication of stall and TIT limits are not exceeded, time to stabilize on speed is ________ seconds.
a. 70
b. 60
c. 55
d. 45
During low air density conditions (high temperature above approximately 28 degrees C/ high altitude), if the engine accelerates smoothly with no indication of stall and TIT limits are not exceeded, time to stabilize on speed is ________ seconds.
a. 70
The throttles must not be moved out of the ________ detent during engine starting.
a. GROUND IDLE
b. FLIGHT IDLE
c. AIR START
d. RUN
The throttles must not be moved out of the ________ detent during engine starting.
a. GROUND IDLE
If there is no positive indication of oil pressure on the engine and reduction gear by _________ % RPM, immediately discontinue the start.
a. 30
b. 35
c. 40
d. 60
If there is no positive indication of oil pressure on the engine and reduction gear by _________ % RPM, immediately discontinue the start.
b. 35
A positive hydraulic pressure indication must be noted by the time the engine is _______. Normal operating pressure should be indicated within ________ after on speed.
a. On speed/30 seconds
b. 60%/60 seconds
c. On speed/45 seconds
d. 35%50 seconds
A positive hydraulic pressure indication must be noted by the time the engine is _______. Normal operating pressure should be indicated within ________ after on speed.
a. On speed/30 seconds
If start TIT is less than _________degrees C, record in AFTO Form 781. Maintenance action is required prior to flight.
a. 780
b. 820
c. 720
d. 965
If start TIT is less than _________degrees C, record in AFTO Form 781. Maintenance action is required prior to flight.
c. 720
If auxiliary feather motor operation is not indicated for a propeller:
a. Record in form 781 and continue mission to a repair facility
b. Pull the circuit breaker for the affected motor
c. The malfunction will be corrected prior to flight
d. Fly in mechanical governing
If auxiliary feather motor operation is not indicated for a propeller:
c. The malfunction will be corrected prior to flight
When down-shifting from normal to low-speed ground idle, the engineer will monitor the engine instruments and be prepared to shut down the engine by placing the condition lever to GROUND STOP if the temperature exceeds ________ degrees C or a stall occurs.
a. 830
b. 965
c. 850
d. 865
When down-shifting from normal to low-speed ground idle, the engineer will monitor the engine instruments and be prepared to shut down the engine by placing the condition lever to GROUND STOP if the temperature exceeds ________ degrees C or a stall occurs.
c. 850
If a stop, sudden or severe braking application has occurred during turns:
a. Taxi the airplane forward approximately 5 feet
b. Record in Form 781A
c. Tow airplane out of turn
d. No action required
If a stop, sudden or severe braking application has occurred during turns:
b. Record in Form 781A
The use of brakes during reverse taxiing should be ________ to prevent the airplane from setting on the tail.
a. Accomplished
b. Avoided
c. Considered
d. Coordinated by both pilots
The use of brakes during reverse taxiing should be ________ to prevent the airplane from setting on the tail.
b. Avoided
Do not hold the ice detector TEST switch in the No. 2 or No. 3 position longer than five seconds. The test cycle may be repeated once, but then wait ________ minutes for the ice detector to cool before performing this test again.
a. Five
b. Four
c. Three
d. Two
Do not hold the ice detector TEST switch in the No. 2 or No. 3 position longer than five seconds. The test cycle may be repeated once, but then wait ________ minutes for the ice detector to cool before performing this test again.
a. Five
With engines running, never operate the propeller anti-icing or de-icing system for more than ________ cycles while the airplane is on the ground.
a. Five
b. Four
c. Three
d. Two
With engines running, never operate the propeller anti-icing or de-icing system for more than ________ cycles while the airplane is on the ground.
d. Two
If the BLADE DE-ICING ammeter falls below________, do not fly into icing conditions.
a. 65 volts
b. 90 amperes
c. 65 amperes
d. 90 volts
If the BLADE DE-ICING ammeter falls below________, do not fly into icing conditions.
c. 65 amperes
Observe engine torque and TIT when placing each ________ switch in the ON position when accomplishing the Before Takeoff checklist.
a. ENGINE INLET AIR DUCT ANTI-ICING
b. PROPELLER ICE CONTROL
c. NESA
d. PITOT HEAT
Observe engine torque and TIT when placing each ________ switch in the ON position when accomplishing the Before Takeoff checklist.
a. ENGINE INLET AIR DUCT ANTI-ICING
Main tank boost pump switches ________ be turned off in-flight unless directed by a specific procedure in the flight manual.
a. May
b. Should
c. Will
d. Will not
Main tank boost pump switches ________ be turned off in-flight unless directed by a specific procedure in the flight manual.
d. Will not
Above crossover, if the engine instruments are not similar in ________, with throttles aligned, a propulsion system malfunction may exist.
a. RPM, fuel flow, or torque
b. RPM, TIT, or torque
c. Fuel flow, TIT, or oil pressure
d. Fuel flow, TIT, or torque
Above crossover, if the engine instruments are not similar in ________, with throttles aligned, a propulsion system malfunction may exist.
d. Fuel flow, TIT, or torque
On airplanes modified by TO 1C-130-2098, with brakes fully applied and engines at maximum power, forward movement may occur at a constant rate of ______ or less, and is acceptable.
a. 1 foot/second
b. 1 foot/minute
c. 5 foot/second
d. 5 foot/minute
On airplanes modified by TO 1C-130-2098, with brakes fully applied and engines at maximum power, forward movement may occur at a constant rate of ______ or less, and is acceptable.
a. 1 foot/second
Never place the throttles in the TAKEOFF position without monitoring the ________, since it is possible to exceed the maximum allowable torque.
a. TIT indicators
b. Torque meters
c. Fuel flow
d. RPM gages
Never place the throttles in the TAKEOFF position without monitoring the ________, since it is possible to exceed the maximum allowable torque.
b. Torque meters
The minimum flap retraction speed for a maximum effort takeoff is:
a. Obstacle clearance speed
b. Obstacle clearance speed plus 5 knots
c. Obstacle clearance speed plus 10 knots
d. Obstacle clearance speed plus 20 knots
The minimum flap retraction speed for a maximum effort takeoff is:
c. Obstacle clearance speed plus 10 knots
If performance is critical and a takeoff with brake creep is unacceptable, engine power may be checked symmetrically (e.g. outboard engines checked with inboards at ground idle, inboards checked with outboards at ground idle) before advancing all engines towards maximum power.
A. True
B. False
If performance is critical and a takeoff with brake creep is unacceptable, engine power may be checked symmetrically (e.g. outboard engines checked with inboards at ground idle, inboards checked with outboards at ground idle) before advancing all engines towards maximum power.
A. True
For GCAS ESCAPE during night/IMC En route. If required, rotate the airplane to maintain a maximum climb angle (flaps up: no less than 160 KIAS, flaps 50% or 100%: no slower than 130 KIAS).
a. 160/130
b. 150/120
c. flaps-up approach/obstacle clearance
d. max effort obstacle clearance/obstacle clearance
For GCAS ESCAPE during night/IMC En route. If required, rotate the airplane to maintain a maximum climb angle (flaps up: no less than 160 KIAS, flaps 50% or 100%: no slower than 130 KIAS).
a. 160/130
New TOLD will be required any time gross weight changes 5,000 pounds or more, outside temperature changes ________ degrees C or more, or pressure altitude changes 1,000 feet or more.
a. 20
b. 15
c. 10
d. 5
New TOLD will be required any time gross weight changes 5,000 pounds or more, outside temperature changes ________ degrees C or more, or pressure altitude changes 1,000 feet or more.
d. 5
Higher than normal ________ system pressure may be encountered in-flight.
a. Normal brake
b. Emergency brake
c. Utility
d. Booster
Higher than normal ________ system pressure may be encountered in-flight.
b. Emergency brake
At high airspeeds, abrupt movement of the throttles into the ground range could result in:
a. Pitchlock
b. Power-loss/bog-down
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
At high airspeeds, abrupt movement of the throttles into the ground range could result in:
a. Pitchlock
Do not downspeed the engines when taxi speed, wind, or a combination of the two exceeds 30 knots. Damage to the safety coupling could occur.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
Do not downspeed the engines when taxi speed, wind, or a combination of the two exceeds 30 knots. Damage to the safety coupling could occur.
b. 30
If severe wind shear is encountered on final and a recovery is flown, the navigator/engineer will monitor and call out ___________________.
a. Engine instruments and airspeed
b. Terrain clearance and traffic deconfliction
c. Radar Altimeter
d. Sink rate (VVI/VSI) and airspeed as appropriate
If severe wind shear is encountered on final and a recovery is flown, the navigator/engineer will monitor and call out ___________________.
c. Radar Altimeter
The only sound response when severe wind shear is encountered during an approach is an immediate decision to _______________
a. Execute a go around
b. Depressurize the airplane and position the AIR COND master switch to AUX VENT
c. Notify the OG/CC
d. Check RPM for overspeed, underspeed, or fluctuation
The only sound response when severe wind shear is encountered during an approach is an immediate decision to _______________
a. Execute a go around
During landing, at the first indication of directional control difficulties during reversing, immediately:
a. Shut down the affected engine
b. Return all throttles to GROUND IDLE
c. Return all throttles to FLIGHT IDLE
d. Return throttle of affected engine to GROUND IDLE
During landing, at the first indication of directional control difficulties during reversing, immediately:
b. Return all throttles to GROUND IDLE
The nose gear must be on the ground prior to _________.
a. Entering ground range
b. Reversing
c. Coming out of flight idle
d. Going to ground stop
The nose gear must be on the ground prior to _________.
b. Reversing
When moving the flaps at low airspeed, an asymmetrical flap may go undetected until near or above ___________.
a. Rotation speed
b. VMCG
c. VMCA
d. Takeoff speed
When moving the flaps at low airspeed, an asymmetrical flap may go undetected until near or above ___________.
d. Takeoff speed
If a go-around is accomplished, retracting flaps from 100 to 50 percent will:
a. Decrease sink rate
b. Increase sink rate
c. Decrease stall speed
d. Increase stall speed
If a go-around is accomplished, retracting flaps from 100 to 50 percent will:
d. Increase stall speed
The flight engineer should monitor engine instruments during shutdown for:
a. TIT and RPM decrease and NTS lights
b. Zero fuel flow and TIT and RPM decrease
c. Zero fuel flow and TIT and torque decrease
d. Zero fuel flow and TIT decrease and NTS lights
The flight engineer should monitor engine instruments during shutdown for:
b. Zero fuel flow and TIT and RPM decrease
If NTS advisory lights do not illuminate when shutting down engines from low-speed ground idle:
a. Do nothing, this is normal
b. A recheck of the NTS system must be made before the next flight
c. Record in the AFTO 781
d. Restart the engine and shutdown in Normal Ground Idle
If NTS advisory lights do not illuminate when shutting down engines from low-speed ground idle:
b. A recheck of the NTS system must be made before the next flight
Regardless of specific emergency encountered:
a. Maintain airplane control
b. Analyze the situation
c. Take coordinated corrective action
d. All the above
Regardless of specific emergency encountered:
d. All the above
When pulling the condition lever to FEATHER, pull it all the way to the detent to assure that the propeller is fully feathered when the engine fuel is shut off. If the lever is left at a mid-position, and NTS is inoperative, a(n)
a. Immediate loss of controlled flight could be possible
b. Pitchlock of the propeller is possible
c. Engine decoupling is possible
d. Propeller overspeed is possible
When pulling the condition lever to FEATHER, pull it all the way to the detent to assure that the propeller is fully feathered when the engine fuel is shut off. If the lever is left at a mid-position, and NTS is inoperative, a(n)
c. Engine decoupling is possible
If on crossfeed during the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE, ________ before
shutting off the fuel boost pump and closing the crossfeed valve for the affected engine.
a. Ensure all boost pump switches are OFF and tank to engine operation
b. Ensure all boost pump switches are ON
c. Ensure source of fuel to operate engines
d. Open bypass valve and cross-feed separation valve
If on crossfeed during the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE, ________ before
shutting off the fuel boost pump and closing the crossfeed valve for the affected engine.
c. Ensure source of fuel to operate engines
If cabin pressure increases at an excessive rate and cannot be reduced by normal means then:
a. Immediately shut off engine bleed air, one at a time, until the rate of pressure increase is at a safe value
b. Control pressure by using engine bleed air as necessary to vary the amount of conditioned air supplied for pressurization
c. If necessary for further control when descending, one of the air conditioning systems can be shut down to expedite depressurization of the airplane
d. All the above
If cabin pressure increases at an excessive rate and cannot be reduced by normal means then:
d. All the above
If either the left or right wheel well overheat light illuminates after takeoff and the condition persists after isolation procedures have been accomplished, it may be indicative of:
a. Overheated tires
b. Overheated brakes
c. Failed APU control valve
d. A failed cargo compartment control valve
If either the left or right wheel well overheat light illuminates after takeoff and the condition persists after isolation procedures have been accomplished, it may be indicative of:
b. Overheated brakes
- The correct procedure for high TIT on the ground is:
A. Move all throttles to GROUND IDLE and follow the Engine Shutdown Procedure
B. Place the affected engine condition lever to GROUND STOP
C. Retard the throttle toward GROUND IDLE, and place the temp datum control valve switch to the NULL position. If this fails to eliminate the over temperature condition, place condition lever to GROUND STOP
D. None of the above
- The correct procedure for high TIT on the ground is:
C. Retard the throttle toward GROUND IDLE, and place the temp datum control valve switch to the NULL position. If this fails to eliminate the over temperature condition, place condition lever to GROUND STOP
If a tailpipe fire occurs in-flight, follow the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. If the fire persists:
a. Isolate the affected wing
b. Discharge the fire bottle on command of the pilot
c. The airplane should be accelerated as rapidly as possible, not exceeding maximum airspeed
d. All the above
If a tailpipe fire occurs in-flight, follow the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. If the fire persists:
c. The airplane should be accelerated as rapidly as possible, not exceeding maximum airspeed
If a turbine overheat occurs in-flight:
A. Retard the throttle toward FLIGHT IDLE. If the condition persists, proceed with the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE
B. Retard the throttle toward FLIGHT IDLE, TD switch to NULL. If the warning light persists follow the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE
C. Place the affected engine TD switch to NULL. If the overheat is corrected place the TD switch to locked
D. Perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE
If a turbine overheat occurs in-flight:
A. Retard the throttle toward FLIGHT IDLE. If the condition persists, proceed with the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE
During GROUND EVACUATION; if pyrotechnics are loaded on the airplane, evacuate a minimum of ______ feet from the airplane.
a. 300
b. 400
c. 500
d. 600
During GROUND EVACUATION; if pyrotechnics are loaded on the airplane, evacuate a minimum of ______ feet from the airplane.
d. 600
If a main wheel well fire exists or hot brakes are suspected and conditions require personnel to be close to an overheated wheel or tire assembly, the approach should be from the ______ only.
a. quickest route
b. upwind direction
c. side
d. fore or aft
If a main wheel well fire exists or hot brakes are suspected and conditions require personnel to be close to an overheated wheel or tire assembly, the approach should be from the ______ only.
d. fore or aft
If aborting for a propeller malfunction or any other malfunction which could result in asymmetric power causing directional control problems when the throttles are placed in the ground range, shut down the affected engine while throttle is in:
a. FLIGHT IDLE
b. GROUND IDLE
c. TAKEOFF
d. REVERSE
If aborting for a propeller malfunction or any other malfunction which could result in asymmetric power causing directional control problems when the throttles are placed in the ground range, shut down the affected engine while throttle is in:
a. FLIGHT IDLE
For malfunctions which result in asymmetric thrust, the airplane will attempt to ________ the malfunctioning power plant during airplane acceleration.
A. Turn away from
B. Turn toward
C. Remain on runway centerline instead of turning into
D. Accelerate to Vmcg before turning toward
For malfunctions which result in asymmetric thrust, the airplane will attempt to ________ the malfunctioning power plant during airplane acceleration.
B. Turn toward
For a takeoff continued after engine failure, flap retraction should be accomplished in ______ percent increments with airspeed increasing approximately ________ knots between retraction increments.
a. 5, 5
b. 5, 10
c. 10, 5
d. 10, 10
For a takeoff continued after engine failure, flap retraction should be accomplished in ______ percent increments with airspeed increasing approximately ________ knots between retraction increments.
c. 10, 5
In all combinations of two engine failures, monitor ________ to keep it within the range of available output.
a. Hydraulic system pressures
b. Pressurization system
c. Emergency brake system
d. Generator loading
In all combinations of two engine failures, monitor ________ to keep it within the range of available output.
d. Generator loading
Two-engine operation above ________ pounds gross weight or at high density altitude is marginal.
a. 110,000
b. 115,000
c. 120,000
d. 125,000
Two-engine operation above ________ pounds gross weight or at high density altitude is marginal.
c. 120,000
If a propeller malfunction occurs after refusal speed and there is no indication of fire, it is recommended that the engine be allowed to run until at least ________ is reached.
Ref: TO 1C-130 H/K-1 Pg: 3A-22, 3A-21 Chap: 3 Para: Note
a. One-engine inoperative air minimum control speed
b. Two-engine inoperative air minimum control speed
c. 400 feet AGL
d. 150 KTAS
If a propeller malfunction occurs after refusal speed and there is no indication of fire, it is recommended that the engine be allowed to run until at least ________ is reached.
Ref: TO 1C-130 H/K-1 Pg: 3A-22, 3A-21 Chap: 3 Para: Note
b. Two-engine inoperative air minimum control speed
During pitchlocked propeller operation, the engine should be shutdown when:
a. Reaching 150 KTAS
b. 96% RPM cannot be maintained with the throttles
c. Reaching a suitable landing area
d. All of the above
During pitchlocked propeller operation, the engine should be shutdown when:
d. All of the above
If a propeller fails to feather in flight, it is critical to restore oil to the ________ of the windmilling propeller as soon as possible.
a. Engine section
b. Turbine section
c. Reduction gearbox
d. All the above
If a propeller fails to feather in flight, it is critical to restore oil to the ________ of the windmilling propeller as soon as possible.
c. Reduction gearbox
For PROPELLER BRAKE FAILURE; if the propeller does counter-rotate, and the procedures are ineffective:
a. Land as soon as possible
b. Land as soon as practical
c. Continue the flight with caution
d. Record in 781, maintenance action required
For PROPELLER BRAKE FAILURE; if the propeller does counter-rotate, and the procedures are ineffective:
b. Land as soon as practical
If throttle control cable failure is suspected, do not move the throttle prior to engine shutdown. To do so could cause:
a. The engine to stall or flameout
b. The propeller to be inadvertently feathered
c. The pitchlock mechanism to disengage
d. The propeller to go into reverse pitch or to full power
If throttle control cable failure is suspected, do not move the throttle prior to engine shutdown. To do so could cause:
d. The propeller to go into reverse pitch or to full power
Any time an IGNITION CONTROL circuit breaker is pulled on an inboard engine, the ________ for that engine is inoperative.
a. Propeller de-icing system
b. Propeller anti-icing system
c. Engine inlet anti-icing system
d. Ice detection system
Any time an IGNITION CONTROL circuit breaker is pulled on an inboard engine, the ________ for that engine is inoperative.
d. Ice detection system
A sheared shaft on the speed sensitive control with the throttle above 65 degrees travel may be indicated by:
a. Momentary illumination of the SECONDARY FUEL PUMP PRESSURE light
b. ELECTRONIC FUEL CORRECTION light
c. TIT will not exceed start limiting temperature of 830 degrees C
d. All the above
A sheared shaft on the speed sensitive control with the throttle above 65 degrees travel may be indicated by:
d. All the above
In case of loss of oil pressure:
a. Check the oil pressure indicator fuse
b. Shut down the engine in accordance with the Engine Shutdown Procedure
c. Shut down the engine by using Cruise Engine Shutdown Procedure
d. Placed the AC Instrument and Engine Fuel Control inverter switch to the DC position
In case of loss of oil pressure:
b. Shut down the engine in accordance with the Engine Shutdown Procedure
A negative G condition may allow air to enter the engine oil supply line resulting in a loss of oil pressure approximately ________ later due to oil pump cavitation.
a. 30 to 60 seconds
b. 45 to 90 seconds
c. 30 to 90 seconds
d. 45 to 60 seconds
A negative G condition may allow air to enter the engine oil supply line resulting in a loss of oil pressure approximately ________ later due to oil pump cavitation.
c. 30 to 90 seconds
If a Tachometer Generator Failure occurs on the engine selected as the master engine, first:
a. Place the propeller governor control switch to MECH GOV
b. Place the synchrophaser master switch to OFF/other master
c. Resync the propellers
d. Follow the engine shutdown procedures
If a Tachometer Generator Failure occurs on the engine selected as the master engine, first:
b. Place the synchrophaser master switch to OFF/other master
When operating in tank-to-engine position with an inoperative fuel boost pump, avoid:
a. Rapid acceleration or nose high attitudes
b. Rapid deceleration or nose high attitudes
c. Rapid acceleration or nose low attitudes
d. Rapid deceleration or nose low attitude
When operating in tank-to-engine position with an inoperative fuel boost pump, avoid:
c. Rapid acceleration or nose low attitudes
Do not select ________ unless the crossfeed system is pressurized by operating fuel boost pumps in other tanks.
a. Crossfeed
b. Tank to engine
c. DUMP
d. Crossfeed Bypass
Do not select ________ unless the crossfeed system is pressurized by operating fuel boost pumps in other tanks.
a. Crossfeed
After confirmed fuel pump failure, fuel boost pump circuit breakers may be reset and the pump operated only:
a. To prevent having to stop to refuel on a higher headquarters mission with the pilot’s approval
b. To prevent fuel starvation when a landing cannot be accomplished within the range of available fuel
c. If rapid acceleration or nose low attitudes are anticipated
d. To avoid enroute stops
After confirmed fuel pump failure, fuel boost pump circuit breakers may be reset and the pump operated only:
b. To prevent fuel starvation when a landing cannot be accomplished within the range of available fuel
Prior to performing any procedure which involves removing all AC power:
a. Obtain pilot permission to proceed
b. Open the oil cooler flaps
c. Configure the fuel system for tank to engine operation
d. Turn on the UHF radio manual control head
Prior to performing any procedure which involves removing all AC power:
c. Configure the fuel system for tank to engine operation
Failure of the reverse current relay connecting the essential and isolated DC bus will be indicated by:
a. A battery voltmeter indication of 27 volts or less
b. Illumination of the essential DC bus off light
c. Illumination of all DC bus off lights
d. Illumination of the ISOL DC ON BATT/BAT DSCH light and/or a battery voltmeter indication of 24 volts or less
Failure of the reverse current relay connecting the essential and isolated DC bus will be indicated by:
d. Illumination of the ISOL DC ON BATT/BAT DSCH light and/or a battery voltmeter indication of 24 volts or less
If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete the
FUSELAGE FIRE/SMOKE AND FUME ELEMINATION procedure should:
a. Be turned off
b. Be disconnected
c. Not be turned on or off until the fumes are eliminated
d. Be turned on
If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete the
FUSELAGE FIRE/SMOKE AND FUME ELEMINATION procedure should:
c. Not be turned on or off until the fumes are eliminated
Smoke developed in the cargo compartment \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ move forward into the flight station. The hatch \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ be opened to effectively eliminate smoke and fumes during all elimination emergencies. A. Could possibly/should B. Will/must C. Could/will D. May not/may
Smoke developed in the cargo compartment ________ move forward into the flight station. The hatch ________ be opened to effectively eliminate smoke and fumes during all elimination emergencies.
B. Will/must
If an in-flight door warning occurs and it cannot be determined what caused the door light to illuminate, the flight ________ at the discretion of the pilot (below the point where the light illuminates and with all personnel secured with safety belts).
a. Must be terminated immediately
b. May be continued with partial pressurization
c. Must continue depressurized
d. Must be flown below 10,000 feet
If an in-flight door warning occurs and it cannot be determined what caused the door light to illuminate, the flight ________ at the discretion of the pilot (below the point where the light illuminates and with all personnel secured with safety belts).
b. May be continued with partial pressurization
If the inner and outer panes of a flight deck windshield should crack in-flight, reduce the cabin pressure to ___________.
a. Zero
b. 3.1 inches or less
c. 5 inches or less
d. 10 inches or less
If the inner and outer panes of a flight deck windshield should crack in-flight, reduce the cabin pressure to ___________.
d. 10 inches or less
In the event that utility or boost hydraulic pressure in excess of 3,450 psi is indicated:
a. Shut off the #1 and #2 engine hydraulic pump switches
b. Do not turn off the individual hydraulic pump switches
c. Turn off all the utility system flight control booster switches
d. Follow the engine shutdown procedures
In the event that utility or boost hydraulic pressure in excess of 3,450 psi is indicated:
b. Do not turn off the individual hydraulic pump switches
If elevator control should fail (hydraulic assistance is lost), achieve approximately level flight and ________ KIAS and land with 50% flaps recommended.
a. 130
b. 150
c. 170
d. 180
If elevator control should fail (hydraulic assistance is lost), achieve approximately level flight and ________ KIAS and land with 50% flaps recommended.
c. 170
If movement of the flaps, after an outboard flap failure, must be attempted, return them in increments of ________ toward the position last selected before failure. During flap movement, check aileron control ________.
a. 5 degrees/constantly
b. 5 percent/ after flap movement
c. 10 degrees/as flaps are retracting
d. 10 percent/constantly
If movement of the flaps, after an outboard flap failure, must be attempted, return them in increments of ________ toward the position last selected before failure. During flap movement, check aileron control ________.
d. 10 percent/constantly
Protection against asymmetrical operation is provided only during ________ hydraulic flap operation.
a. Normal
b. Emergency
c. Manual
d. All the above
Protection against asymmetrical operation is provided only during ________ hydraulic flap operation.
a. Normal
________ take-off with a known or suspected landing gear malfunction.
a. Pilot discretion allows a
b. Do not attempt a
c. If repair facilities are not available you may
d. After the flight engineer inspects the gear, the pilot may
________ take-off with a known or suspected landing gear malfunction.
b. Do not attempt a
If the landing gear selector valve DOWN button requires holding to lower the gear, hydraulic pressure will not be available for:
a. Extension of the nose landing gear
b. Nose wheel steering
c. Normal extension of the main landing gear
d. Normal brakes
If the landing gear selector valve DOWN button requires holding to lower the gear, hydraulic pressure will not be available for:
b. Nose wheel steering
For Manual Gear Extension, make sure the ratchet on the hand crank is set for ______ rotation before placing it on the emergency extension stub shaft.
a. Down
b. Up
c. Neutral
d. Any
For Manual Gear Extension, make sure the ratchet on the hand crank is set for ______ rotation before placing it on the emergency extension stub shaft.
a. Down
A controllability check is conducted if suspected or actual in-flight damage, fuel imbalance, or differential airspeed occurs,
a. suspected or actual in-flight damage
b. fuel imbalance,
c. differential airspeed occurs
d. All of the above
A controllability check is conducted if suspected or actual in-flight damage, fuel imbalance, or differential airspeed occurs,
d. All of the above
When landing with two engines inoperative, a go-around is not recommended:
a. If the flaps are up
b. After the flaps are lowered
c. Until the flaps are lowered
d. Unless the flaps are set 50 percent
When landing with two engines inoperative, a go-around is not recommended:
b. After the flaps are lowered
If one main landing gear cannot be extended, the recommended procedure is to retract the other main gear and land with only the nose gear down, or land with all landing gears retracted. (Refer to Gear-Up Landing.)
a. True
b. False
If one main landing gear cannot be extended, the recommended procedure is to retract the other main gear and land with only the nose gear down, or land with all landing gears retracted. (Refer to Gear-Up Landing.)
a. True
If a decision is made by the pilot to ditch the airplane then a minimum of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pounds of fuel should remain at time of descent from altitude. A. 6,000 B. 3,000 C. 2,000 D. 1,500
If a decision is made by the pilot to ditch the airplane then a minimum of ________ pounds of fuel should remain at time of descent from altitude.
C. 2,000
Negative thrust from propeller(s) retarded to the FLIGHT IDLE position will produce _____ drag than a feathered or windmilling propeller and _________ air minimum control speeds for the condition.
a. Less, decrease
b. More, decrease
c. More, increase
d. Less, increase
Negative thrust from propeller(s) retarded to the FLIGHT IDLE position will produce _____ drag than a feathered or windmilling propeller and _________ air minimum control speeds for the condition.
c. More, increase
If NTS is not indicated during an airstart, interruption of the start cycle after light off by an attempt to feather before the engine has reached a stabilized speed may result in:
a. A pitch locked propeller
b. Flameout of the engine
c. Decoupling and severe over speed
d. Severe over speed
If NTS is not indicated during an airstart, interruption of the start cycle after light off by an attempt to feather before the engine has reached a stabilized speed may result in:
c. Decoupling and severe over speed
Ensure INU power switch has been off for more than ________ seconds before turning SCNS power switch OFF.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
Ensure INU power switch has been off for more than ________ seconds before turning SCNS power switch OFF.
b. 10
When oil temperature exceeds ________ degrees C. for any time duration, an entry will be made in the Form 781 to include duration and temperature.
a. 85
b. 95
c. 105
d. 100
When oil temperature exceeds ________ degrees C. for any time duration, an entry will be made in the Form 781 to include duration and temperature.
d. 100
Normal limits for AC voltage:
a. 110 to 120 Volts
b. 115 to 125 Volts
c. 115 to 130 Volts
d. 110 to 125 Volts
Normal limits for AC voltage:
d. 110 to 125 Volts
Power section oil pressure up to ________ PSI is allowable during start and warm-up.
a. 50
b. 60
c. 85
d. 100
Power section oil pressure up to ________ PSI is allowable during start and warm-up.
d. 100
Normal limit for the cabin differential gage:
a. 1.2 to 15.8 In. Hg
b. 1.2 to 15.9 In. Hg
c. -1.2 to 15.8 In. Hg
d. -1.2 to 15.9 In. Hg
Normal limit for the cabin differential gage:
c. -1.2 to 15.8 In. Hg
The external fuel tank fuel boost pump pressure limits are ________ PSI.
a. 28 to 45
b. 28 to 40
c. 15 to 24
d. 15 to 20
The external fuel tank fuel boost pump pressure limits are ________ PSI.
b. 28 to 40
The normal limits on the DC voltmeter are ________ volts.
a. 21-25
b. 21-35
c. 24-30
d. 25-30
The normal limits on the DC voltmeter are ________ volts.
d. 25-30
In case of emergency, oxygen usage may be continued until:
a. 10 liters remaining
b. 5 liters remaining
c. 2.5 liters remaining
d. System is empty
In case of emergency, oxygen usage may be continued until:
d. System is empty
During propeller reversing check, if symmetrical torque differences are ________ inch pounds or more, record in AFTO Form 781.
a. 1,500
b. 2,000
c. 1,000
d. 900
During propeller reversing check, if symmetrical torque differences are ________ inch pounds or more, record in AFTO Form 781.
c. 1,000
Do not exceed ________ KIAS with the ramp (or ramp and cargo door) open regardless of whether the paratroop doors are open or closed or the position of the air deflectors.
a. 130
b. 145
c. 150
d. 180
Do not exceed ________ KIAS with the ramp (or ramp and cargo door) open regardless of whether the paratroop doors are open or closed or the position of the air deflectors.
c. 150
Maximum airspeed with the paratroop doors open and locked is:
a. 250 KIAS
b. 150 KIAS
c. 185 KIAS
d. 200 KIAS
Maximum airspeed with the paratroop doors open and locked is:
a. 250 KIAS
With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is ________ G in unsymmetrical maneuvers.
a. 2.0
b. 1.5
c. 2.5
d. 1.0
With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is ________ G in unsymmetrical maneuvers.
b. 1.5
Secondary fuel management will shorten the service life of the wings and should be avoided unless necessary for mission accomplishment. This becomes more critical when:
a. Operating near the gross weight limit for an applicable maneuver
b. When carrying more than approximately 10,000 lbs of cargo
c. Operating near the gross weight for an applicable speed
d. All of the above
Secondary fuel management will shorten the service life of the wings and should be avoided unless necessary for mission accomplishment. This becomes more critical when:
d. All of the above
Maximum effort operations with airplane configuration (fuel, cargo, etc.) that necessitate 300 FPM rate-of-sink should be restricted to wartime operation only. To perform during peacetime will require ________ approval.
a. Unit commander
b. Operations Group commander
c. Numbered Air Force
d. Major Command
Maximum effort operations with airplane configuration (fuel, cargo, etc.) that necessitate 300 FPM rate-of-sink should be restricted to wartime operation only. To perform during peacetime will require ________ approval.
d. Major Command
Under stable conditions, allowable oil pressure fluctuation is _________ psi (_________ psi excursion) for the power section.
a. 20 psi/40 psi
b. +/- 10 psi/20 psi
c. +/- 5 psi/20 psi
d. +/- 10 psi/10 psi
Under stable conditions, allowable oil pressure fluctuation is _________ psi (_________ psi excursion) for the power section.
b. +/- 10 psi/20 psi
Normal speed ground idle RPM limits are ________ percent.
a. 96-106
b. 69-75.5
c. 94.5-100.5
d. 94-102
Normal speed ground idle RPM limits are ________ percent.
d. 94-102
Reduction gearbox oil pressure is permitted to go below ________ PSIG when RPM is below 100% if 150 PSIG can be maintained at 100% RPM with oil temperature normal.
a. 100
b. 130
c. 150
d. 50
Reduction gearbox oil pressure is permitted to go below ________ PSIG when RPM is below 100% if 150 PSIG can be maintained at 100% RPM with oil temperature normal.
c. 150
If start TIT is between 720-750 degrees C:
a. Record in Form 781, perform a temperature controlling check IAW section 1B
b. Record in Form 781, perform a temperature controlling check IAW section 1B, and record crossover TIT
c. Maintenance action is required
d. All the above
If start TIT is between 720-750 degrees C:
d. All the above
If the feather override button fails to pop out within 6 seconds after the the propeller is feathered:
a. Pull the aux feather motor circuit breakers
b. Pull it out manually to shut off the pump. Maintenance action is required prior to flight
c. Record in 781A. Maintenance action is required after flight
d. Reset the fire handle if pulled to restore oil to the engine
If the feather override button fails to pop out within 6 seconds after the the propeller is feathered:
b. Pull it out manually to shut off the pump. Maintenance action is required prior to flight
Allowable propeller fluctuations are:
a. Plus/minus 1.0% either side of a stable RPM for a total of 2%
b. Plus/minus 0.5% either side of a stable RPM for a total of 1%
c. 2% maximum
d. Propeller flux is not allowed
Allowable propeller fluctuations are:
b. Plus/minus 0.5% either side of a stable RPM for a total of 1%
Raising of the flaps is permissible during stall recovery to decrease drag and assist in the recovery.
a. True
b. False
Raising of the flaps is permissible during stall recovery to decrease drag and assist in the recovery.
b. False
Fin stall can occur at all speeds between stall speed and approximately ________ KIAS in all flap configurations with power________.
a. 170/OFF
b. 185/ON
c. 185/OFF
d. 170/ON
Fin stall can occur at all speeds between stall speed and approximately ________ KIAS in all flap configurations with power________.
d. 170/ON
The recommended airspeed for penetration into thunderstorms is:
a. 65 knots above power-off stall speed not to exceed 165 KIAS
b. 65 knots above power-on stall speed not to exceed 165 KIAS
c. 65 knots above power-off stall speed not to exceed 180 KIAS
d. 65 knots above power-on stall speed not to exceed 180 KIAS
The recommended airspeed for penetration into thunderstorms is:
c. 65 knots above power-off stall speed not to exceed 180 KIAS
Cold weather procedures are generally considered to be applicable when the temperature is ________ and below.
a. Below 15 degrees C
b. 32 degrees F
c. 0 degrees C
d. Both B and C
Cold weather procedures are generally considered to be applicable when the temperature is ________ and below.
d. Both B and C
Starts in cold weather conditions may result in start TIT less than normal starting limits. If all engine starts are similar in TIT:
a. Consider this a normal start, no further action is required
b. Consider this a cold start, maintenance action is required
c. Restart the engine using enrichment, note start TIT
d. Restart the engine, note start TIT
Starts in cold weather conditions may result in start TIT less than normal starting limits. If all engine starts are similar in TIT:
a. Consider this a normal start, no further action is required
________ should be on during takeoff and climb if temperature is 32 degrees F or lower and any visible moisture is present.
a. Nacelle preheat
b. Propeller and engine anti-icing and deicing
c. Leading edge and empennage anti-icing
d. B and C
________ should be on during takeoff and climb if temperature is 32 degrees F or lower and any visible moisture is present.
b. Propeller and engine anti-icing and deicing
Takeoff run is ________ and rate of climb decreased in high temperatures.
a. The same
b. Better
c. Considerably increased
d. Considerably decreased
Takeoff run is ________ and rate of climb decreased in high temperatures.
c. Considerably increased
In accordance with hot weather procedures, during descent (for landing) below ________ feet, manually open the oil cooler flaps and place the switches to the FIXED position.
a. 5,000
b. 10,000
c. 15,000
d. 20,000
In accordance with hot weather procedures, during descent (for landing) below ________ feet, manually open the oil cooler flaps and place the switches to the FIXED position.
c. 15,000
As soon as the airplane is parked during hot weather, chock wheels and ________ in order to avoid possible damage to brake components from excessive heat generated while taxiing.
a. Set the parking brake
b. Release brakes
c. Select emergency brakes
d. Deplete brake pressure
As soon as the airplane is parked during hot weather, chock wheels and ________ in order to avoid possible damage to brake components from excessive heat generated while taxiing.
b. Release brakes
In accordance with desert procedures; when propeller reversing is used during landing, start moving the throttles from MAXIMUM REVERSE to GROUND IDLE at approximately ________ KIAS and have the throttles at GROUND IDLE by the time 40 KIAS is reached.
a. 60
b. 80
c. 100
d. 115
In accordance with desert procedures; when propeller reversing is used during landing, start moving the throttles from MAXIMUM REVERSE to GROUND IDLE at approximately ________ KIAS and have the throttles at GROUND IDLE by the time 40 KIAS is reached.
a. 60
Take-Off factor combines the parameters of:
a. Temperature, pressure altitude, and TIT
b. Torque, field pressure altitude, runway temperature, TIT, and engine efficiency
c. Pressure altitude, temperature, TIT, and runway available
d. Runway temperature, field pressure altitude, torque, and bleed air requirements
Take-Off factor combines the parameters of:
b. Torque, field pressure altitude, runway temperature, TIT, and engine efficiency
When the crosswind component and_____________ fall within the caution area, the take-off or touchdown speed should be increased until the recommended area is reached or until the aircraft speed has been increased by 10 knots.
a. Vmca
b. Normal take-off or touch down speed
c. Vmcg
d. Refusal or normal take-off speed
When the crosswind component and_____________ fall within the caution area, the take-off or touchdown speed should be increased until the recommended area is reached or until the aircraft speed has been increased by 10 knots.
b. Normal take-off or touch down speed
When corrected refusal speed exceeds take-off speed, use _________.
a. Vmcg
b. Vmca
c. Refusal speed
d. Take-off speed for refusal speed
When corrected refusal speed exceeds take-off speed, use _________.
d. Take-off speed for refusal speed
When computing climb-out performance, a headwind ________used for obstacle clearance, but the tailwind component ________ used to determine an effective obstacle distance.
a. is / is not
b. must / may
c. is not / is
d. may / must
When computing climb-out performance, a headwind ________used for obstacle clearance, but the tailwind component ________ used to determine an effective obstacle distance.
c. is not / is
The RCR factor ________ affect the 4-engine climbout, but ________ affect the 3engine climbout.
a. does not / does
b. does / does not
c. may / will
d. will / may
The RCR factor ________ affect the 4-engine climbout, but ________ affect the 3engine climbout.
a. does not / does
All take-off data are based on rotation occurring at rotation speed and lift-off occurring at take-off speed. Any delay in rotation will require corrections to take-off data.
A. True
B. False
All take-off data are based on rotation occurring at rotation speed and lift-off occurring at take-off speed. Any delay in rotation will require corrections to take-off data.
A. True
For Refusal Speed, in the event of an engine failure, the options available are based on ________.
a. Vmcg, Vr, and Vcef
b. Vr, Vcef, and Vmca
c. Vcef, Vmca, and Vmcg
d. Vmca, Vmcg, and Vcef
For Refusal Speed, in the event of an engine failure, the options available are based on ________.
a. Vmcg, Vr, and Vcef
In the case of a balanced critical field length,the Refusal Speed is always higher than Critical Engine Failure Speed. This is because Vr is based on the runway length available, while Vcrf is based on the critical field length.
a. Vr/Vcef
b. Vcef/Vr
c. Vmcg/Vr
d. Vr/Vmcg
In the case of a balanced critical field length,the Refusal Speed is always higher than Critical Engine Failure Speed. This is because Vr is based on the runway length available, while Vcrf is based on the critical field length.
a. Vr/Vcef
________ is operation at the speed which results in the minimum fuel flow for the given configuration, altitude, temperature, and gross weight.
a. Optimum endurance
b. Low altitude search
c. Maximum endurance
d. 3-engine drift down speed
________ is operation at the speed which results in the minimum fuel flow for the given configuration, altitude, temperature, and gross weight.
c. Maximum endurance
When landing with one or two engines inoperative, it is recommended that the in-flight ________ be compared to the ________ and the higher speed be used for approach.
a. Applicable stall speed/touchdown speed
b. Minimum control speed/recommended approach speed
c. Recommended approach speed/applicable stall speed
d. Minimum control speed/threshold speed
When landing with one or two engines inoperative, it is recommended that the in-flight ________ be compared to the ________ and the higher speed be used for approach.
b. Minimum control speed/recommended approach speed
Presented landing field length distance performance is based on multiple conditions to include ________.
a. The pilot “making it work”
b. 25 foot vertical clearance at runway thresh-hold
c. Brake use
d. Maximum anti-skid braking
Presented landing field length distance performance is based on multiple conditions to include ________.
d. Maximum anti-skid braking
Take-off and immediate landing data for the departure airfield will be completed prior to _____. The destination landing data will be computed prior to the completion of _____.
a. COCKPIT/DESCENT checklist
b. Stations time/BEFORE LANDING checklist
c. LINEUP/BEFORE LANDING checklist
d. Take-off/DESCENT checklist
Take-off and immediate landing data for the departure airfield will be completed prior to _____. The destination landing data will be computed prior to the completion of _____.
d. Take-off/DESCENT checklist
The ___________ is the final authority in determining the overall suitability of an aircraft for the mission.
a. PIC
b. co-pilot
c. flight engineer
d. SQ/DO
The ___________ is the final authority in determining the overall suitability of an aircraft for the mission.
a. PIC
A PIC who accepts an aircraft with degraded equipment/systems is not committed to subsequent operations with the same degraded equipment.
a. True
b. False
A PIC who accepts an aircraft with degraded equipment/systems is not committed to subsequent operations with the same degraded equipment.
a. True
For peace-time do not use runways less than __________ feet.
a. 3,000
b. 3,500
c. 5,000
d. 5,500
For peace-time do not use runways less than __________ feet.
a. 3,000
Minimum runway width is _____ (____for max effort). Minimum taxiway width is ______.
a. 60 feet/60 feet/30 feet
b. 80 feet/60 feet/30 feet
c. 60 feet40 feet/70 feet
d. 80 feet/80 feet/30 feet
Minimum runway width is _____ (____for max effort). Minimum taxiway width is ______.
b. 80 feet/60 feet/30 feet
All maximum effort operations must fall in the ___________ area of charts (corrected for RCR) unless otherwise approved by OG/CC.
a. tactical
b. recommended
c. caution
d. not recommended
All maximum effort operations must fall in the ___________ area of charts (corrected for RCR) unless otherwise approved by OG/CC.
b. recommended
When runway widths less than 80 feet have lengths that fall within performance requirements for a normal landing, max effort crews are ________ but max effort landing procedures are __________.
a. not required/not required
b. required/required
c. required/not required
d. not required/required
When runway widths less than 80 feet have lengths that fall within performance requirements for a normal landing, max effort crews are ________ but max effort landing procedures are __________.
c. required/not required
Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____ feet.
a. 10/25
b. 15/25
c. 25/10
d. 25/15
Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____ feet.
c. 25/10
__________ detecting the illumination of the radar altimeter Low Altitude Warning Light will immediately notify the pilot flying the aircraft.
a. The pilot not flying
b. The flight engineer
c. Any crewmember
d. The crew chief
__________ detecting the illumination of the radar altimeter Low Altitude Warning Light will immediately notify the pilot flying the aircraft.
c. Any crewmember
Pilots will normally use __________ for takeoffs provided refusal speed (Vr) is equal to or greater than takeoff speed.
a. max power
b. reduced power
c. max continuous power
d. bleeds closed power
Pilots will normally use __________ for takeoffs provided refusal speed (Vr) is equal to or greater than takeoff speed.
b. reduced power
Reduced power for formation takeoffs are 970 or 937 degrees TIT dependent upon installed engines. Formation leaders brief takeoff ___________________ when different variants are in the same formation.
a. Settings/Vto
b. CFL
c. TIT
d. TIT/torque settings
Reduced power for formation takeoffs are 970 or 937 degrees TIT dependent upon installed engines. Formation leaders brief takeoff TIT/torque settings when different variants are in the same formation.
d. TIT/torque settings
Crewmembers will carry a personal helmet:
A. Anytime parachutes are required to be carried by the mission directive
B. Whenever the aircrew requires helmet mounted NVGs
C. When required for wear of the aircrew chemical Biological Radiological and Nuclear equipment
D. All of the above
Crewmembers will carry a personal helmet:
D. All of the above
Each crewmember must carry an operable flashlight.
a. True
b. False
Each crewmember must carry an operable flashlight.
a. True
All crewmembers issued an electronic flight bag (EFB) will ensure it is ______ and ______ on all flights.
a. current/qualified
b. current/carried
c. charged/readable
d. charged/unlocked
All crewmembers issued an electronic flight bag (EFB) will ensure it is ______ and ______ on all flights.
b. current/carried
The __________ will provide the obstacle height, distance, and gradient information necessary for performance computations to the flight engineer.
a. IFR Supplement
b. Pilot In Command (PIC)
c. Pilot Monitoring (PM)
d. Navigator
The __________ will provide the obstacle height, distance, and gradient information necessary for performance computations to the flight engineer.
b. Pilot In Command (PIC)
The aircrew T.O. 1C-130XX-1 preflight inspection will remain valid until either: Ref:
a. aircraft ground time exceeds 12 hours
b. aircraft ground time exceeds 72 hours provided the aircraft is sealed, not flown, and documented entry control is maintained.
c. another maintenance dash six preflight is performed
d. all of the above
The aircrew T.O. 1C-130XX-1 preflight inspection will remain valid until either: Ref:
d. all of the above
Under no circumstance will any crewmember act as the towing supervisor.
a. True
b. False
Under no circumstance will any crewmember act as the towing supervisor.
a. True
Crewmembers will fit and adjust LPUs for overwater flights and will wear them on overwater missions below _______ feet.
a. 500
b. 1,000
c. 2,000
d. 5,000
Crewmembers will fit and adjust LPUs for overwater flights and will wear them on overwater missions below _______ feet.
c. 2,000
The C-130 is a category “C” aircraft. If approach speeds exceed _____ knots, the minimums for category “D” will be used.
a. 130
b. 135
c. 140
d. 145
The C-130 is a category “C” aircraft. If approach speeds exceed _____ knots, the minimums for category “D” will be used.
c. 140
If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, pull the ___________ power circuit breaker.
a. ignition control
b. CVR and FDR
c. start control
d. all of the above
If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, pull the ___________ power circuit breaker.
b. CVR and FDR
Limit personnel on the flight deck to the minimum commensurate with the mission requirements. At no time will this exceed _____ .
a. five
b. seven
c. eight
d. ten
Limit personnel on the flight deck to the minimum commensurate with the mission requirements. At no time will this exceed _____ .
b. seven
Passengers ______________ during initial qualification or re-qualification training (N/A with MEP).
a. are authorized
b. are not authorized
c. under extenuating circumstances may be authorized
d. will be frightened
Passengers ______________ during initial qualification or re-qualification training (N/A with MEP).
b. are not authorized
Minimum runway length for 50% flap flight idle touch-and-go landing is _____ feet.
Minimum runway length for all other touch-and-go landings is _____ feet.
a. 6,000/7,000
b. 7,000/8,000
c. 5,000/6,000
d. 5,000/7,000
Minimum runway length for 50% flap flight idle touch-and-go landing is _____ feet.
Minimum runway length for all other touch-and-go landings is _____ feet.
c. 5,000/6,000
Touch and go landings are only authorized when the crosswind component corrected for RCR is within the ___________ zone for the landing crosswind chart.
a. Caution
b. Recommended
c. Not recommended
d. All of the Above
Touch and go landings are only authorized when the crosswind component corrected for RCR is within the ___________ zone for the landing crosswind chart.
b. Recommended
Maximum gross weight for a no-flap landing is \_\_\_\_\_ lbs. A. 130,000 B. 120,000 C. 110,000 D. 25,000
Maximum gross weight for a no-flap landing is _____ lbs.
B. 120,000
When performing a Stop-and-Go landing, runway remaining for takeoff must be greater than or equal to __________.
a. CFL
b. 4 engine ground run
c. 3 engine minimum field length
d. MFLMETO
When performing a Stop-and-Go landing, runway remaining for takeoff must be greater than or equal to __________.
a. CFL
If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance personnel are not available to clear it, the highest qualified flight engineer on scene may obtain authorization to sign off the Red X from the ___________, in accordance with TO 00-20-1.
a. SQ/CC, SQ/DO, or maintenance officer
b .Home station OG/CC
c. SQ/CC or his designated representative
d. Home station MXG/CC or designated representative
If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance personnel are not available to clear it, the highest qualified flight engineer on scene may obtain authorization to sign off the Red X from the ___________, in accordance with TO 00-20-1.
d. Home station MXG/CC or designated representative
When crewmembers are required to refuel, the flight engineer will act as the __________.
a. Refueling team supervisor
b. Refueling panel operator
c. Fire guard
d. None of the above
When crewmembers are required to refuel, the flight engineer will act as the __________.
a. Refueling team supervisor
Unless servicing JP-4, simultaneous servicing of fuel while loading passengers, cargo, performing maintenance, aircrew members performing inspections, or operating aircraft systems is considered to be a normal fuel servicing operation.
a. True
b. False
Unless servicing JP-4, simultaneous servicing of fuel while loading passengers, cargo, performing maintenance, aircrew members performing inspections, or operating aircraft systems is considered to be a normal fuel servicing operation.
a. True
During normal fuel servicing operations, simultaneous fuel and oxygen servicing is not authorized.
a. True
b. False
During normal fuel servicing operations, simultaneous fuel and oxygen servicing is not authorized.
a. True
When conducting flaps up landings, compute and post VMCA speeds for both configurations; flaps 50% and flaps up (normal boost). For example: VMCA, in ground effect, one engine inoperative - 105/122.
a. True
b. False
When conducting flaps up landings, compute and post VMCA speeds for both configurations; flaps 50% and flaps up (normal boost). For example: VMCA, in ground effect, one engine inoperative - 105/122.
a. True
Minimum TOLD requirements for a termination landing are: Air Minimum Control Speeds, Obstacle Clearance Speed, 3 Engine Climb Speed, 100 & 50% Flap Landing Speeds and Distances, 0% Landing Approach Speed (Night or IMC), and __________.
a. Refusal Speed
b. Ground Minimum Control Speed
c. Torque
d. 3 Eng Ft/NM
Minimum TOLD requirements for a termination landing are: Air Minimum Control Speeds, Obstacle Clearance Speed, 3 Engine Climb Speed, 100 & 50% Flap Landing Speeds and Distances, 0% Landing Approach Speed (Night or IMC), and __________.
d. 3 Eng Ft/NM
The AF IMT 4108 will be completed whenever the navigator completes the __________.
a. AF IMT 4125, Range Control Chart
b. AF IMT 4091, Mission Data
c. AF IMT 4116, C-130 Flight Plan and Record
d. AF IMT 4053, INS Flight Plan and Log
The AF IMT 4108 will be completed whenever the navigator completes the __________.
c. AF IMT 4116, C-130 Flight Plan and Record
Authority to use the HERP is granted by OG/CC/CD for Operations; this authority is documented on the:
a. FRAG
b. SPINS
c. Air Tasking Order
d. Both A and C
Authority to use the HERP is granted by OG/CC/CD for Operations; this authority is documented on the:
d. Both A and C
Aircrews will consider delaying engine start on all departures whenever practical to minimize fuel consumption.
a. True
b. False
Aircrews will consider delaying engine start on all departures whenever practical to minimize fuel consumption.
a. True
If either the pilots’ NVGs, SCNS, pressure altimeter, or radar altimeter fail, climb to MSA until resolving the problem. In addition, climb to MSA to resolve any T.O. 1C130(X)/(X)-1 Section III procedures, commensurate with the tactical situation.
a. True
b. False
If either the pilots’ NVGs, SCNS, pressure altimeter, or radar altimeter fail, climb to MSA until resolving the problem. In addition, climb to MSA to resolve any T.O. 1C130(X)/(X)-1 Section III procedures, commensurate with the tactical situation.
a. True
Airdrops will not be conducted below the following altitudes:
a. Day VMC Drop Altitude
b. Night VMC Drop Altitude
c. IMC Drop Altitude
d. All of the above
Airdrops will not be conducted below the following altitudes:
d. All of the above
Low Altitude Approach maneuvers may be flown on continuation training and operational missions with passengers aboard. In all cases plan to roll out on final at __________ speed no lower than _____ ft _____.
a. threshold/500/AGL
b. approach/150/AGL
c. threshold/500/MSL
d. approach/150/MSL
Low Altitude Approach maneuvers may be flown on continuation training and operational missions with passengers aboard. In all cases plan to roll out on final at __________ speed no lower than _____ ft _____.
b. approach/150/AGL
EROs will not be conducted simultaneously through the __________ door and __________ door.
a. paratroop doors/cargo ramp and door/crew entrance door
b. crew entrance door/any other airplane
c. crew entrance door/paratroop doors/cargo ramp and door
d. EROs won’t be conducted through any door
EROs will not be conducted simultaneously through the __________ door and __________ door.
c. crew entrance door/paratroop doors/cargo ramp and door
During ERO procedures, use __________ and __________ to enhance safety at night as the situation dictates.
a. formation/taxi lights
b. formation/strobe lights
c. landing/taxi lights
d. wing leading edge/taxi lights
During ERO procedures, use __________ and __________ to enhance safety at night as the situation dictates.
d. wing leading edge/taxi lights
When personnel on-load and off-load through the crew entrance door, station a crewmember (normally the loadmaster) on interphone with cord held taut at approximately ______-feet at an angle of _____-degrees from the aircraft axis.
a. 20/45
b. 45/20
c. 50/45
d. 45/50
When personnel on-load and off-load through the crew entrance door, station a crewmember (normally the loadmaster) on interphone with cord held taut at approximately ______-feet at an angle of _____-degrees from the aircraft axis.
a. 20/45
Combat Off-load Method “A” Procedures. A taxiway or ramp at least ______ feet long is required, however, _____ feet is desired to provide a margin of safety.
a. 300/500
b. 500/1000
c. 1000/1500
d. 1500/2000
Combat Off-load Method “A” Procedures. A taxiway or ramp at least ______ feet long is required, however, _____ feet is desired to provide a margin of safety.
b. 500/1000
NVG Airland. Coordinated actions during the final segment of an NVG __________ and _________ are critical.
a. takeoff/landing
b. approach/departure
c. approach/landing
d. takeoff/departure
NVG Airland. Coordinated actions during the final segment of an NVG __________ and _________ are critical.
c. approach/landing
NVG Operations. For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed _____ degrees and the aircraft will not descend below _____ AGL until rolled on final.
a. 30/150’
b. 45/150’
c. 30/300’
d. 45/300’
NVG Operations. For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed _____ degrees and the aircraft will not descend below _____ AGL until rolled on final.
b. 45/150’
NVG Operations. IMC Approaches. The transfer of aircraft control for the landing will be no lower than _____.
a. 300’ AGL
b. 300’MSL
c. 500’ AGL
d. 500’ MSL
NVG Operations. IMC Approaches. The transfer of aircraft control for the landing will be no lower than _____.
a. 300’ AGL
Formations. At no time will aircraft be operated within _____ feet of another aircraft.
a. 300
b. 500
c. 1000
d. 1500
Formations. At no time will aircraft be operated within _____ feet of another aircraft.
b. 500
When flying at night, potential for spatial disorientation increases with:
a. Rapid changes in airspeed
b. Bank angles
c. Changing “G” loads
d. All of the above
When flying at night, potential for spatial disorientation increases with:
d. All of the above
Do not perform touch-and-go landings during formation recoveries unless:
a. you are lead aircraft
b. if all aircraft are clear of the runway
c. you are at least five miles in trail
d. Never
Do not perform touch-and-go landings during formation recoveries unless:
d. Never
Analyze pre-drop gross weight to determine if obstructions can be cleared with __________.
a. one engine inoperative
b. two engines inoperative
c. three engine climb speed
d. obstacle clearance speed
Analyze pre-drop gross weight to determine if obstructions can be cleared with __________.
a. one engine inoperative
Towed Parachutist. The PIC must consider density altitude, aircraft weight, position in formation, or other factors deemed important in determining what flap setting between _____ and _____ percent should be used.
a. 0/50
b. 14/50
c. 50/100
d. 0/100
Towed Parachutist. The PIC must consider density altitude, aircraft weight, position in formation, or other factors deemed important in determining what flap setting between _____ and _____ percent should be used.
c. 50/100
An aircraft or system that has suspected or known biological, chemical, or radiological contamination is maintenance status Alpha______.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
An aircraft or system that has suspected or known biological, chemical, or radiological contamination is maintenance status Alpha______.
c. 4
Aircraft must be able to meet the published climb gradient for the departure runway with all engines operating. If no minimum climb gradient is published, _____ ft/nm to an appropriate IFR altitude will be used.
a. 152
b. 200
c. 252
d. 48
Aircraft must be able to meet the published climb gradient for the departure runway with all engines operating. If no minimum climb gradient is published, _____ ft/nm to an appropriate IFR altitude will be used.
b. 200
__________ is the period of time starting at mission report time and ending immediately after the aircrew completes the final engine shutdown of the day.
a. Flight Duty Period
b. Crew Duty Day
c. Crew Duty Time
d. Flight Duty Day
__________ is the period of time starting at mission report time and ending immediately after the aircrew completes the final engine shutdown of the day.
a. Flight Duty Period
Aircrew should minimize non-essential cockpit conversations and extraneous activities that could interfere with flight duties when operating below __________, during critical phases of flight, during periods of increased workload and during all taxi operations. Exception: N/A during non-critical periods of low-workload in level cruise flight regardless of altitude.
a. 10,000 feet AGL
b. 10,000 feet MSL
c. 18,000 feet AGL
d. 18,000 feet MSL
Aircrew should minimize non-essential cockpit conversations and extraneous activities that could interfere with flight duties when operating below __________, during critical phases of flight, during periods of increased workload and during all taxi operations. Exception: N/A during non-critical periods of low-workload in level cruise flight regardless of altitude.
d. 18,000 feet MSL
Do not takeoff under conditions of freezing rain.
A. True
B. False
Do not takeoff under conditions of freezing rain.
A. True
Do not fly directly above (within _____ feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds.
a. 1000
b. 1500
c. 2000
d. 2500
Do not fly directly above (within _____ feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds.
c. 2000
Flight into areas of forecast or reported __________ is prohibited.
a. severe clear
b. cold weather
c. low per diem
d. severe turbulence
Flight into areas of forecast or reported __________ is prohibited.
d. severe turbulence
Maintain at least _____ separation from heavy rain showers.
a. 5 NMs
b. 7 NMs
c. 10 NMs
d. 20 NMs
Maintain at least _____ separation from heavy rain showers.
a. 5 NMs
If departure is not possible, the aircrew must secure the aircraft to the best of their ability. In no case, will the entire crew leave the aircraft unattended. Crew rest will be subordinate to aircraft security when the airframe may be at risk.
a. True
b. False
If departure is not possible, the aircrew must secure the aircraft to the best of their ability. In no case, will the entire crew leave the aircraft unattended. Crew rest will be subordinate to aircraft security when the airframe may be at risk.
a. True
Crews facing a hijacking threat will notify ground agencies by __________.
a. Transmit an in-the-clear notification of hijacking to ATC
b. set transponder to code 7500
c. Transmit a radio message indicating transponder change to 7500.
d. All of the above
Crews facing a hijacking threat will notify ground agencies by __________.
d. All of the above
The __________ is a tool to notify appropriate authorities of any mishap involving crewmembers or aircraft.
a. AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report
b. AMC IMT 97, AMC In-Flight Emergency and Unusual Occurrence Worksheet
c. AMC IMT 54, Aircraft Commander’s report on Services/Facilities
d. AF IMT 651, Hazardous Air Traffic Report
The __________ is a tool to notify appropriate authorities of any mishap involving crewmembers or aircraft.
b. AMC IMT 97, AMC In-Flight Emergency and Unusual Occurrence Worksheet
This is a closed-loop system of communication designed to significantly reduce typical automation selection errors.
a. Crew Resource Management (CRM)
b. Verbalize, Verify, and Monitor (VVM)
c. Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)
d. Human Error Redundency Efforts (HERE)
This is a closed-loop system of communication designed to significantly reduce typical automation selection errors.
b. Verbalize, Verify, and Monitor (VVM)
Any crewmember seeing a deviation of _____ feet altitude or _____ knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF.
a. 50/5
b. 100/10
c. 200/10
d. 200/20
Any crewmember seeing a deviation of _____ feet altitude or _____ knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF.
b. 100/10
The stabilization point for precision approaches is at _______ feet above Threshold Elevation (THRE). For all other approaches (except tactical approaches), the stabilization point is at ______ feet above THRE unless otherwise briefed by the PF.
a. 500/300
b. 300/100
c. 500/100
d. 1000/300
The stabilization point for precision approaches is at _______ feet above Threshold Elevation (THRE). For all other approaches (except tactical approaches), the stabilization point is at ______ feet above THRE unless otherwise briefed by the PF.
d. 1000/300
At the briefed stabilization point, the _____ will state the altitude (AGL) and announce “stable” or “go-around”.
a. PF
b. PM
c. Navigator
d. Any crewmember
At the briefed stabilization point, the _____ will state the altitude (AGL) and announce “stable” or “go-around”.
b. PM
It is imperative for aircrews to review the airfield environment. Identify key features such as:
a. Approach light type
b. Airfield lighting
c. Geographic layout/configuration of runways, taxiways, ramps
d. All of the above
It is imperative for aircrews to review the airfield environment. Identify key features such as:
d. All of the above
IWP in Mountainous Terrain. Carefully consider IWP while operating in or around mountainous terrain. Airspeed is of primary concern. Crews should calculate and post _______ (flaps up) or ______ (flaps 50 percent) speeds to achieve the best climb rate or best climb angle.
a. four-engine climb, obstacle clearance
b. stall speed, take-off
c. three-engine climb, maximum effort take-off speed
d. rotation, air minimum control
IWP in Mountainous Terrain. Carefully consider IWP while operating in or around mountainous terrain. Airspeed is of primary concern. Crews should calculate and post _______ (flaps up) or ______ (flaps 50 percent) speeds to achieve the best climb rate or best climb angle.
a. four-engine climb, obstacle clearance
Aircrew members will carry helmets on the following missions:
A. All missions
B. All off-station missions
C. All Local Tac missions
D. All high altitude airdrop missions.
Aircrew members will carry helmets on the following missions:
A. All missions
The liquid oxygen system will have at least _____ liters of oxygen prior to going OCONUS?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
The liquid oxygen system will have at least _____ liters of oxygen prior to going OCONUS?
D. 20
When carrying flares, the divert airport order of priority is:
A. Civilian, Joint-Use, NATO, US Mil
B. Joint-Use, NATO, US Mil, Civilian
C. US Mil, NATO, Joint-Use, Civilian
D. US Mil, Joint-Use, NATO, Civilian
When carrying flares, the divert airport order of priority is:
C. US Mil, NATO, Joint-Use, Civilian
After flight, NVGs will be ______.
A. Left in the your helmet bag
B. Placed in the bin chute in the AFE locker room
C. Placed on the Table in the AFE locker room
D. Collected by the SOF
After flight, NVGs will be ______.
B. Placed in the bin chute in the AFE locker room
According to our Squadron Standards, if a dry pass is planned, the doors should remain closed.
A. True
B. False
According to our Squadron Standards, if a dry pass is planned, the doors should remain closed.
A. True
All crew members are required to train with a frequency not to exceed _____ .
A. 12 months
B. 24 months
C. 48 months
D. 60 months
All crew members are required to train with a frequency not to exceed _____ .
B. 24 months
Aircraft commanders should consider _____ when deciding if a mission should continue after a bird strike.
A. Size and number of birds hit
B. engine indications
C. possible airframe damage
D. All of the above
Aircraft commanders should consider _____ when deciding if a mission should continue after a bird strike.
D. All of the above
Individual crewmembers are expected to speak up when they are _______, ______ or _______.
A. unsure
B. uncomfortable
C. know that something is wrong
D. All of the above
Individual crewmembers are expected to speak up when they are _______, ______ or _______.
D. All of the above
Surface wind limitations for actual LCLA training load airdrops is _____.
A. 13 knots
B. 15 knots
C. 17 knots
D. 25 knots
Surface wind limitations for actual LCLA training load airdrops is _____.
C. 17 knots
For ANG missions, the approval authority for extending the maximum flight duty period by 2 hours due to unplanned mission delays is ____.
A. Pilot-in-Command
B. SQ / DO
C. SQ / CC
D. OG / CC
For ANG missions, the approval authority for extending the maximum flight duty period by 2 hours due to unplanned mission delays is ____.
A. Pilot-in-Command
Minimum Lox requirements for local area missions is __________.
A. 10 Liters
B. ETP (Equal Time Point)
C. 5 Liters
D. 20 Liters
Minimum Lox requirements for local area missions is __________.
A. 10 Liters
Stop and Go Landings are________________
A. Not authorized at Peoria.
B. Only allowed with an IP at the controls.
C. Only allowed with FCF crews.
D. Only approved by the OG/CC during certain upgrade training.
Stop and Go Landings are________________
D. Only approved by the OG/CC during certain upgrade training.
During cold weather procedures the Flight Engineer will wait to up-speed the engine until the oil temp has reached _____________________________.
A. 10 Degrees F
B. 10 Degrees C
C. 0 Degrees F
D. 40 Degrees C
During cold weather procedures the Flight Engineer will wait to up-speed the engine until the oil temp has reached _____________________________.
B. 10 Degrees C
For all training/proficiency assault take-offs the crew will simulate a maximum of a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. 100’ Obstacle B. 35’ Obstacle C. 50’ Obstacle D. 10’ Obstacle
For all training/proficiency assault take-offs the crew will simulate a maximum of a ________.
C. 50’ Obstacle
During Cross Country sorties the Flight Engineer will at a minimum ____________.
A. Ensure External Power is off the Aircraft.
B. Padlock and pin all overhead hatches and doors.
C. Secure the aircraft with the padlock.
D. Both A and C.
During Cross Country sorties the Flight Engineer will at a minimum ____________.
D. Both A and C.
