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C-12C > C-12C/D Pilot/WSO Closed Feb 2022 > Flashcards

C-12C/D Pilot/WSO Closed Feb 2022 Flashcards

1
Q

1 A red annunciator will extinguish:

A. when the indicated fault is corrected.
B. when the Master Warning flasher is pressed.
C. when the RESET button is depressed.
D. when the TEST button is depressed.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-14A]

A

when the indicated fault is corrected.

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2
Q

2 The red ALT WARN annunciator will illuminate when the cabin altitude exceeds:

A.10,000 feet.
B.11,500 feet.
C.12,500 feet.
D.13,000 feet.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-15 (F), 1-64, 3-6 (F)]

A

12,500 feet

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3
Q

3 The yellow #1/#2 NAC LOW annunciators illuminate when:

A. the corresponding engine has 20 minutes (30 minutes for C-12D) fuel remaining at sea level, normal cruise power consumption rate.
B. the corresponding engine nacelle tank has less than 265 pounds of fuel.
C. the primary boost pump fails.
D. the stand-by boost pump is in operation.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-15 (F)]

A

the corresponding engine has 20 minutes (30 minutes for C-12D) fuel remaining at sea level, normal cruise power consumption rate.

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4
Q

4 When the #1 propeller is selected to FEATHER during an Engines Running On/Offload (ERO), if the propeller RPM cannot be maintained below 450:

A. on/offload time with the propeller feathered is limited to two minutes.
B. the engine must be shut down during on/offload.
C. an entry will be made in the AFTO 781 noting the length of time in feather.
D. advance power on the #1 engine to 70% N1.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-36 (C)]

A

the engine must be shut down during on/offload.

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5
Q

5 Moving the power levers into reverse without the engines running will damage the reversing linkage mechanisms.

A.TRUE
B.FALSE
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-28 (C)]

A

TRUE

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6
Q

6 Which of the following is a function of the electric standby boost pump?

A.It functions as a backup pump for use in the event of primary boost pump failure.
B.It is used with aviation gas in flights above 20,000 feet.
C.It is used in crossfeed operation.
D.all of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-31]

A

all of the above

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7
Q

7 The hot battery bus check tests electrical continuity to which fuel system items?

A.firewall valves only
B.standby boost pumps only
C.standby boost pumps and firewall valves
D.firewall valves, standby boost pumps, and crossfeed valve
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-31/32, 2-4 (N)]

A

standby boost pumps and firewall valves

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8
Q

8 If the #2 NO FUEL XFR annunciator illuminates in flight when there is fuel in the right auxiliary tank, and the pilot places the right AUX transfer switch to override:

A. the #2 NO FUEL XFR annunciator will extinguish if the motive flow valve has opened and no other fault exists.
B. the #2 NO FUEL XFR annunciator should always extinguish within 30 to 60 seconds.
C. the #2 NO FUEL XFR annunciator should extinguish, but illuminate again when the right Aux tank becomes empty.
D. the question is wrong - The #2 NO FUEL XFR annunciator will not illuminate if the RIGHT AUX tank contains fuel.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-32, 3-7 (F)]

A

the #2 NO FUEL XFR annunciator will extinguish if the motive flow valve has opened and no other fault exists.

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9
Q

9 Which of the following items are on the Hot Battery Bus?

A. firewall shut-off valves, standby boost pumps, cabin lights, & fire extinguishers (squibs)
B. firewall shut-off valves, standby boost pumps, cabin lights, & fire detectors
C. firewall shut-off valves, standby boost pumps, & emergency lighting system
D. firewall shut-off valves, high pressure pump, cabin lights, & fire extinguishers (squibs)
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-40, 1-42 (F)]

A

firewall shut-off valves, standby boost pumps, cabin lights, & fire extinguishers (squibs)

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10
Q

10 Illumination of the BATTERY CHARGE annunciator indicates:

A. the battery is charging at an excessive rate.
B. a normal condition after a battery start.
C. that the battery has received a charge of 6 volts for over 7 seconds.
D. b and c above are correct
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-40]

A

a normal condition after a battery start.

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11
Q

11 The battery switch must be ___ to close the external power relay to allow external power into the aircraft.

A. OFF
B. ON
C. in either the OFF or ON position
D. EXT PWR
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-41, 1-208]

A

ON

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12
Q

12 The landing gear warning horn will sound under the following conditions:

A. either or both power levers are retarded to a position corresponding to 79-81% N1 with the gear not down and locked.
B. moving the landing gear warning horn test switch on the copilot’s subpanel to the momentary LANDING GEAR WARN TEST position.
C. with flaps set beyond approach and the gear retracted, regardless of the power lever(s) position.
D. all of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-52]

A

all of the above

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13
Q

13 An alternate static air source is provided for:

A. the pilot’s instruments only.
B. the copilot’s instruments only.
C. both the pilot and copilot’s instruments.
D. ground operation only.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-53, 3-41]

A

the pilot’s instruments only.

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14
Q

14 Should an engine fail on takeoff below 117 KIAS accompanied by a failure of the autofeather system, it may be necessary to:

A. add power on the good engine to cause the autofeather system to activate.
B. reduce power on the operating engine to maintain directional control and reduce pitch as required to maintain airspeed.
C. use stall recovery procedures.
D. immediately lower the landing gear and select landing flaps.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-14 (W)]

A

reduce power on the operating engine to maintain directional control and reduce pitch as required to maintain airspeed.

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15
Q

15 Moving the pressure switch up to the dump position in flight:

A. shuts off bleed air input and dumps cabin pressure.
B. opens the safety valve, de-energizes the electromagnet holding the ambient air flapper closed, but does not affect bleed air input.
C. should be done before landing.
D. opens the outflow and safety valves to dump cabin pressure.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-61, 1-64, 1-65]

A

opens the safety valve, de-energizes the electromagnet holding the ambient air flapper closed, but does not affect bleed air input.

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16
Q

16 Severe yaw may be encountered if an engine fails in flight. If this occurs outside the takeoff phase, the pilot should:

A. place the inoperative engine power lever to IDLE.
B. immediately manually feather the propeller on the inoperative engine.
C. advance both power levers above 90% N1 position to activate an armed autofeather system.
D. either B or C.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-15(W, N)]

A

either B or C.

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17
Q

17 When the propeller deice system is operated manually, the prop ammeter reads:

A. 18 - 24 amperes.
B. 14 - 18 amperes.
C. 6 amperes, alternating every 30 seconds
D. 0 amperes.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-77]

A

0 amperes.

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18
Q

18 The PED OVERTEMP annunciator indicates temperature within the center pedestal is ____ degrees Celsius or greater. Center pedestal temperatures in excess of____ degrees Celsius may cause failure and irreparable damage to the Flight Management System.

A. 40, 35
B. 50, 51
C. 51, 50
D. +37 ISA, 50
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-84 (C)]

A

51, 50

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19
Q

19 The V/UHF transceiver provides which of the following features:

A. 8.33 kHz channel spacing in the VHF band.
B. AM or FM modulation in plain mode.
C. simultaneous reception of 121.5 (VHF) or 243.0 (UHF) emergency frequency in addition to the selected frequency.
D. all of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-98A]

A

all of the above

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20
Q

20 When aircraft pitch angle exceeds______degrees, an unusual attitude display on the PFD appears as red chevrons pointing to the horizon line. Zenith or nadirsymbols appear at the______degree pitch markings.

A. 40, 90
B. 40, 100
C. 35, 90
D. 45, 100
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-118]

A

40, 90

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21
Q

21 If a bus feeder circuit breaker opens in flight:

A. it is essential and may be reset once.
B. a short is indicated.
C. do not reset in flight.
D. both B and C
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-23]

A

both B and C

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22
Q

22 Information received from other aircraft enables the TCAS to determine range, relative bearing and relative altitude to the host aircraft. Using this information, TCASpredicts flight paths and:

A. issues visual and aural warnings if aircraft will pass within 500 feet.
B. sends duplicate TA or RA warning to both aircraft and ATC.
C. estimates the separation at the Closest Point of Approach (CPA) to determine if a conflict exists.
D. all of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-144G]

A

estimates the separation at the Closest Point of Approach (CPA) to determine if a conflict exists.

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23
Q

23 The T2CAS terrain database includes man-made obstacles.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-146A (W)]

A

False

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24
Q

24 During an approach to an airfield not in the terrain database, in order to avoid continuous terrain warnings, the crew must:

A. select FLAP OVRD on the TAWS Control Panel.
B. select TERR INHIBIT on the TAWS Control Panel.
C. pull the TAWS circuit breaker.
D. pull the LDN GEAR Control circuit breaker.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-147]

A

select TERR INHIBIT on the TAWS Control Panel.

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25
Q

25 The pilot will receive an aural annunciator “BANK ANGLE” when the aircraft exceeds ___ degrees below 150 feet AGL.

A. 15 degrees in a single engine scenario
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. linear limit from 10 degrees (30’ AGL) to 40 degrees (150’ AGL)
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-151 (F)]

A

linear limit from 10 degrees (30’ AGL) to 40 degrees (150’ AGL)

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26
Q

26 When engaging the Yaw Damper and/or Autopilot, do not push the YAW ENG and AP ENG buttons on the Autopilot Panel in rapid succession. If both the YAW ENGand the AP ENG buttons are being pushed when engaging the system, a slight pause between pushes allows the pre-engage tests to be completed and results in anormal engagement.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-197 (N)]

A

True

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27
Q

27 A bleed air leak could result in a decrease in ________ and an increase in _______.

A. Engine torque, TGT
B. Engine torque, N1
C. Engine temperature, N1
D. Engine RPM, TGT
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-27 (W)]

A

Engine torque, TGT

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28
Q

28 Do not operate the weather radar system during aircraft refueling or during refueling operations within 75 feet (23 meters).

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-201 (W)]

A

False

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29
Q

29 In the event of an emergency, the ESIS battery can be completely separate from the aircraft electrical system and be utilized to power the components on theAvionics Essential Bus for a minimum of ___ minutes.

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 60
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-202]

A

30

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30
Q

30 Do not fill auxiliary tanks unless main tanks are full.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-211 (C)]

A

true

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31
Q

31 When testing emergency lights, a dim light indicates:

A. some of the light bulbs are burned out.
B. discharged aircraft battery.
C. weak battery pack.
D. this is normal with battery switch in OFF position.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-3]

A

weak battery pack.

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32
Q

32 Regarding the FMS units:

A. they will turn on when power is applied to the aircraft and the Avionics Master Switch is turned ON.
B. they should be turned off using the Control Display Units (CDU) prior to turning the Avionics Master Switch OFF or removing power from the aircraft.
C. the BIT test mode will be bypassed if FMS is improperly shut down.
D. both A and B are correct.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-4B (N)]

A

both A and B are correct.

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33
Q

33 With loss of DC power, all instruments, with the exception of those on the __________, will be inoperative.

A. Avionics Essential Bus
B. Avionics Bus #1
C. Avionics Bus #2
D. Hot Battery Bus
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-20 (W)]

A

Avionics Essential Bus

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34
Q

34 If a cold oil check indicates more than ____ low, run the engine for two minutes.

A. 2 quarts
B. 3 quarts
C. 4 quarts
D. 3 gallons
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-4C (N), 2-6 (N)]

A

3 quarts

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35
Q

35 Flight crew or maintenance will open the engine accessory compartment and visually
inspect the aft section for leaks and the inlet area for foreign objects prior tofirst flight of the day.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-6 (N)]

A

True

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36
Q

36 The key lock (for the emergency exit) must be unlocked and removed prior to flight, to allow removal of the door from the outside in the event of an emergency.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-8 (W)]

A

True

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37
Q

37 During a one engine-inoperative landing, flaps should not be lowered fully:

A. until the mains touch the ground.
B. unless runway length is critical.
C. until landing is assured.
D. both B and C
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-32 (W)

A

both B and C

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38
Q

38 During a ground start of the right engine, the #2 IGN ON light should illuminate:

A. at 10% N1 RPM.
B. when the condition lever is moved to LOW idle.
C. at a stabilized 12% N1.
D. when the start switch is moved to the ignition and engine start position.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-10]

A

when the start switch is moved to the ignition and engine start position.

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39
Q

39 On engine start, if no rise in TGT occurs within 10 seconds of introducing fuel, you should place the CONDITION Lever to FUEL CUTOFF and:

A. execute the ABORT START Checklist if fire is observed or suspected.
B. wait 60 seconds, then proceed with engine clearing procedures.
C. continue to motor engine to starter limitation.
D. both A and C
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-10 (C)]

A

continue to motor engine to starter limitation.

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40
Q

40 During engine start, if fire is observed or suspected, you should:

A. immediately terminate the start by pulling the Fire Handle.
B. accomplish the ABORT START checklist.
C. accomplish the ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND checklist.
D. immediately push the corresponding FIRE EXT switch.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-10 (C)]

A

accomplish the ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND checklist.

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41
Q

41 When performing an EXTERNAL POWER START, the pilot will start the #1 (Left) engine first, then allow ground personnel to disconnect the GPU before starting the#2 (Right) engine using the battery and generator assist.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-10A]

A

True

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42
Q

42 During engine start, the appropriate NO FUEL XFR light should extinguish within ________ seconds.

A. 20 - 50
B. 20 - 60
C. 30 - 50
D. 30 - 60
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-10 (N), 2-10B (N)]

A

30 - 50

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43
Q

43 If the electric elevator trim system moves the trim wheel with only one rocker trim switch operated:

A. the airplane is grounded for maintenance.
B. continue electric trim operation, but write it up.
C. it is functioning normally.
D. the elevator trim switch must be turned off.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-15 (W)]

A

the elevator trim switch must be turned off.

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44
Q

44 Do not takeoff if the fuel quantity gages indicate yellow arc or less than _____ pounds of fuel in each main tank.

A. 250
B. 265
C. 285
D. 300
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-17 (W), 5-7, 5-10 (F)]

A

265

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45
Q

45 Turning radius is predicated on:

A. differential power.
B. whether or not high float gear is installed.
C. partial braking.
D. both A and C
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-18 (F)]

A

both A and C

46
Q

46 The ENGINE RUNUP checklist may be omitted on subsequent sameday sorties provided no maintenance was performed:

A. on the engines
B. on the engine controls
C. inside the engine nacelles
D. all of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-19]

A

all of the above

47
Q

47 Pitot heat, stall warning heat, and fuel vent heat will be on for all flights.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-21]

A

True

48
Q

48 If Minimum Takeoff Power is not achieved by ____KIAS, takeoff should be aborted.

A. 65
B. 75
C. 80
D. V1
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-21]

A

65

49
Q

49 During an obstacle clearance climb with both engines operating, maintaining V2 can result in excessive pitch angles. Do not normally exceed _____ degrees noseup.

A. 10
B. 12.5
C. 15
D. 17.5
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-24 (C)]

A

15

50
Q

50 The Yaw Damper is required for:

A. all flight above 17,000 feet.
B. all single engine operations at any altitude.
C. anytime rudder boost is inoperative.
D. none of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 5-20 (F)]

A

none of the above

51
Q

51 Minimum Prop RPM (N2) in Low Idle is ______. Prop RPM between ____ and ____ is permissible only with the propeller in FEATHER.

A. 1150; 0; 450
B. 450; 0; 450
C. 1600; 450; 1150
D. 1200; 450; 1150
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-3 (F, N)]

A

1150; 0; 450

52
Q

52 When receiving a “CAUTION - TERRAIN” aural warning, the PF will verbally acknowledge the alert, simultaneously disengage the autopilot and:

A. arrest any descent.
B. set maximum power while rolling wings level and pulling back on the yoke to V2.
C. initiating a turn as directed by the Warning Display on the ND.
D. request radar vectors from ATC to avoid terrain.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-26]

A

arrest any descent.

53
Q

53 During a go-around, raising the flaps from full down to up may cause the aircraft to stall.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-28C (W)]

A

True

54
Q

54 Both Flight Management Systems (FMS) are required for operation in:

A. remote or oceanic areas.
B. the National Airspace System (NAS).
C. polar regions requiring grid navigation.
D. both FMS systems are always required.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-22 (F)]

A

remote or oceanic areas.

55
Q

55 All of the below statements are correct regarding Reference Ground Speed (RGS), except:

A. pilots shall consider calculating RGS when the potential for wind shear exists.
B. the need to maintain 15 knots or greater above approach IAS may indicate severe wind shear.
C. an approach in severe wind shear may be attempted as long as pilot maintains RGS.
D. below 500 feet, if indicated ground speed differs more than 20 knots from RGS, the approach should be discontinued.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-28A, 2-28A (W)]

A

an approach in severe wind shear may be attempted as long as pilot maintains RGS.

56
Q

56 After landing, the propellers should be moved out of reverse above _____KIAS.

A. 60
B. 50
C. 40
D. when slowed to taxi speed.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-31]

A

40

57
Q

57 The maximum demonstrated crosswind is:

A. 20 KTS.
B. 25 KTS.
C. 30 KTS.
D. RCR dependent.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-32 (C), 5-12]

A

25 KTS.

58
Q

58 If sustained combustion is observed during engine shutdown:

A. proceed immediately to the ENGINE CLEARING procedure.
B. proceed immediately to the ENGINE FIRE ON GROUND checklist.
C. pull the ignition and engine start switch circuit breaker for the affected engine.
D. none of the above.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [2-38A (C)]

A

proceed immediately to the ENGINE FIRE ON GROUND checklist.

59
Q

59 If accomplishing ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND checklist, motor the engine _______.

A. for a minimum of 15 seconds up to 40 seconds
B. if TGT is above 650C
C. if Fuel Pressure Light is illuminated
D. If FIRE light in the handle is not illuminated but TGT is high, or smoke or fire is evident in the exhaust stacks
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-11 (C)]

A

If FIRE light in the handle is not illuminated but
TGT is high, or smoke or fire is evident in the
exhaust stacks

60
Q

60 If an unscheduled torque increase is identified during take-off roll and a reject is executed, perform: CONDITION levers – “FUEL CUTOFF” prior to reducing power.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-13 (C)]

A

True

61
Q

61 If an engine fails after V1 speed, holding 3 to 5 degrees of bank and a half ball width toward the operating engine will assist directional control and aircraftperformance.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-14 (N)]

A

True

62
Q

62 During takeoff, you lose an engine immediately after liftoff. Perform the BOLD FACE and:

A. maintain VMCA until gear and flaps are up, then maintain VYSE until clearing obstacle.
B. climb at VYSE until clear of obstacles, then accelerate and raise the flaps.
C. climb at V2 until clear of obstacles, then accelerate to VYSE to raise the flaps.
D. raise the flaps, climbing at V2 until clear of obstacles and then normal climb speeds.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-15]

A

climb at V2 until clear of obstacles, then accelerate to VYSE to raise the flaps.

63
Q

63 Engine shut-down in flight is required for:

A. engine fire or failure.
B. illumination of magnetic CHIP DET annunciator light
C. unscheduled engine torque increase (loss of power lever control).
D. all of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-15 (N)]

A

all of the above

64
Q

64 The Glide airspeed with landing gear retracted and flaps up is:

A. 115 KIAS.
B. 121 KIAS.
C. 125 KIAS.
D. 135 KIAS.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-16, 3-17 (F)]

A

135 KIAS

65
Q

65 Oil pressure outside of the Section V limits requires:

A. no power changes the remainder of the flight until landing.
B. engine shutdown.
C. write-up in 781’s so maintenance can add oil.
D. monitoring for an Oil Temp rise.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-18, 5-3 (F)]

A

engine shutdown.

66
Q

66 If any engine exceedance is recorded, land as soon as practical. Prior to subsequent flight, the details of the exceedance must be determined from the recordingsystem and the aircraft must be cleared for flight by an appropriate maintenance authority.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-18]

A

True

67
Q

67 If gray smoke is observed inside the pressure vessel that is irritating to the nose and eyes:

A. first step is to turn off the MASTER SWITCH (battery and generator switches).
B. accomplish the CABIN FIRE, SMOKE OR FUMES ELIMINATION checklist.
C. immediately place cabin dump switch to DUMP.
D. call for the ELECTRICAL SMOKE OR FIRE checklist.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-19]

A

accomplish the CABIN FIRE, SMOKE OR FUMES ELIMINATION checklist.

68
Q

68 With loss of _____ power, the aircraft will depressurize.

A. AC
B. DC
C. emergency
D. hydraulic
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-21 (W)]

A

DC

69
Q

69 If an essential circuit breaker opens in flight:

A. be alert for possible generator malfunctions.
B. it may be reset once.
C. it may not be reset.
D. hold the circuit breaker in for 30 seconds

A

it may be reset once.

70
Q

70 Accomplish the battery condition check when the following occurs:

A. battery charge annunciator illuminates in flight when not expected.
B. every time the battery charge annunciator is illuminated.
C. battery charge annunciator has been illuminated longer than 30 minutes since engine start.
D. both A and C
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-23]

A

both A and C

71
Q

71 In the event of an unscheduled electric elevator trim application:

A fully depress the red AP/YD TRIM DSC button.
B. attempt to reset the trim by reactivating electric trim system.
C. grab the trim wheel to stop elevator trim system.
D. both A and B are correct.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-24]

A

fully depress the red AP/YD TRIM DSC button.

72
Q

72 If a loss of pressurization occurs while cruising at 12,000 Feet, you must call for OXYGEN - 100% AND ON (ALL), and accomplish the Loss of Pressurizationchecklist.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-26]

A

False

73
Q

73 In an emergency descent with the flaps at 40% and the landing gear down, the maximum speed is:

A. 163 KIAS.
B. 181 KIAS.
C. 200 KIAS.
D. 259 KIAS.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-12]

A

181 KIAS.

74
Q

74 With both bleed air switches positioned to the ENVIRO-OFF position:

A. the aircraft will depressurize and L BL AIR OFF and R BL AIR OFF lights will illuminate.
B. the aircraft will depressurize and no lights will illuminate.
C. the aircraft will depressurize and L BL AIR FAIL and R BL AIR FAIL lights will illuminate.
D. the aircraft will depressurize because the outflow and safety valves will open.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [1-61, 2-19, 3-26 (C)]

A

the aircraft will depressurize and L BL AIR OFF and R BL AIR OFF lights will illuminate.

75
Q

75 Illumination of a red BL AIR FAIL annunciator indicates:

A. simultaneous operation of windshield anti-ice and brake de-ice.
B. excessive P3 pressure in corresponding pneumatic system.
C. a possible ruptured bleed air line aft of the engine firewall.
D. an unsafe increase in cabin altitude.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-27 (W)]

A

a possible ruptured bleed air line aft of the engine firewall.

76
Q

76 With an illumination of the DUCT OVERTEMP annunciator, the over temperature condition is considered corrected if the light extinguishes.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-28 (N)]

A

True

77
Q

77 If you fail to get 3 green lights when selecting the gear down position with the gear handle you should:

A. Land normally if annunciator test indicates a burnt out bulb.
B. refer to the LANDING WITH UNSAFE LANDING GEAR Checklist.
C. cycle the landing gear up, then down again.
D. refer to the UNSAFE LANDING GEAR INDICATION Checklist.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-29]

A

refer to the UNSAFE LANDING GEAR INDICATION Checklist.

78
Q

78 During an emergency landing gear manual extension:

A. stow the pump handle and reset associated CBs once gear is down and locked.
B. pump the extension lever only until a very slight increase in resistance is encountered.
C. do not continue pumping after receiving safe gear down indications.
D. none of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [3-29 (C)]

A

do not continue pumping after receiving safe gear down indications.

79
Q

79 Using Propellers in REVERSE (beta) range during taxi is prohibited due to
blade erosion.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 1-28 (C)

A

False

80
Q

80 Maximum generator load is limited to ____ % for flight and _____ % during ground operations.

A. 100, 85
B. 100, 75
C. 85, 100
D. 85, 75
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-2]

A

100, 85

81
Q

81 VMCA with flaps up is _____ KIAS. With one engine at idle or inoperative and propeller windmilling, VMCA may be as high as _____ KIAS.

A. 86; 91
B. 86; 115
C. 91; 115
D. 104; 121
Reference: 1C-12A-1 [5-12(W), 3-41 (W)]

A

91; 115

82
Q

82 When using maximum reverse power and full increase RPM, you would expect a maximum N2 RPM of:

A. 1830.
B. 1900.
C. 2000.
D. 2200.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-3 (F)]

A

1900

83
Q

83 Intentional one-engine inoperative speed (VSSE) is _____ KIAS.

A. 96
B. 104
C. 117
D. 121
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-12]

A

117

84
Q

84 Normal oil pressure with N1 above 72% up to 21,000 feet is:

A. 0-99 PSI
B. 60-100 PSI
C. 60-135 PSI
D. 105-135 PSI
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-3 (F)]

A

105-135 PSI

85
Q

85 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding fuel management?

A. Crossfeeding of fuel is permitted only when both engines are operating.
B. Do not takeoff if fuel quantity gauges indicate in yellow arc or less than 265 pounds in each main.
C. Do not fly the aircraft with fuel in the auxiliary tanks unless main tanks are full.
D. Do not operate an electric boost pump with less than 30 gallons in the corresponding main tank.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-7]

A

Crossfeeding of fuel is permitted only when both engines are operating.

86
Q

86 The starter duty cycle limits are:

A. 40 sec on - 60 sec off; 40 sec on - 60 sec off; 40 sec on - 60 sec off.
B. 40 sec on - 60 sec off; 40 sec on - 60 sec off; 40 sec on - 30 min off.
C. 40 sec on - 30 sec off; 40 sec on - 30 sec off; 40 sec on - 60 min off.
D. none of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-8]

A

40 sec on - 60 sec off;
40 sec on - 60 sec off;
40 sec on - 30 min off.

87
Q

87 Stabilized ground operation of the propeller between 450 and 1150 RPM is prohibited. Below 450 RPM, the propeller must be feathered.

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-4 [5-8]

A

True

88
Q

88 Propeller speeds above 2,000 RPM indicate failure of the primary governor. Torque is limited to ______ for sustained operation between 2,000 RPM and 2,080RPM.

A. 25%
B. 49%
C. 81%
D. 101.5%
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-8]

A

81%

89
Q

89 The minimum limit (Red radial) on the oil pressure gauge is:

A. 0 PSI.
B. 60 PSI.
C. 85 PSI.
D. 105 PSI.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-10]

A

60 PSI.

90
Q

90 The recommended Spin Recovery technique is to simultaneously:

A. apply full rudder opposite the spin and advance the power to maximum continuous to break the stall
B. rapidly move the control column full forward, neutralize ailerons, apply full rudder opposite the direction of the spin and reduce power on both engines to idle
C. apply full aileron against the spin and advance the power to maximum allowable
D. Use max power and full aft control to

Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [6-5]

A

rapidly move the control column full forward, neutralize ailerons, apply full rudder opposite the direction of the spin and reduce power on both engines to idle

91
Q

91 The turbulent air penetration speed and maximum design maneuvering airspeeds are:

A. 170 KIAS and 200 KIAS
B. 140 KIAS and 170 KIAS
C. 170 KIAS and 181 KIAS
D. They are the same– 170 KIAS
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-12(C), 6-1, 7-2B]

A

170 KIAS and 181 KIAS

92
Q

92 The red line on the airspeed indicator marked VMCA shows the:

A. stalling speed with full flaps (71 KIAS).
B. air minimum single engine control speed (91 KIAS).
C. one engine inoperative best rate of climb speed (121 KIAS).
D. maximum operating speed (259 KIAS).
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-11 (F)]

A

air minimum single engine control speed (91 KIAS).

93
Q

93 Minimum altitude for autopilot/yaw damper operation after takeoff or go-around is _____ AGL, while minimum altitude for autopilot engagement in cruise is ______AGL.

A. 400 ft, 1000 ft
B. 450 ft, 1000 ft
C. 400 ft, 1500 ft
D. 450 ft, 3000 ft
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-12A]

A

450 ft, 1000 ft

94
Q

94 Oxygen requirements are:

A. One mask per crew member and one mask per passenger with a 10 minute supply of oxygen when operating above 13,000 feet to 25,000 feet.
B. One mask per occupant coupled to the outlet and immediately available with a 10 minute supply of oxygen for each occupant when operating above 25,000 feet.
C. This is a normal category aircraft. PBEs and EPOS provide required oxygen.
D. Both A and B are correct
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-15]

A

Both A and B are correct

95
Q

95 The maximum flight load factor limits with the flaps up are:

A. 1.27 positive g’s and 2.00 negative g’s.
B. 2.00 positive g’s and 1.27 negative g’s
C. 3.17 positive g’s and 1.27 negative g’s.
D. 3.17 positive g’s and 2.00 negative g’s.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-12]

A

3.17 positive g’s and 1.27 negative g’s.

96
Q

96 The normal category maximum zero fuel weight of the C-12 C/D is ____ lbs.

A. 10,400.
B. 11,000.
C. 12,500.
D. 14,000.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-12]

A

10,400

97
Q

97 The maximum weight on the airstair door on the C-12C/D is ____ lbs.

A. 170
B. 250
C. 270
D. 300
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [5-12A]

A

300

98
Q

98 Recommended actions for turbulent air/storm penetration include:

A. maintain 170 KIAS.
B. stow loose gear and fasten harnesses/seat belts.
C. make aircraft attitude changes with minimum control pressures.
D. all of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [7-2B,7-2B (C)]

A

all of the above

99
Q

99 A minimum airspeed of _____ KTS should be maintained during icing conditions to prevent ice accumulation on unprotected surfaces of the wing.

A. 121
B. 140
C. 160
D. 170
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [7-8]

A

140

100
Q

100 The ice vanes shall be extended for operations in ambient temperatures of _____ degrees C or below in visible moisture.

A. -5 degrees C (+23 degrees F)
B. 0 degrees C (+32 degrees F)
C. +5 degrees C (+41 degrees F)
D. +15 degrees C (+59 degrees F)
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1 [7-8]

A

+5 degrees C (+41 degrees F)

101
Q

AFE

101 In the C-12C, passenger oxygen masks must be coupled to the outlet if flight above ____ is anticipated.

A. 10,000 ft
B. 13,000 ft
C. 17,000 ft
D. 25,000 ft
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1: [2-8, 5-15]

A

25,000 ft

102
Q

AFE

102 The passenger seats have weight limits. Occupants must not exceed ____ in the aft facing position and ____ in the forward facing position.

A. 170 lbs; 250 lbs
B. 250 lbs; 170 lbs
C. 250 lbs; 250 lbs
D. 300 lbs; 250 lbs
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1: [2-9 (N), 5-12A, 5-17]

A

170 lbs; 250 lbs

103
Q

AFE

103 The aircraft oxygen supply should provide at least ____ minutes of oxygen to each crew member and passenger.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1: [5-15]

A

10

104
Q

AFE

104 To enable the passenger oxygen outlets pull the ______.

A. SYSTEM - PULL ON - CREW READY oxygen knob
B. CABIN - PULL ON - PASS READY oxygen knob
C. green apple
D. Both A and B must be on.
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1: [1-69, 2-8]

A

Both A and B must be on.

105
Q

AFE

105 Always use the cabin entrance door for an Emergency Ground Egress

A. True
B. False
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1: [3-12 (W)]

A

False

106
Q

AFE

106 How many hand held fire extinguishers are available within the cabin?

A. One- located under Co-pilot seat
B. Two- one under the pilot seat and one near entry door
C. Two- one near each exit (over-wing and main entry)
D. Three- under each pilot seat and one near entry door
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1: [3-5 (F)]

A

Two- one under the pilot seat and one near entry door

107
Q

AFE

107 If an emergency requires the emergency exit to be removed in flight:

A. Ensure passengers are seated
B. Ensure all loose equipment is stowed
C. Open the co-pilot side window to remove cabin pressure
D. Both A and B are correct
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1: [3-30 (W)]

A

Both A and B are correct

108
Q

AFE

108 The emergency lighting system is shock actuated. The system includes:

A. Interior cockpit light
B. Interior forward and aft cabin lights
C. Exterior lights at cabin door and overwing emergency exit
D. All of the above
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1: [1-57]

A

All of the above

109
Q

AFE

109 The airstair door can support:

A. Only one person at a time
B. A total of 300 pounds
C. Any weight
D. Both A and B are correct
Reference: T.O 1C-12A-1: [1-44A (C)]

A

Both A and B are correct

110
Q

AFE

110 During an Engine Running ON/OFF load, the airstair door may be difficult to open or close:

A. Because the wind is holding it open/closed
B. Because the flaps are not set properly
C .Because the door seal may be inflated
D .Because the cabin Air Conditioner is still ON
Reference: T.O. 1C-12A-1: [1-44A (N)]

A

Because the door seal may be inflated

C-12C (4 decks)

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