412 OG-All-P/N/W-AFI-Mar 2021 Flashcards
1 During low-level operations if an aircraft has two pilot positions both pilots are required to have a low altitude chart?
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 para 2.3
False
2 For local sorties, aircrew will have access to
A.AFI 11-202 Vol 3
B.AFI 11-2FT Vol 3
C.412 TW Inflight Guide
D.All of the Above
Reference: AFI 11-2FTv3 EAFB Sup 2.4.2
All of the Above
3 All of the following are true except:
A.All aspects of test missions will be thoroughly briefed by the cognizant engineer or aircraft commander.
B.Briefed mission elements and events may be modified and briefed airborne as long as flight safety is not compromised.
C.The alternate mission, if briefed, should be as complex or more than the primary.
D.Aircrews should debrief weather conditions to weather personnel when weather encountered during the mission was not as forecast.
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 2.7.4, 2.7.6
The alternate mission, if briefed, should be as complex or more than the primary.
4 Aircrew shall not fly ILS approaches requiring precision runway monitoring unless there is a mission/test need and __________.
A.authorization from FOA
B.authorization from the SPO
C.the pilot has accomplished the associated training
D.the aircraft is within 90 days of depot maintenance
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 3.2.1
the pilot has accomplished the associated training
5 ______ may approve touch-and-go operations with maintenance engineering support personnel (MESP) or mission essential personnel (MEP) onboard.
A.Flying Unit Commander
B.Operation Group Commander
C.Test Wing Commander
D.None of the Above
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 3.2.3
Flying Unit Commander
6 A PIC may deviate from any flight rule in the all the following circumstances except:
INACTIVE
A.An in-flight emergency requires immediate action
B.When flight rule is unknown by PIC
C.Deviation is required to protect lives
D.When safety of flight dictates
Reference: AFI 11-202, Vol 3: 1.6
When flight rule is unknown by PIC
7 Do not use rolling maneuvers to maintain or regain formation position below ____ feet AGL or in airspace where aerobatics are prohibited.
A.10,000
B.5000
C.3000
D.2500
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.3.4.7.1
5000
8 All of the following are true except:
A.During the day, minimum taxi interval is 150 feet if taxiing staggered but may be reduced when holding short of or entering the runway.
B.Minimum taxi interval in trail (on the taxiway centerline) day or night is 300 feet on centerline.
C.Minimum taxi interval with ice/snow/slush is 300 feet.
D.Taxi in front of aircraft being armed/de-armed with forward firing ordnance is approved if cleared by the ground crew.
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.3.4.2
Taxi in front of aircraft being armed/de-armed with forward firing ordnance is approved if cleared by the ground crew.
9 Weather requirements for safety chase formation is
A.discernable horizon
B.three miles visibility
C.clear of clouds
D.All of the Above
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 3.8.3.3.5
All of the Above
10 Flight leads will direct chase positions in flight as required by test objectives.
A.TRUE
B.FALSE
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.8.3.1
TRUE
11 Safety Chase is a visual formation that maximizes the briefed chase duties.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.8.3.2.1
True
12 During Area Chase, the aircraft need only remain in the designated test area and maintain radio contact with the test aircraft.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.8.3.2.2
True
13 The weather requirements for Safety Chase are:
A.Takeoff minimums
B.Discernable horizon, 1 mile visibility, clear of clouds
C.Discernable horizon, 3 miles visibility, clear of clouds
D.Discernable horizon, 5 miles visibility, clear of clouds
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.8.3.3.5
Discernable horizon, 3 miles visibility, clear of clouds
14 Chase pilots will not stack lower than the lead aircraft when operating below ____ feet AGL.
A.500
B.1000
C.2500
D.5000
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.8.3.3.6
1000
15 Unless approved by test and safety review boards, the minimum altitude (ft AGL) for an airborne pickup is:
A.50
B.100
C.200
D.300
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.8.3.3.6.1
200
16 Except for emergencies, the day VMC minimum altitude for position changes within a formation is:
A.500 feet AGL over both land & water
B.500 feet AGL over land and 1000 feet AGL over water
C.1000 feet AGL over both land & water
D.1000 feet AGL over land and 1500 feet AGL over water
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.3.4.8.1
500 feet AGL over land and 1000 feet AGL over water
17 Which of the following is NOT true regarding formation procedures?
INACTIVE
A.Flight leaders will not break up formations until each pilot has a positive fix (visual, ATC, INS, TACAN, VOR or other suitable system waypoint) from which to navigate.
B.In the traffic pattern, IP/SEFEs may maneuver as necessary to observe performance to a minimum altitude of 50 feet.
C.Minimum altitude for formation low approaches is 100’ day, 200’ night.
D.Normal spacing between overhead breaks will be 5 seconds.
Reference: AFI 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.3.5.8.1, 3.6.3.3.7.2, 3.3.5.10, 3.3.5.9.1
Minimum altitude for formation low approaches is 100’ day, 200’ night.
18 Weather minimums for visual low level training are ___________ for any route or area.
INACTIVE
A.1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility
B.as specified in FLIP for Military Training Routes
C.as specified in unit regulations or national routes
D.a, b, or c, whichever is higher.
Reference: AFI 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.5.3.3
a, b, or c, whichever is higher.
19 Excessive negative altitude variations will not ensure safe terrain clearance at your MSA. Aircrews will use _______ to determine which route segments are affected by excessive altitude variations.
A.altitude variations from PMSV
B.compute altitude variations using PMSV altimeter settings and D values
C.a or b
D.none of the above
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.7.9
a or b
20 Which of the following is not true regarding low level procedures?
INACTIVE
A.Below 1000’ AGL wingmen will not fly at a lower altitude than lead.
B.Between sunrise and sunset, the low level environment is at or below 2000’ AGL, VMC.
C.NVGs may not be used to clear terrain visually during night VMC, low level.
D.MSA is 1000’ above the highest obstacle within 5 nm of the planned route.
Reference: AFI 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.5.3.3.1, 3.5.3.1, 3.5.3.2.3, Pg 84
NVGs may not be used to clear terrain visually during night VMC, low level.
21 Crews experiencing a hung store may contact the _________ for permission to release or jettison the hung store in a suitable area.
A.DFO
B.RCO
C.SOFD
D.Sq Sup
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.5.1.11
RCO
22 Do not practice emergency procedures that degrade aircraft performance or flight control capabilities unless:___________.
A.authorized by AFMC/A3.
B.specifically authorized by an approved training syllabus, test plan or in accordance with applicable AFIs.
C.specifically authorized by the 11-2MDS series.
D.full approved on the flight authorization and no passengers are on board.
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 5.18
specifically authorized by an approved training syllabus, test plan or in accordance with applicable AFIs.
23 Fuel jettisoning will be conducted only to reduce aircraft gross weight in ___________. When circumstances permit, jettison fuel over unpopulated areas at and
altitude of ________, when feasible.
A.obtaining valid landing data or when unit needs early recovery; 3,000 AGL
B.an emergency, for operational necessity, or as required for flight test or FCF; 3,000 AGL
C.obtaining valid landing data or when unit needs early recovery; 5,000 AGL
D.an emergency or as required for flight test or FCF; 5,000 AGL
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 5.19
an emergency or as required for flight test or FCF; 5,000 AGL
24 Do not accomplish practice emergency seperation training from the contact position or boom limit demonstration unless the receiver signal system is in normal and the receiver and tanker have assured normal disconnect capability prior to initiating maneuver.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.3.2.3
True
25 For practice emergency separation training, coordination between the tanker pilot and boom operator and the receiver pilot is mandatory and will occur _________ the event.
A.after
B.prior to
C.during
D.A and C
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.3.2.4
prior to
26 NVGs may be worn for night tanker rejoins to include flying in the observation position, but will be raised to the ____ and ______ position or removed prior to the pre-contact position.
A.UP / LOCKED
B.DOWN / STOWED
C.LOCKED / LOADED
D.UP / STOWED
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.3.2.6
UP / STOWED
27 Plan and fly all missions to avoid areas of known or forecast severe weather including severe icing or severe turbulence which may exceed aircraft limitations. These restrictions do not apply to planned severe weather penetration as part of an approved test plan.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 4.3.1
True
28 During flight, attempt to avoid thunderstorms by at least:
A.20 NMs at or above flight level (FL) 230
B.10 NMs below FL 230
C.5 NMs for operations below 5000 feet
D.All of the above
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 4.3.2.1-3
All of the above
29 The PIC is the final authority whether to take-off, land, or continue a touch-and-go when LAHSO is in effect. The PIC may not accept a LAHSO clearance without MAJCOM training.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 18.2
True
30 Multi place aircraft (N/A C-130): The pilot flying will periodically announce intentions during departures, arrivals, approaches and ______________.
A.special mission events
B.when circumstances require deviating from normal procedures
C.unsual attitudes
D.the mealtime cruise portion
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 4.4.1
when circumstances require deviating from normal procedures
31 Flight outside of a test program with software that has not passed a safety of flight evaluation is prohibited.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 para 5.3
True
32 Normal flying operations (ejection seat aircraft) will not be conducted when surface winds along the intended route of flight exceed _____ knots steady state or when the sea state exceeds ______ feet wave height.
A.35; 10
B.30; 10
C.35; 12
D.30; 12
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 5.5.1, 5.5.2
35; 10
33 Flight Duty Period (FDP). FCF/ACF, proficiency training, test sorties, test support sorties and tactical events must be completed during the first ________ hours of the FDP and are limited to a maximum of ________ sorties per day.
INACTIVE
A.6, 6
B.10, 4
C.8, 3
D.12, 3
Reference: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 AFMCSUP I: 2.2.4
12, 3
34 A checklist is not complete until all items have been accomplished. Notes amplifying checklist procedures or limitations may be added to the checklists. Checklist items that do not apply to the unit’s aircraft or mission may be lined out.
INACTIVE
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFI 11-2FT, Vol 3: 5.9
True
35 The PIC will direct all occupants to fasten seatbelts securely when __________ is encountered or expected.
A.icing
B.a bird flock
C.a typhoon
D.turbulence
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 5.10.1.3
turbulence
36 In the absence of a test plan or FCF profile, high speed taxi checks will be approved by the FOA and accomplished by a qualified _____.
A.pilot
B.IP
C.FCF pilot
D.b or c
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 5.11
b or c
37 (Multiplace aircraft) Other than critical phases of flight, crewmembers may leave their duty stations for brief periods to meet physiological needs and to perform normal crew duties.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 5.13
True
38 NVGs will only be worn in-flight by NVG qualified aircrew or by upgrading aircrew under the supervision of a qualified NVG IP.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.3.5.3
True
39 When circumstances permit, jettison fuel over unpopulated areas at an altitude above _________ AGL, when feasible.
A.2000
B.1500
C.5000
D.3000
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 5.19
5000
40 Unless authorized by local procedures, touch and go landings on the lakebeds are ________.
INACTIVE
A.encouraged
B.prohibited
C.expected
D.tolerated
Reference: AFI 11-2FT, Vol 3: 5.25.6
prohibited
41 Crewmembers that require corrective spectacles while performing aircrew duties will carry a backup set of clear MAJCOM-approved corrective lenses while performing aircrew duties.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.7.1.
True
42 After loss of cabin pressure, initiate an immediate descent to the lowest practical altitude, preferably below ________ ft MSL.
A.10,000
B.18,000
C.21,000
D.25,000
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.21.4.
18,000
43 Which of the following is not true regarding filing/flying VFR?
INACTIVE
A.PIC will utilize radar advisory and monitoring or control services when practical and should ensure flight following by any available means (i.e. FSS or C2 agency).
B.Forecast weather for the departure, planned route of flight and arrival (1 hour of the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA)) must be 3,000 ft. ceiling and 3 SMs visibility.
C.When in FAA airspace, adhere to NAS VFR cloud clearance and visibility minimums.
D.Fixed-wing aircraft shall not fly under Special VFR.
Reference: AFI 11-202, Vol 3: 4.16.2.2, Table 6.1, 4.16.2.5.
Forecast weather for the departure, planned route of flight and arrival (1 hour of the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA)) must be 3,000 ft. ceiling and 3 SMs visibility.
44 Which of the following NAS fixed-wing VFR cloud clearances is not correct?
A.Class C and Class D airspace: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal
B.Class E and G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal
C.Class E and G airspace at or above 10,000 feet MSL: 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 SM horizontal
D.Class B airspace 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 SM horizontal
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: Table 12.1
Class B airspace 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 SM horizontal
45 Aircrew may file to or land USAF aircraft at US P-coded civil airports in all the following circumstances except: _____________
A.in an emergency
B.an alternate is required and no other suitable airport is available
C.when participating in an airshow
D.The wing commander or higher authority approves the flight and the airport manager grants permission in advance
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 4.7.2
when participating in an airshow
46 Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding requirements to fly practice instrument approaches under VFR?
A.VFR cloud clearances and visibilities must be maintained
B.Terminal radar service must be available
C.Aircrews must make all position reports IAW 11-202v3 para 14.16.1.2
D.receive ATC approval to fly the published missed approach
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 15.2
Terminal radar service must be available
47 No additional MAJCOM training is required to use a Non-USG Terminal Procedures procedure as long as a MAJCOM TERPs office has reviewed the approach IAW AFI 11-230.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 4.14
False
48 Pilots must designate an alternate when weather forecasts indicate, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airfield, including TEMPO conditions, are less than indicated below
INACTIVE
A.A ceiling of 2,000 feet above the airfield elevation
B.a visibility of 3 statute miles
C.Forecast crosswinds are outside aircraft limitations
D.thunderstorms are forecast
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 4.16.2
thunderstorms are forecast
49 An airport does not qualify as an alternate in all the following situations except:
A.All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID
B.The airfield does not report weather observations
C.FLIP “alternate” designation (without NA) is displayed on all compatible approach plates AND an associated note applies.
D.FLIP designation “A NA” is displayed on ANY compatible approach plates.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 4.16.5
FLIP designation “A NA” is displayed on ANY compatible approach plates.
50 Authorized IFR Departure Methods include all of the following except?
A.A locally designed departure procedure
B.SID
C.Specific ATC Departure Instructions
D.Diverse Departures (ICAO-Omni-directional Departures)
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 5.9
A locally designed departure procedure
51 Which of the following is NOT true concerning climb gradients?
A.In addition to complying with published climb gradients, the PIC must also ensure the aircraft can always clear applicable published low close-in obstacles.
B.Aircrews can never depart an airfield using non-standard takeoff minimums in lieu of meeting the required climb gradient.
C.Pilots under IFR must plan to cross the DER at or above the departure end restriction
D.The standard IFR departure climb gradient is 3.3% (200 feet per nautical mile)
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 5.10
Aircrews can never depart an airfield using non-standard takeoff minimums in lieu of meeting the required climb gradient.
52 Add the values derived from the FIH Temperature Correction Chart to the published procedure altitudes. Which answers below are correct?
A.When departing from an aerodrome with a temperature of 0° C or less, aircrew will temperature correct all altitudes (including the 400 feet. above departure end of runway (DER)) to a temperature corrected minimum safe altitude
B.Altimeter setting source temperature is below -22°F/-30°C correct all altitudes on IAP.
C.Pilots must advise ATC of the corrected altitude when applying altitude corrections on any approach segment with the exception of the final segment.
D.All the above are correct.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 7.2., Table 4.51
All the above are correct.
53 When operating inside RVSM airspace all of the following apply except:
A.Pilots will not operate in RVSM airspace without functional RVSM equipment unless specifically cleared by ATC.
B.Vertical separation between properly equipped and certified aircraft is reduced to 500 ft. in special qualification airspace.
C.Formation flights may operate in RVSM airspace if all participating aircraft are RVSM compliant or approved by ATC.
D.Pilots will notify ATC as soon as possible if required equipment fails after entering RVSM airspace.
Reference: AFI 11-202, Vol 3: 3.24.2., 6.10.2.
Vertical separation between properly equipped and certified aircraft is reduced to 500 ft. in special qualification airspace.
54 Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding commencing an approach?
A.For a straight-in or sidestep approach, the reported weather must meet the required visibility minimums before beginning descent.
B.For a Circling Approach the reported weather must be at or above both the published ceiling and visibility minimums before beginning descent.
C.If the reported weather decreases below minimums after starting a descent the pilot may continue the approach to the MAP and either execute a missed approach or continue to land if conditions permit.
D.If the reported weather decreases below minimums after starting a descent the pilot will abort the approach and contact ATC immediately.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 14.2
If the reported weather decreases below minimums after starting a descent the pilot will abort the approach and contact ATC immediately.
55 Which of the following is not guidance regarding actions at DH/DA/MDA and missed approach point?
A.To descend from DH/DA/MDA the aircraft must be in a position to execute a safe landing.
B.Any turns on the missed approach will not begin until the aircraft reaches the MAP
C.Climbing prior to the MAP is not permitted.
D.Do not descend below 100 feet above the threshold elevation (THRE) or touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) using the approach lights as a reference unless the red termination bars or red side row bars are visible and identifiable (N/A on CAT III approaches).
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 19.1
Climbing prior to the MAP is not permitted.
56 The PIC is the final authority whether to take-off, land, or continue a touch-and-go when LAHSO is in effect. The PIC may not accept a LAHSO clearance without MAJCOM training.
A.True
B.False
C.
D.When the runway approach lighting system (ALS) (or any portion, but not including sequenced flashers or visual glide slope indicators) is inoperative, pilots shall increase the published visibility minimums of an instrument approach as directed by the inoperative components table in the TPP, as stated on IAP/NOTAMs/ATIS/other airport information source or by 1/2 mile if no other guidance is provided.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 18.2
True
57 Who is the waiver authority for Flight Duty Period (FDP)?
A.AFTC/CC
B.Sq/CC
C.Wg/CC
D.Program Manager
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.2.
Wg/CC
58 What is the maximum flight time a pilot can log in 7 consecutive days?
A.35
B.56
C.70
D.125
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.4
56
59 Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding crew rest/Flight Duty Period (FDP)?
A.Crew rest is free time and includes time for meals, transportation, and rest. This time must include an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep.
B.Crew rest is compulsory for aircrew members prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations and is a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before the Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins.
C.If an aircrew member remains after flying to perform official duties such as working on an OPR, the crew rest period begins once the flight debrief is complete.
D.For continuous operations when basic aircrew FDPs are between 12 to 14 hours, subsequent crew rest may be reduced to a minimum of 10 hours by the PIC.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.1
If an aircrew member remains after flying to perform official duties such as working on an OPR, the crew rest period begins once the flight debrief is complete.
60 Crew rest is not required to preflight and load an aircraft.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.1.
False
61 The arc of a ______ is the shortest distance between two points on a sphere, just as a straight line is the shortest distance between two points on a plane.
A.Short Circle
B.Wide Circle
C.Great Circle
D.Circular Circle
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 1.4.1
Great Circle
62 The ______ meridian is sometimes called the prime meridian, though actually it is the zero meridian. Longitude is counted east and west from this meridian through 180 degrees.
A.Greenwich
B.English
C.Budweiser
D.Null
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 1.5.3
Greenwich
63 The Department of Defense adopted a datum in 1987 called _____. This global datum is a system that models the entire planet, instead of one small piece.
A.Department of Defense (DoD) 84
B.World Geodetic System 84 (WGS 84)
C.Greenwich Mean (GM 84)
D.Datum? What’s a Datum?
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 1.27.2.1
World Geodetic System 84 (WGS 84)
64 DoD Chart Updating Manual (CHUM). This document lists, for each current chart edition, corrections and additions which could affect flying safety. The additions and corrections listed for the appropriate charts should be checked and the applicable ones annotated on the charts. NOTE: The CHUM does not contain manmade obstacles less than ____ feet tall.
A.300
B.500
C.125
D.199
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 1.30.2
199
65 The Military Grid Reference System (MGRS) is a positioning reference system developed for use with the Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM) and Universal Polar Stereographic (UPS) grids.
A.TRUE
B.FALSE
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 1.34.4
TRUE
66 To establish international rules for air traffic control, the _____ was formed in April 1947 and is affiliated with the United Nations as a specialized international body dealing with aviation matters.
A.Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).
B.Global Aviation Council (GAC)
C.United Airlines (UA)
D.International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 2.6
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
67 Published by the Air Force, the _____ is used by all United States military personnel traveling abroad. It provides information on all foreign nations, United States possessions, and United States controlled or administered areas outside CONUS.
A.FLIP General Planning (GP)
B.IFR Supp
C.Foreign Clearance Guide (FCG)
D.Travelocity Travel Guides
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 2.9
Foreign Clearance Guide (FCG)
68 FLIP documents are divided into three phases of flight, ______.
A.planning, en route operations and terminal operations
B.planning, high altitude operations, and low altitude operations
C.high altitude operations, low altitude operations, and terminal operations
D.takeoff, en route operations, and landing operations
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 2.10
planning, en route operations and terminal operations
69 _____ provide information that is essential to all personnel concerned with flight operations.
A.Notice to Airmen (NOTAM)
B.ALTRV Approval
C.The Weather Channel (TWC)
D.Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR)
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 2.10.13
Notice to Airmen (NOTAM)
70 Airways are corridors established by a national government within its airspace to facilitate the navigation and control of air traffic under IFR conditions. Usually an airway is _______ wide and follows a route over the ground defined by radio NAVAIDS.
A.10 Nautical Miles
B.5 Nautical Miles
C.10 Statute Miles
D.20 Statute Miles
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 2.14
10 Statute Miles
71 The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian is called the __________.
A.True Meridian
B.Magnetic Variation
C.True Variation
D.True Heading
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 3.5.2
Magnetic Variation
72 The height above the standard datum plane (29.92 Hg at 15º C) is called ______.
A.Pressure Altitude (PA)
B.Calibrated Altitude (CA)
C.Density Altitude (DA)
D.Absolute Altitude
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 3.13.3
Pressure Altitude (PA)
73 _____ is basic airspeed that has been corrected for pitot-static error or attitude of the aircraft.
A.Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)
B.Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
C.True Airspeed (TAS)
D.Groundspeed (GS)
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 3.24.3
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)
74 _____ is the intended horizontal direction of travel over the surface of the earth. _____ is the horizontal direction in which an aircraft is pointed.
A.True Heading, True Course
B.True Course, True Heading
C.Track, True Heading
D.True Heading, direction
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 4.3.1, 4.3.4
True Course, True Heading
75 The rate of motion of an aircraft relative to the airmass surrounding it is called _______ .
A.Groundspeed
B.Calibrated Airspeed
C.True Airspeed
D.Warp Speed
Reference: AFPAM 11-216: 4.3.6
True Airspeed
76 Flight plans are not required for aircraft departing Edwards for ____
A.Palmdale airport
B.Fox Field airport
C.Victorville airport
D.All of the Above
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 7.1
All of the Above
77 All flights involving live munitions should originate and terminate at _____.
A.North Base
B.Main Base
C.South Base
D.Dry Lakebed runways
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 10.4.1
Main Base
78 During lost communications with SPORT/JOSHUA/Tower fixed wing crews shall set transponder to _____.
A.4600
B.5600
C.6600
D.7600
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 8.11.2.1
7600
79 EAFB does not have a standard climb-out. Climb-out
instructions are issued by Tower.
A.TRUE
B.FALSE
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 8.12
TRUE
80 IFR clearances will be issued by ____ when Sport is closed.
A.Joshua
B.SOF
C.Ground
D.Command Post
Reference: EAFB 13-204 5.4.1
Ground
81 All aircraft that required munitions arming prior to flight will
go through _____ after landing.
A.de-ice
B.de-arm
C.BPO
D.AAS
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 10.5
de-arm
82 Aircraft may takeoff from dry lakebed runways only with ______
approval. Exception: C-12.
A.SOF
B.412 OG/CC
C.412 TW/CC
D.AFTC/CC
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 8.24.2
412 OG/CC
83 Circling approaches to Rwy 05R/23L or 05L/23R are not
authorized when there are aircraft in the South Base traffic pattern.
A.TRUE
B.FALSE
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 4.3.1
TRUE
84 PICs must contact
Tower with changes or cancellations to flight plans that are within ______ of the proposed
departure time.
A.60 minutes
B.30 minutes
C.2 hours
D.1 hour
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 7.1.2
30 minutes
85 Flight within the
R-2508 Complex requires a work area clearance. EAFB based aircraft will be issued a _______ clearance.
A.Pancho 3
B.Pancho 3 Barstow
C.Sage 2
D.All of the Above
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 7.2
All of the Above
86 All spin areas are exclusive use airspace.
A.TRUE
B.FALSE
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 8.26
TRUE
87 (Tower Fly-by line) Downwind airspeed is 250-350 KIAS. Maximum final speed is _____ KIAS, on an approved test plan or TPS curriculum or pre-approved by 412
OG/CC.
A.350
B.400
C.450
D.500
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 4.2.1.4
450
88 Noise abatement. To the maximum extent possible, departing Rwy 23L/R with an initial turn to the North, do not overfly ______.
A.base housing
B.412 TW medical facility
C.TPS
D.Both A and B
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 2.22
Both A and B
89 Edwards Class D resides primarily within R-2515 and is
defined as, that airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 4,800 feet MSL, within a ____- mile radius of Edwards AFB.
A.1
B.3
C.5
D.7
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 3.1.1
7
90 South Re-entry Patterns. _____ mile off the departure end of runway turn
south and enter outside downwind.
A.one
B.two
C.three
D.four
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 Table 4.2
one
91 Airborne Pickup. Pilots will advise Ground of airborne pickup intentions on initial contact. Expect ______.
A.Delays
B.Return
C.Refusal
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 4.3.2
Delays
92 Tower Fly-By Line is always ________
A.West to East
B.East to West
C.South to North
D.North to South
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 Table 4.3
East to West
93 Abandonment of Aircraft. Controlled bailouts are over the _____, from the approach end
of Dry Lakebed Rwy 07, on heading of 070° into the _____
A.Runway infield
B.Housing DZ
C.PIRA
D.Wings DZ
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 6.7
PIRA
94 During daytime, locally assigned aircraft with a
wingspan of ____’ or less are authorized to conduct opposite direction taxi operations on all useable Twys of 100’ or more in width
INACTIVE
A.45
B.55
C.65
D.75
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 2.15.2
95 All runway underruns may be used for _____. Call Airfield Management for weight
limitations.
A.landing
B.takeoff
C.de-arm
D.hung flare
Reference: EAFBI 13-204 Table 2.1 Note 7
takeoff
96 Turn on anti-collision or strobe lights prior to engine start;
do not turn them off until after engine shutdown.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-218 3.10
True
97 The CMA includes the surfaces of an airfield used for
A.take-off
B.landing
C.taxiing of aircraft
D.all of the above
Reference: AFMAN 11-218 3.3
all of the above
98 Personnel should plan taxi and towing operations so that no part of an aircraft is within ________ feet of an obstruction; account for wing tip and tail growth during turns
A.25 vertical
B.25 horizontal
C.50 vertical
D.50 horizontal
Reference: AFMAN 11-218 3.7
25 horizontal
99 All moving aircraft shall display position lights from _____.
A.from sunrise to sunset
B.civil twilight to sunrise
C.sunset to sunrise
D.none of the above
Reference: AFMAN 11-218: 3.9
sunset to sunrise
100 When an unqualified person occupies a pilot seat during taxi a/an ____________ must be seated at the other set of controls.
INACTIVE
A.Flight engineer
B.Certified maintenance personnel
C.Pilot
D.Instructor pilot
Reference: AFI 11-218: 1.13.1.1.2
Instructor pilot
101 When two aircraft are approaching head on, or approximately so, each aircraft shall:
A.Speed up
B.Determine who is bigger and give them the right of way
C.Stop or where practicable alter course to the right as to keep well clear
D.Do nothing, ground control will call if they need you to stop
Reference: AFMAN 11-218: 3.5.1
Stop or where practicable alter course to the right as to keep well clear
102 The flashing red ATC light gun signal (ground only) indicates:
A.STOP
B.Return to starting point on the airport
C.Taxi clear of the runway in use
D.Cleared for taxi
Reference: AFMAN 11-218: Figure 3.3
Taxi clear of the runway in use
103 The steady red ATC light gun signal (ground only) indicates:
A.STOP
B.Return to starting point on the airport
C.Taxi clear of the runway in use
D.Cleared for takeoff
Reference: AFMAN 11-218: Figure 3.3
STOP
104 (Radio contact cannot be established with the tower) During daylight hours acknowledge tower transmissions or light signals by _____.
A.Blinking landing or navigation lights
B.Blinking taxi lights
C.Standard hand signals
D.by moving the ailerons orrudder
Reference: AFMAN 11-218: 3.8.2
by moving the ailerons or rudder
105 Do not taxi aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstruction.
A.10
B.25
C.15
D.20
Reference: AFMAN 11-218: 1.16.2, 3.7
25
106 Do not taxi aircraft closer than 10 feet to any obstruction. This restriction is waived for AFMC organizations or units under AFMC control.
INACTIVE
A.True
B.False
C.Waived in certain circumstances.
Reference: AFI 11-218; AFMC Sup: 1.16.3
False
107 Daylight-fluorescent wands will be used for signaling by all participating ground
personnel during daylight hours. Illuminated wands will be used at night or in low
visibility.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-218: 2.3.3
True
108 Turn on anti-collision or strobe lights prior to ________
A.take-off
B.taxi
C.engine start
D.application of external power
Reference: AFMAN 11-218: 3.10
engine start
109 Arms extended with forearm perpendicular to ground and palms facing body indicates
A.Stop
B.Taxiway obstructed
C.Heavy object
D.Hot brakes
Reference: AFMAN 11-218: Attachment 2
Hot brakes
110 Personnel operating aircraft shall take action as required by the marshalling signals.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-218 2.4.1
True
111 When an alternate airport is required, fuel required for an approach and missed approach must be included in the total flight plan if:________
A.Ceiling and visibility criteria is used to determine the suitability of the original destination.
B.Visibility-only criteria is used to determine the suitability of the original destination.
C.Ceiling-only criteria is used to determine the suitability of the original destination.
D.Ceiling and visibility criteria is used to determine the suitability of the alternate destination.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 4.20.2.
Visibility-only criteria is used to determine the suitability of the original destination.
112 Declare “minimum fuel” or “emergency fuel” to the appropriate controlling agency when the aircraft will arrive on initial or at the FAF for the intended destination
with less than the MDS-specific minimum or emergency fuel reserves.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.20.2
False
113 Aircrew will obtain required flight weather support from one of the following sources (in priority order):
A.Servicing AF Operational weather squadron (OWS), Local military/base unit/combat weather team (CWT), another military unit (AF CWT, or OWS, Navy or Marine unit), FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency (or equivalent overseas).
B.FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency (or equivalent overseas), servicing AF operational weather squadron (OWS), Local military/base unit/combat weather team (CWT), another military unit (AF CWT, or OWS, Navy or Marine unit).
C.Local military/base unit, servicing AF operational weather squadron (OWS), another military unit (AF CWT, or OWS, Navy or Marine unit), FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency (or equivalent overseas).
D.Local military/base unit/combat weather team (CWT), another military unit (AF CWT, or OWS, Navy or Marine unit), servicing AF operational weather squadron (OWS), FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency (or equivalent overseas).
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 4.10
Local military/base unit, servicing AF operational weather squadron (OWS), another military unit (AF CWT, or OWS, Navy or Marine unit), FAA weather forecast or
flight weather briefing agency (or equivalent overseas).
114 Before takeoff, or while airborne, the PIC may make changes to the originally filed flight plan without re-filing provided:
A.The controlling ATC agency approves the change for an IFR flight.
B.The change does not penetrate an ADIZ.
C.The change complies with applicable host-nation rules.
D.All of the above.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 4.5.3
All of the above.
115 The following non-transmitting PEDs may be used at any time or altitude
A.hearing aids
B.calculators
C.iPAD
D.electric shavers
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.16.1
iPAD
116 All the following conditions apply to the use of Portable Electronic Devices (PEDs) EXCEPT:
A.MAJCOM/A3 may authorize use of PEDs at any altitude with transmitters ON or OFF.
B.Without MAJCOM guidance, the PIC may authorize use of transmitting PEDs at or above 10,000 feet MSL with transmitter OFF (Airplane Mode).
C.Portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, calculators, and watches may be used at anytime or altitude.
D.PICs may authorize electrical connection of PEDs to aircraft power, data, or antennaes.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.16
PICs may authorize electrical connection of PEDs to aircraft power, data, or antennaes.
117 The following must be reported by aircrew except:
A.wake turbulence
B.hazardous weather
C.any laser illumination event
D.TCAS Traffic Advisory
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.20
TCAS Traffic Advisory
118 Aircraft operating VFR or IFR in restricted areas, warning areas, or on a
VFR military training route (VR) will squawk _____ unless another code has been assigned
by ATC
A.4000
B.1200
C.2000
D.7600
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.35.6
4000
119 Unless restricted by the MAJCOM, pilots may file to or land USAF aircraft at P-coded Civil Airports (as listed in the IFR Supplement):
A.When an alternate is required and no other suitable airport is available.
B.When the wing commander or higher authority approves the flight and the airport manager grants permission in advance.
C.When flying a helicopter or C-coded aircraft (e.g. C-130, C-12, C-40).
D.All of the above
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 4.7.2
All of the above
120 Descent gradients in excess of _______ degrees in IMC may induce spatial disorientation
A.5
B.10
C.15
D.20
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.27
10
121 What is the maximum speed at or below 2,500 AGL within 4 nm of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace?
A.250 KIAS
B.200 KIAS
C.200 KTAS
D.250 KTAS
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 12.4.3
200 KIAS
122 What is the maximum speed below 10,000ft MSL unless AFMC approves us of higher speeds IAW 11-202, Vol 3?
A.250 KIAS
B.200 KIAS
C.200 KTAS
D.250 KTAS
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 12.4.2
250 KIAS
123 Pilots operating in VMC under IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control are responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain/obstacles and environmental
hazards.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.2.5
True
124 If aircraft are approaching each other head-on or approximately so, each shall alter
course to the right.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3, AFMC Sup: 3.24.3
True
125 Do not jettison fuel except
A.in an emergency
B.when required for mission accomplishment
C.both a and b
D.none of the above
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.31
both a and b
126 Do not takeoff with ice, snow, frost or other contamination adhering to _____ or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, unless authorized by the flight manual.
A.the wings, fuselage, control surfaces, propellers
B.the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets
C.the wings, control surfaces, fuselage, engine inlets
D.the wings, propellers, fuselage, engine inlets
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 5.4
the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets
127 __________ are marked oninstrument approach plates (IAP) or airfield diagrams with an “inverse D” symbol
A.departure end crossing height restriction
B.displaced threshold
C.expanded circling criteria
D.declared distances
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 4.46
declared distances
128 Retractable gear aircraft will report gear down status to ATC or runway supervisory unit after extending the landing gear. This report shall be made during any
approach _______.
A.Prior to FAF or base turn for visual patterns
B.Prior to touchdown
C.Immediately following gear extension
D.Prior to crossing runway threshold
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 18.1.1
Prior to crossing runway threshold
129 Tobacco use in all forms, including electronic nicotine delivery systems, is
prohibited on all aircraft.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.11
True
130 Except during takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft:
A.1000 feet above highest obstacle within a 2000-foot radius in non-congested areas.
B.500 feet above the surface
C.500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
D.none of the above
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 12.3.5
500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
131 Control instruments:
A.display immediate attitude and power.
B.are calibrated to permit adjustments in precise increments
C.both a and b above.
D.measure aircraft performance.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: A4.1.1
both a and b above.
132 The expanded circling area identified with a “negative C” on the circling line of minima accounts for
A.pilot visual contact with airfield environment
B.true airspeed decrease with altitude
C.expanded TERPS survey
D.true airspeed increase with altitude
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 18.14.2
true airspeed increase with altitude
133 Do not descend below the MDA, DA, or DH unless sufficient visual reference with
the _____________ has been established and the aircraft is in a position to
execute a safe landing.
A.runway threshold
B.runway environment
C.airfield environment
D.PAPIs
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 15.4.1
runway environment
134 VOR and VOR/ DME station passage occurs:
A.when the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM.
B.with the first positive FROM indication for VOR and when range stops decreasing for VOR/ DME.
C.when the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course.
D.all of the above.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3 Vol 3: A5.3.1
when the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM.
135 Obstacles that require a climb gradient greater than _____ feet per nautical mile for a very short distance, only until the aircraft is 200 feet above the DER, are
referred to as “low, close-in obstacles.”
A.250
B.152
C.200
D.none of the above.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 5.14
200
136 On all IFR departures, unless a higher gradient is published, USAF pilots are required to climb at a minimum rate of
A.150 feet per nautical mile
B.250 feet per nautical mile
C.200 feet per nautical mile
D.300 feet per nautical mile
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 5.8
200 feet per nautical mile
137 Which of the following is true about Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)?
A.may not be flown unless approved by ATC
B.SIDs must include both a textual and graphic depiction
C.If required, SIDs will have higher than standard climb gradients published on it
D.Both A and C
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 5.24
Both A and C
138 The VDP is:
A.the point along the final approach course of a nonprecision straight-in approach procedure from which a normal descent from MDA to the runway touchdown point
may be commenced.
B.normally identified by DME.
C.not a mandatory part of the procedure.
D.all of the above.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 16.4
all of the above.
139 ATC clearances requiring holding where holding patterns are charted, include the following instructions:
A.charted holding direction
B.Holding course: Radial, course, bearing, airway, or route on which the aircraft is to hold
C.Holding fix: The name of the holding fix
D.A & C above.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 13.3
A & C above.
140 Make all turns during entry and while holding at:
A.3 degrees per second
B.30 degrees bank angle
C.25 degrees bank angle when using a flight director system
D.any of the above
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 13.5
any of the above
141 Holding timing is 1 minute at or below _______ feet MSL and 1.5 minutes above ______ feet MSL, unless otherwise directed by ATC
A.6,000; 6,000
B.10,000; 10,000
C.14,000; 14,000
D.18,000; 18,000
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 13.7
14,000; 14,000
142 A final approach may be as much as ___ degrees off of the runway centerline and still be considered a straight-in approach.
A.30
B.15
C.10
D.5
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 15.14.6.3
30
143 Prior to starting an en route descent, you should:
A.review instrument procedures and weather
B.check heading/attitude systems
C.coordinate lost communication procedures (if required)
D.all of the above are correct.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 14.6
all of the above are correct.
144 A “descend via” clearance on a STAR requires the pilot to
A.Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
B.Descend at pilot’s discretion and comply with published altitude restrictions
C.begin an immediate descent
D.Both a and b above
Reference: AFMNA 11-202 Vol 3: Table 14.1
Both a and b above
145 Fly appropriate VFR hemispheric altitudes when higher than _____ feet above the surface, unless authorized by ATC.
A.2,500
B.3,000
C.3,500
D.5,000
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 12.3.1.1
3,000
146 When being radar vectored for the final approach portion of the IAP, you should remain oriented in relation to the FAF. Once cleared for the approach:
A.maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the published routing or IAP
B.maneuver the aircraft as necessary to intercept the final approach course.
C.you may descend to the FAF altitude when on a parallel or intercept heading to final approach course.
D.do not descend below the last assigned altitude until you receive specific clearance from ATC.
Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3: 14.13.3
maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the published routing or IAP
147 Basic runway lighting systems are used
to aid the pilot in defining the usable landing area of the runway. These are
A.runway edge lighting system
B.runway centerline lighting system
C.touchdown zone lights
D.All of the Above
Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3 18.11
All of the Above
148 SDPs are aircraft-specific commercially designed
and published procedures that require _______ training and certification before use.
A.Squadron
B.Group
C.Wing
D.MAJCOM
Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3 5.31
MAJCOM
149 All crewmembers and required test support personnel will attend the flight briefing
unless previously briefed and excused by the ____.
A.FTC
B.FTE
C.PIC
D.SOF
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 2.7.3
PIC
150 Published procedures that are understood by all participants may be briefed as
“______.”
A.Understood
B.Standard
C.Hooah
D.Oorah
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 2.7.2
Standard
151 Be alert for fog or low cloud formations any time the surface air temperature is within ___________ °F of the dew point, and the spread between the two is
___________________
A.4 increasing
B.4 decreasing
C.6 increasing
D.6 decreasing
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 2.4.1
4 decreasing
152 The types of altimeter settings are _______
A.QNH
B.QNE
C.QFE
D.All of the Above
Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3 para 4.47.3
All of the Above
153 Squall line flying hazards may include.
A.Extreme Turbulence
B.Wind shear
C.Thunder storms
D.All of the above
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 8.7.1
All of the above
154 A _______ cloud is most frequent cloud associated with mountain wave phenomenon.
A.Cap Cloud
B.Standing Lenticular Cloud
C.Rotor Cloud
D.Nimbostratus
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 9.9.4.3
Standing Lenticular Cloud
155 Wingtip Vorticies:
A.Begin at nose-wheel lifts off and ends when the nose-wheel touches down on landing.
B.Sink below an aircraft at 400-500 ft/min and level off 800 to 900 feet below the flight path.
C.Move laterally on the ground at a speed of about 5 kts.
D.All of the above
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 9.15.2.1-4
All of the above
156 Mountain wave turbulence occurs when __________________ air blows across a mountain range with velocities in excess of 25 knots and an inversion exists
within _______________ ft of the mountain top.
A.Stable (non-convective);2,000
B.Unstable;500
C.Stable (non-convective);500
D.Unstable;2,000
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 9.9.1
Stable (non-convective);2,000
157 ________ ice is the most serious of the various forms of icing.
A.Clear
B.Rime
C.Mixed
D.Frozen
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 11.4.1.1
Clear
158 Aircraft Icing normally occurs at air temperatures between ________
A.0 to -10 degrees C
B.0 to -20 degrees C
C.+10 to -10 degrees C
D.+20 to -20 degrees C
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 11.12.2
0 to -20 degrees C
159 If icing is encountered, climb or descend to an altitude where the temperature is warmer than _____________ °C or colder than _______________ °C
A.0 -20
B.-20 0
C.-10 10
D.10 -10
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 11.12.6.5
0 -20
160 RVR is reported when the prevailing visibility is __________ statute mile or less and/or the RVR for the designated runway is ____________ ft or less.
A.1;9,000
B.1;6,000
C.1/2;3,000
D.1/3;2,000
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 2: 2.5.8
1;6,000
161 Prevailing Visibility is defined as ___________
A.The greatest horizontal visibility observed throughout at least half of the horizon circle
B.The greatest horizontal visibility observed throughout at least 3/4 of the horizon circle
C.The worst horizontal visibility observed throughout at least half of the horizon circle
D.The worst horizontal visibility observed throughout at least half of the horizon circle
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 12.2.1
The greatest horizontal visibility observed throughout at least half of the horizon circle
162 Clouds are reported in eights for coverage and hundreds of feet AGL for heights. Some automated systems do not report cloud bases above _________________
ft .
A.10,000
B.12,000
C.15,000
D.20,000
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 2: para 2.5.10
12,000
163 The most severe icing in a thunderstorm occurs from _______, with the worst icing conditions usually found just above the freezing level between ______.
A.0 to -20 deg C;0 to -10 deg C
B.0 to -20 deg C;0 to -5 deg C
C.0 to -10 deg C;0 to -5 deg C
D.0 to -40 deg C;0 to -10 deg C
Reference: AFH 11-203, Vol 1: 13.10.1
0 to -10 deg C;0 to -5 deg C
164 Of all icing conditions reported _______ percent occur in the vicinity of ________.
A.85;fronts
B.25;fronts
C.85;coastal regions
D.25;mountains
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 11.12.4
85;fronts
165 A gust front can extend ________ miles in front of a mature storm.
A.5-10
B.5-20
C.20 or more
D.10 or more
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 13.9.3
20 or more
166 The PIC must ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by:
A.At least 25%
B.20% or enough to get to alternate airfield, whichever is more efficient
C.10% (Up to a maximum of 45 minutes) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater
D.5% or less
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 4.20.3.
10% (Up to a maximum of 45 minutes) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater
167 When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or approximately so), the aircraft to the other’s ______ has the right-of-way. Of the aircraft
categories listed, which has the right-of-way over all others?: rotary- or fixed-wing aircraft, airships, aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft, gliders, balloons.
A.right; rotary- or fixed-wing aircraft
B.left; gliders
C.left; aircraft towing or refueling other aicraft
D.right; balloons
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.24
right; balloons
168 When must position lights be illuminated?
A.between the hours of official sunset and sunrise
B.one hour before official sunset to one hour after official sunrise
C.one half hour before official sunset to one half hour before official sunrise
D.between the hours of official sunrise and sunset
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.22.1.
between the hours of official sunset and sunrise
169 Which portable device is not authorized to be used at all times in the cockpit?
A.Hearing aid
B.Electric shaver
C.Electronic Watches
D.Personal cameras during solo flight
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.16.1.
Personal cameras during solo flight
170 In the event of a deviation from a flight rule and/or when given traffic priority by ATC in an emergency, the PIC must verbally report the incident to the immediate
supervisor and commander within:
A.12 hours
B.24 hours
C.48 hours
D.5 business days
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 1.9
24 hours
171 The 10-hour crew rest exception shall only be used to _____, not _____.
A.keep crews in 24-hour clock cycles; scheduling convenience or additional sortie generation
B.generate additional sorties; scheduling convenience; to effect additional training
C.keep crew in 24-hour clock cycles; allow 8 hours of uninterrupted rest; scheduling convenience
D.general additional sorties; allow for transportation to/from the aircraft; scheduling convenience
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.1.4
keep crews in 24-hour clock cycles; scheduling convenience or additional sortie generation
172 (Loss of Cabin Pressure) If any occupant lacks functioning oxygen equipment, descend to an altitude of ____________ or less (terrain permitting).
A.18,000 ft MSL
B.10,000 ft MSL
C.5000 ft AGL
D.13,000 ft MSL
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.21.4.
13,000 ft MSL
173 The PIC will not exceed ____ knots in the airspace underlying Class B airspace
A.220
B.180
C.235
D.200
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 12.4.4
200
174 You may practice emergency procedures with passengers on board, as long as they are informed.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3: 3.47.2
False
175 ____ may authorize operations when runway conditions are worse than wet provided minimum runway lengths can be complied with.
A.SOF
B.FOA
C.SQ/CC
D.TW/CC
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 2.11
FOA
176 Formation positions for dissimilar formations _______ .
A.must be briefed by the test director
B.should be briefed by the flight lead
C.must be briefed by the flight lead
D.none of the above
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 3.3.4.1
must be briefed by the flight lead
177 In the traffic pattern, IP/SEFE chase aircraft may maneuver as necessary to observed performance, but go no lower than ______ feet AGL. All other chase aicrew
must initiate go around by ______ feet AGL, unless an emergency requires a lower altitude or specifically approved by a test safety review board to support test
requirements. However, ______ feet AGL is an absolute minimum.
A.100;200;100
B.50;200;100
C.200;300;200
D.50;200;50
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 3.8.3.3.6.2
50;200;50
178 During formation approaches aircrew must
ensure ceiling and visibility are at least ____ feet and 1 1/2 miles
A.100
B.300
C.500
D.700
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 3.3.4.12
500
179 _________ qualified aircrew may conduct
intercepts in accordance with limited maneuvering training rules.
A.Hot Pit
B.Airdrop
C.Intercept
D.None of the Above
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 3.4.1
Intercept
180 Any crewmember should announce a variation of ____ feet altitude, a deviation of plus or minus ___ knots in airspeed, a potential terrain or obstruction issue, or a deviation from the approach procedure being flown.
A.100 ; 10
B.200 ; 10
C.200 ; 15
D.200 ; 20
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 4.4.3.2
200 ; 10
181 (Alternate Required) Fuel required for an approach and a missed approach must be included:
INACTIVE
A.when GPS approach is planned at destination
B.on IFR flight plans using DD175 or 1801
C.when visibility-only criteria is used to determine the suitabiility of the original destination.
D.when the designated alternate has weather below 1000/2
Reference: AFI 11-202, Vol 3: 4.18.2.
when visibility-only criteria is used to determine the suitabiility of the original destination.
182 Pilots under instrument flight rules (IFR) or visual flight rules (VFR), whether or not under radar control:
INACTIVE
A.will be given separation by ATC from military and civilian traffic.
B.are always responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, and obstacles.
C.if squawking mode 3/C will be provided IFR separation from other IFR/VFR traffic by ATC.
D.may log instrument or simulated instrument time if ATC is providing obstacle/terrain and air traffic separation.
Reference: AFI 11-202, Vol 3: 3.18.
are always responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, and obstacles.
183 Regardless of the weather, an alternate is required in all cases below except:
INACTIVE
A.When destination does not have weather reporting capability and/or an unmonitored NAVAID is required for the approach.
B.When all compatible approaches require radar.
C.When the point of intended landing’s lowest compatible approach weather minimums are greater than or equal to a 1,500 ft ceiling or 3 SM visibilty.
D.When the point of intended landing’s lowest compatible approach weather minimums are greater than or equal to 3,000 ft ceiling and 5 NM visibility.
Reference: AFI 11-202, Vol 3: 4.15.3.2.1-4
When the point of intended landing’s lowest compatible approach weather minimums are greater than or equal to 3,000 ft ceiling and 5 NM visibility.
184 For a circling approach, the weather must be at or above:
INACTIVE
A.visibility minimums only.
B.ceiling minimums only.
C.VMC minimums.
D.both ceiling and visibility minimums.
Reference: AFI 11-202, Vol 3: 4.15.2.1.1.2.
both ceiling and visibility minimums.
185 During low level operations abort the route if the aircraft radar altimeter indicates less than a _____ feet terrain
clearance while at the MSA.
A.200
B.400
C.600
D.800
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 3.7.12
600
186 Avoid direct overflight (within 2000 ft) of thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 4.3.4
True
187 High-G maneuvers are defined as ___ Gs or greater.
A.5.0
B.6.0
C.7.0
D.8.0
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 5.28
7.0
188 The _____ is the waiver authority for the test sortie duration limits.
A.SQ/CC
B.FOA
C.TW/CC
D.AFTC/CC
Reference: AFI 11-2FTv3 EAFB Sup 3.6.2.1
FOA
189 Obtain clearances for Airspace for Special Use (Alpha Corridor, PIRA, Spin Areas, Supersonic Corridors and Refueling Tracks) directly through ______, either
before or after takeoff.
A.Joshua
B.Sport
C.Tower
D.Command Post
Reference: 412 TW In-flight Guide page 2-1
Sport
190 If you recognize that you have flown into a microburst during approach, pilot corrective action includes:
A.Push the power all the way up.
B.Adjust flaps/speedbrakes/spoilers to reduce drag.
C.Pull the nose up until you get takeoff pitch setting.
D.Raise gear immediately to reduce drag.
Reference: AFH 11-203 Vol 1: 10.9.10
Push the power all the way up.
191 If you are number two in a four ship on the inside of a turn and lose sight of lead you should momentarily reduce power to ensure nose-to-tail separation and
increase bank angle to 15 degress.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FT, Vol 3: 3.3.4.13.1.3
False
192 Pilots must perform a G-awareness exercise whenever ____ G or greater
are expected during the sortie.
A.three
B.four
C.five
D.six
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 5.16
five
193 Do not depart IFR unless the weather conditions at the destination, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival (ETA), is forecast to be at or
above the lowest compatible published approach minimums.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3 4.15
True
194 Performance decreasing Wind Shear causes:
A.increase in lift, decrease of airspeed
B.decrease in lift, decrease of airspeed
C.decrease in lift, increase of airspeed
D.increase in lift, increase of airspeed
Reference: AFI 11-203, Vol 1: 10.3.1
decrease in lift, decrease of airspeed
195 If you inadvertently enter a thunderstorm:
A.Don’t turn around.
B.Use airborne radar to determine the shallowest or weakest part of the storm.
C.Heavy precipitation may attenuate (absorb) your radar energy.
D.all of the above
Reference: AFI 11-203, Vol 1: 13.15.6
all of the above
196 _____ is the approval authority for operating on runways without a compatible
or operable departure end cable.
A.AFMC/CC
B.AFTC/CC
C.TW/CC
D.FOA
Reference: AFMAN 11-2FTv3 para 2.12.3.1
FOA
197 Consult the Terminal Change Notice (TCN) to ensure the _____ is current when using NGA-printed products.
A.VFR Flight
B.Standard Terminal Arrival
C.Instrument Procedure
D.all of the above
Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3 para 10.1.3
Instrument Procedure
198 Fly-over waypoints are indicated by the standard waypoint symbol enclosed in a ______.
A.Triangle
B.Circle
C.Square
D.Parenthesis
Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3 para 10.4
Circle
199 You must obtain a clearance from ATC before taxiing, proceeding onto a runway, takeoff or landing at an airport with an operating control tower.
A.True
B.False
Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3 para 3.18
True
