Buzzwords Flashcards

1
Q

Inflammatory myopathy with poor response to steroids

A

Inclusion body myositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Leg symptoms and midline shift

A

Falcine herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Back pain worse on coughing

A

Slipped disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Headache worse on coughing

A

Posterior fossa issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pleocytosis on CSF

A

Rules out bacterial meningitis (pleocytosis = increase in lymphocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Migraine prophylaxis

A

1st line: propanolol, topiramate or amitryptiline

2nd line: valproate, pizotifen, gabapentin or pregabalin (if one drug does not work by 3/12, try another)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Injury to the upper brachial plexus

A

Erb’s palsy (waiters tip)

More common, associated with shoulder dystocia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Injury to lower brachial plexus

A

Klumpke’s palsy (claw hand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

+ve simmonds test

A

Achilles tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody

A

Myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mesocortical dopamine hypoactivity

A

Negative and cognitive symptoms in schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Subcortical dopamine hyperactivity

A

Psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tuberoinfundibular dopamine pathway

A

Prolactin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nigrostriatal dopamine pathway

A

Extra pyramidal movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Subcortical and mesocortical dopamine pathways

A

(sometimes known as mesolimbic system)

Motivation and reward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the mesolimbic system responsible for?

A

Motivation and reward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mesolimbic DA blocakde

A

Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mesolimbic DA agonism

A

Psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Drugs which cause weight gain

A

Olanzapine and clozapine cause loads of weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When can you prescribe clozapine?

A

Need to have tried 2 other drugs and be a consultant to prescribe it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Limbic system functions?

A
M2OVE
Motivation
Memory
Olfaction
Visceral afferents
Emotion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Brain changes in schizophrenia

A

Reduced frontal lobe volume (and grey matter)
Enlarged lateral ventricles
Reduced grey matter in the TEMPORAL CORTEX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pressure of thought: varied ideas in abundance

A

Characteristic in mania but can be seen in schizphrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Flight of ideas and knights move thinking

A

Quickly moving from one topic to another but there is a link, unlike knights move thinking where there does not appear to be a link between point A and point B
-seen in bipolar in manic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treatment for EPSE

A

Procyclidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Involved in normal response to threat

A

Amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the PFC do?

A

Dampens down amygdala response to threat (fewer connections = less effective)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Management of OCD

A

1) SSRI
2) SSRI
3) TCA or SSRI
4) SSRI or TCA (TCA used is chlomipromine) so essentially an SSRI
If there is a partial response at any time of those points, consider CBT as an adjunct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Becks triad

A

Negative feelings about self, world and future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Problems with NMDA antagonists

A

Produce psychotic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

NMDA receptor antagonists

A

Ketamine
Dextromethorphan
Phencyclidine

(remember these can produce psychotic symptoms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

Use chlordiazepoxide

30mg qds, 25mg qds, 20mg qds, 15mg qds, 10mg qds, 10mg tds, 10mg bd, 10mg OD nocte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Eosinophilic inclusions

A

Lewy bodies (LBD and PD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What could trigger a hypertensive crisis with MAOIs

A

Interactions with tyramine containing foods, nasal congestants, TCA’s, pethidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do you treat hypertensive crisis?

A

Phentolamine infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which patient should you avoid TCA’s in?

A

Patients with cardiac problems or patients with suicidal intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cherry red spot on macula

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tear drops or blood level in sinus

A

Blow out fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Failure to adduct

A

Internuclear opthalmoplegia - issue with medial longitudinal fasciculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pain on movement

A

Optic neuritis, most commonly caused by MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Painful loss of vision at 1ks

A

Optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Curtain coming down

A

Amurosis fugax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Curtain coming down (partial) longer than five minutes

A

Retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Flashes and floaters

A

Retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Photophobia

A

Anterior uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Gritty eyes

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis or sub-tarsal foreign body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Watery and pain and preaurciular lymph nodes

A

Viral conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Silver/copper wiring

A

HTN eye disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Loss of red reflex, red eye on opthalmoscopy

A

Haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

New vessels and haemorrhage

A

Wet ARMD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Follicular conjunctivits

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pinpoint pupils

A

Pontine issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Dilated pupils

A

Trans-calcarine fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Different sized pupils

A

Damage to CN III (or sympathetic chain in horners)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Down and out, not dilated

A

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Down and out, dilated

A

CNIII damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Roth spots

A

Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Brushfield spots

A

Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Scrambled egg / egg yolk appearance of macula

A

Best disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Antepartum haemorrhage in patient with succenturiate lobe or velamentous inseration

A

Vasa praevia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Maternal blood and no fetal distress

A

Placenta praevia

MUST BE EXCLUDED BEFORE VAGINAL EXAMINATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Fetal blood and sudden fetal distress

A

Vasa praevia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Placenta accreta “doughy abdomen”

A

Insertion into myometrium post endometrial ablation –> C section and hysterectomy - always give contraception!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Fetal distress and loss of engagement, previous C section or surgery

A

Uterine rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

PPH followed by pituitary failure

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Strawberry cervic

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Prolapse and back pain

A

Uterine prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Large tense uterus “woody abdomen”, bleeding and pain

A

Placental abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

“fluid level behind drum” “retracted drum”, “dull colour”

A

Otitis media with effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Loss of corneal reflex (+ sensorineural hearing loss, vertigo and tinnitus)

A
Acoustic neuroma (vestibular schwannoma)
Associated with NFII
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Battle sign

A

Mastoid process of temporal bone fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Pearly white on otoscopy and foul, cheesy discharge

A

Cholesteatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Saddle nose

A

Wegeners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

ADHD triad

A

Hyperactive
Inattention
Impulsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Treatment for ADHD

A

Methylphenidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Triad of autism

A

Social communication, language, repetitive behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is aspergers

A

Form of autism where there is only a problem with social communication

78
Q

Statin interacts with …

A

Grapefruit juice

79
Q

Metronidazole interacts with …

A

ALCOHOL !!

80
Q

Warfarin interacts with …

A

Grapefruit juice

81
Q

Calcium and thyroxine leads to what?

A

Decrease absorption from GIT

82
Q

Warfarin and NSAID

A

Bleed

83
Q

ACEi and spironolactone

A

Hyperkalaemia

84
Q

Digoxin and verapamil

A

Digoxin toxicity

85
Q

Fluoxetine and phelezine

A

Serotonin syndrome

86
Q

When are triptans contraindicated?

A

In IHD, uncontrolled hypertension, concurrent use of LITHIUM, SSRI or ergot derivative drugs (such as cabergoline in PD)

87
Q

“stuck on” appearance

A

Basal cell papilloma (seborrhoaic keratosis)

88
Q

Picket fence pearly border

A

Basal cell carinoma

89
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis

A

Coeliac disease

90
Q

Erythema nodosum

A

Commonly sarcoidosis, also UC and TB

91
Q

Erythema bullseye lesion

A

Erythema migrans –> lime disease

92
Q

Silver scales, extensor surfaces

A

Psoriasis

93
Q

Cauliflower appearance

A

Plantar warts

94
Q

Flaccid blisters that can be burst easily to form erythematous erosions

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

95
Q

Large tense bullae that cannot be burst

A

Bullous pemphigoid

96
Q

Heliotrope rash and scaly knuckles

A

Dermatomyositis

97
Q

Fish scale skin

A

Ichthyosis

98
Q

Schistocytes

A

Intravascular haemolysis

99
Q

Pepper pot skull

A

Myeloma

100
Q

Reed sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

101
Q

9:22 location

A

Philadelphia chromosome (CML)

102
Q

Atypical lymphocytes

A

EBV (mononucleosis)

103
Q

Auer rods

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

104
Q

Itchy after a hot bath

A

Polycythemia rubra vera

105
Q

Translocation 8:14

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

106
Q

African kid with a history of EBV and tumour in face/jaws

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

107
Q

Haemarthrosis

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

108
Q

Bleeding into joint

A

Problem with seconday haemarthrosis

109
Q

Young boy with reduced levels of factor VIII and an increased APTT

A

Haemophilia A

110
Q

Reduced levels of factor IX with Christmas disease

A

Haemophilia B

111
Q

Patient has fever and pleuritic chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward

A

Pericarditis

112
Q

ECG saw tooth baseline + 150 bpm

A

Atrial flutter

113
Q

Raised JVP / hepatojugular

A

Right-sided heart failure

114
Q

Saddle shaped ST elevation

A

Pericarditis

115
Q

Broad complex tachycardia

A

Ventricular problem

116
Q

Mid diastolic murmur with a tapping, undisplaced apex

A

Mitral stenosis

117
Q

Broad QRS with slurred upstroke on R wave (delta wave)

A

Wolff parkinson white syndrome

118
Q

Patient gets pericarditis 4-6 weeks post MI

A

Dressler’s syndrome

119
Q

Blurred yellow vision headache

A

Digoxin toxicity

120
Q

Crescendo decrescendo murmur

A

Aortic stenosis

121
Q

Systolic murmur, radiates to the neck

A

Aortic stenosis

122
Q

Ground glass appearance on x-ray

A

Pulmonary fibrosis and respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn

123
Q

Miliary TB spread through pulmonary artery

A

Dissemination in lungs

124
Q

Miliary TB spread through pulmonary vein

A

Dissemination to liver, spleen and kidneys

125
Q

Positive anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpastures

126
Q

Tall, thin young man who indulges in marijuana

A

Pneumothorax

127
Q

Bronchiolar wider than neighbouring arteriole (on CT) (signet ring sign)

A

Bronchiectasis

128
Q

D sign on x-ray

A

Empyema

129
Q

“Steeple” sign on x-ray

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis / croup

130
Q

Pneumocystis pneumonia

A

HIV (treat with co-trimoxazole [and prednisolone if severe])

131
Q

Klebsiella pneumonia

A

Alcoholic/danger of aspiration pneumonia

132
Q

Mucoid sputum

A

Chlamydia psittaci

133
Q

Red jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella pneumonia

134
Q

Rusty sputum

A

Pneumococal pneumonia

135
Q

Morning headache

A

Hpercapnia or side effects of organic nitrates

136
Q

ACTH secreting lung tumour

A

SMALL CELL CARCINOMA

137
Q

PTH secreting lung tumour

A

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

138
Q

Increased ACE and Ca2+

A

Sarcoid

139
Q

Neuroendocrine, highly malignant and may be associated with ectopic endocrine syndromes

A

Small cell carcinoma

140
Q

Egg shell calcification at hilar regions

A

Silicosis

141
Q

“heart failure cells” seen in alveolar spaces

A

Macrophages that have absorbed haemosiderin - found in chronic pulmonary oedema and associated (severe) left ventricular hypertrophy
Also seen in long standing pulmonary hypertension

142
Q

Ghon focus

A

Area of infection and caseous necrosis at the periphery of the lung, beneath the pleura - found in TB infection

143
Q

Assman focus

A

Apical lesion of secondary tuberculosis infection

144
Q

Bird beak appearance (and distended oesophagus)

A

Achalasia; if in lower GI imaging, is a sign of bowel obstruction

145
Q

GET SMASHED

A
Acute pancreatitis causes:
Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune
Scorpion bites/stings
Hyperlipidemia/hyperthermia/hypercalcemia
ERCP
Drugs
146
Q

Murphy’s sign positive

A

Cholecystitis

147
Q

Pale stools, jaundice, abdo pain

A

Biliary obstruction

148
Q

Pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum

A

Crohn’s/UC

149
Q

Tinkling bowel sounds

A

Bowel obstruction

150
Q

Vesicular rash and weight loss

A

Crohn’s

151
Q

Urea breath test

A

H pylori

152
Q

13 C breath test

A

Bacterial overgrowth

153
Q

Rice water like stools

A

Vibrio cholera

154
Q

AMA

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

155
Q

ASMA

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

156
Q

Alpha feto protein assay

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma (or teratoma)

157
Q

Diuretic for ascites (due to cirrhosis)

A

Spironolactona

158
Q

Corkscrew oesophagus on barium swallow

A

Diffuse oesophageal spasm

159
Q

Severe abdo pain and diarrhoea after raw milk

A

Campylobacter

160
Q

Russels sign

A

Self induced vomitting

161
Q

Mallory hyalins bodies

A

Alcoholic liver disease (acute hepatitis) and chronic active hepatitis

162
Q

Onion skinning fibrosis

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

163
Q

Thumb printing on x-ray, commonly seen at splenic flexure

A

Ischaemic colitis

164
Q

Charcots triad

A

Acute cholangitis i.e.

Fever, jaundice and abodminal pain

165
Q

Increased shoe size, spade hands, wedding ring too tight

A

Acromegaly

166
Q

Signs of hyperthyroidism plus any eye changes, gritty eyes, smooth velvety skin

A

Graves disease

167
Q

Orphan annie nuclei

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

168
Q

Anosmia and GnRH deficiency

A

Kallmann syndrome

169
Q

Troussea sign, chvostek sign and QT prolongation on ECG

A

Hypocalcemia

170
Q

Brachydactyly of 4th metacarpal

A

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

171
Q

Wrist drop

A

Radial nerve palsy

172
Q

Dinner fork or swan’s neck deformity

A

Displaced colles fracture

173
Q

Feels like walking on pebbles

A

Advanced rheumatoid arthritis in the feet- subluxation of the metatarsophalangeal joints

174
Q

Hanging rope sign

A

AVN

175
Q

Positive anterior drawer test

A

ACL tear/rupture

176
Q

Pain in internal rotation and extension of the knee at ninety degrees

A

Lateral meniscus tear

177
Q

Dry eyes, mouth, vagina, bronchitis

A

Sicca syndrome

178
Q

Locked knee

A

Bucket handle/meniscal tear

179
Q

Shortened led and externally rotated

A

Displaced fracture neck of femur

180
Q

Shortened leg and internally rotated

A

Dislocated femoral head

181
Q

Onion peel sign

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

182
Q

Sunray spiculation

A

Osteosarcoma

183
Q

Popcorn calcifiaction

A

Chondrosarcoma

184
Q

Soap bubble appearace

A

Giant cell tumour (benign)

185
Q

Rosary bead sign

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

186
Q

Sea anenoma

A

Transitional cell carcinoma on cystoscopy

187
Q

UTI and travel to india

A

Carbapenase-producing klebsiella (resistant to all antibiotics)

188
Q

UTI with foul smelling urine and renal calculi

A

Proteus

189
Q

Bleeding of renal artery

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

190
Q

RBC casts in urine

A

Proves haematuria is glomerular

191
Q

Muddy brown casts of epithelial cells

A

Acute tubular necrosis

192
Q

Potato appearance

A

Testicular seminoma