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IMX > BUZZ1 > Flashcards

BUZZ1 Flashcards

1
Q

Most potent risk factor
for osteoarthritis

A

Age

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2
Q

Initial analgesic of
choice for osteoarthritis

A

Acetaminophen/Paracetamol

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3
Q

Maximum dose of
acetaminophen in
osteoarthritis

A

1 gram TID

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4
Q

Earliest involved joints
in rheumatoid arthritis

A

Small joints of the hands and
feet

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5
Q

Subluxation of the 1st
MCP joint with
hyperextension of the
1st IP joint

A

Z-line deformity

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6
Q

Nodular RA,
splenomegaly and
neutropenia

A

Felty’s syndrome

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7
Q

DMARDs in RA

A

Methotrexate (first-line)
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide

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8
Q

Onset of action of
DMARDs

A

6 to 12 weeks (delayed)

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9
Q

Most serious toxicities
associated with use of
hydroxychloroquine

A

Irreversible retinal damage
Cardiotoxicity
Blood dyscrasia

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10
Q

Triple therapy in RA

A

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine

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11
Q

Avoid in G6PD
deficiency

A

Sulfasalazine

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12
Q

Category X DMARDs

A

Methotrexate
Leflunomide

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13
Q

Monitoring of serum
creatinine, CBC and liver
function tests during
methotrexate therapy

A

2 to 3 months

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14
Q

Biological in RA by
inhibiting the costimulation
of T-cells by
blocking CD28-CD80/86
interactions

A

Abatacept

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15
Q

TB screening required
prior to initiation of the
following biologics

A

TNF-α inhibitors (infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, golimumab)
Abatacept, Anakinra
IL-6 inhibitors (tocilizumab, sarilumab)

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16
Q

Hallmark features of
psoriatic arthritis

A

Dactylitis, enthesitis

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17
Q

Most common acute
rash in SLE

A

Malar rash

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18
Q

Most common chronic
dermatitis in SLE

A

Discoid rash

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19
Q

Autoantibody in
subacute cutaneous
lupus

A

Anti-Ro (SS-A)

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20
Q

Anti-arrhythmic causing
drug-induced lupus

A

Procainamide
Disopyramide
Propafenone

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21
Q

Anti-hypertensives
causing drug-induced
lupus

A

Hydralazine
Methyldopa
ACE inhibitors
Beta-blockers

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22
Q

Anti-biotics causing
drug-induced lupus

A

Isoniazid
Minocycline
Nitrofurantoin

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23
Q

Other drugs causing
drug-induced lupus

A

Propylthiouracil
Chlorpromazine
Lithium

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24
Q

Positively birefringent,
rhomboid-shaped
crystals in synovial fluid

A

Calcium pyrophosphate (CPPD)

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25
Q

Negatively birefringent,
needle-shaped crystals
in synovial fluid

A

Urate (Gout)

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26
Q

Treatment of Raynaud’s
phenomenon

A
  • Nonpharmacologic: dress
    warmly, avoid cold exposure,
    avoid drugs that exacerbate
    vasospasm
  • Pharmacologic: Amlodipine,
    diltiazem, ARBs, alphablockers
    and PDE5-inhibitors
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27
Q

Maximum dose of
metformin in patients
with normal renal
function

A

2550 mg per day

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28
Q

Contraindications to
metformin use

A

eGFR < 30
Lactic acidosis
Severe hepatic failure

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29
Q

Diabetes drugs that can
cause weight loss

A

Metformin
α-glucosidase inhibitors
GLP1 receptor agonists
SGLT2 inhibitors

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30
Q

Diabetes drugs that are
weight neutral

A

DPP4 inhibitors

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31
Q

Diabetes drugs that can
cause weight gain

A

Insulin
Sulfonylureas
Thiazolidinediones

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32
Q

Diabetes drugs that can
cause hypoglycemia

A

Insulin
Sulfonylureas

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33
Q

Vitamin deficiency
associated with
metformin use

A

Vitamin B12

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34
Q

FDA approved drugs for
the treatment of painful
diabetic neuropathy

A

Pregabalin
Duloxetine
Tapentadol

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35
Q

Insulin with the longest
duration of action

A

Insulin degludec

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36
Q

Long-acting insulin with
fatty acid side chain

A

Insulin determir

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37
Q

Diabetes drug
associated with C-cell
hyperplasia in rats

A

GLP1 receptor agonists

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38
Q

SGLT2 inhibitor
associated with risk of
lower limb amputation

A

Canagliflozin

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39
Q

DPP4 inhibitor associated
with heart failure

A

Saxagliptin

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40
Q

Most common cause of
Cushing syndrome

A

Exogenous steroids

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41
Q

Most common cause of
Cushing disease

A

ACTH secreting pituitary
adenoma

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42
Q

Treatment of choice for
Cushing disease

A

Transsphenoidal surgical
resection

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43
Q

Medical treatment of
Cushing syndrome in
pregnancy

A

Metyrapone

44
Q

Order of trophic
hormone deficiency in
pituitary tumor
syndromes

A

GH > FSH > LH > TSH > ACTH

45
Q

Receptor for dopamine
agonists

A

D2

46
Q

Receptors for
somatostatin receptor
analogues

A

SST2 and SST5

47
Q

Only anabolic agent
used for the treatment
of osteoporosis

A

Teriparatide

48
Q

Monoclonal antibody for
RANKL

A

Denosumab

49
Q

Rare adverse effects of
bisphosphonates

A

Atypical femoral fracture
Osteonecrosis of the jaw

50
Q

Drug of choice in
hypercalcemia of
malignancy

A

Zoledronic acid

51
Q

Bisphosphonates that
can be used in GERD

A

Zoledronic acid (IV form)
Pamidronate (IV form)

52
Q

Anti-hypercalcemic
agent that provides
analgesic effect in
vertebral fractures

A

Calcitonin

53
Q

Associated with
tachyphylaxis

A

Calcitonin

54
Q

Anti-hypercalcemic
agent of choice in ESRD

A

Denosumab

55
Q

PTU-associated
vasculitis

A

p-ANCA positive vasculitis

56
Q

Drugs that inhibit
peripheral conversion of
T4 to T3

A

Propylthiouracil
Propranolol
Glucocorticoids

57
Q

Drugs that decrease
absorption of
levothyroxine

A

Aluminum-containing antacids
Ferrous sulfate
Calcium carbonate
Sucralfate

58
Q

Doubling of statin dose
can decrease LDL-C by
how much?

A

6%

59
Q

High intensity statins

A

Rosuvastatin 20 – 40 mg
Atorvastatin 40 – 80 mg

60
Q

Channel blocked by
ezetimibe

A

NPC1L1

61
Q

Only known drug that can
increase HDL-C levels

A

Niacin

62
Q

Major adverse effect of
orlistat

A

Steatorrhea, oily stools

63
Q

Anti-obesity drug with
the greatest amount of
weight loss

A

Phentermine/topiramate

64
Q

GLP1 receptor agonists
used for weight loss

A

Liraglutide
Semaglutide

65
Q

Most commonly
performed bariatric
surgery procedure

A

Sleeve gastrectomy

66
Q

Beta blockers with
mortality benefit in
heart failure

A

Bisoprolol
Carvedilol
Metoprolol succinate

67
Q

Beta blockers with mixed
beta and alpha blockade

A

Carvedilol
Labetalol

68
Q

Beta blockers with
partial agonist activity

A

Acebutolol
Pindolol

69
Q

Beta blocker with
potentiation of nitric
oxide activity

A

Nebivolol

70
Q

Heart failure drug that
decreases circulating
natriuretic peptides and
left atrial size?

A

Sacubitril-valsartan

71
Q

1st line drug for SVT

A

Adenosine (IV)

72
Q

No termination on IV
adenosine

A

IV Ibutilide + AV nodal-blocking
agent
IV procainamide + AV nodalblocking
agent

73
Q

Treatment of choice for
multifocal atrial
tachycardia

A

Treat underlying cause

74
Q

Epsilon waves are seen
on ECG in which
condition?

A

Arrthymogenic right ventricular
cardiomyopathy

75
Q

Underlying cause of
“holiday heart”

A

Acetaldehyde

76
Q

Features of cardiac
tamponade

A

(-) KY = no Kussmaul’s and no Ydescent

77
Q

Patient with an ECG
showing both irregular
atrial and ventricular rates

A

Multifocal atrial tachycardia
Atrial fibrillation

78
Q

Mechanism of
arrhythmogenesis in
patients with Torsades
de Pointes

A

Early after depolarizations

79
Q

Distinctive elevation of
the J point described as
a convex hump on ECG

A

Hypothermia

80
Q

Duration of symptoms
for diagnosis of major
depressive disorder

A

2 weeks

81
Q

Major requirement in the
diagnostic criteria for
major depressive disorder

A

Depressed mood or
characterized by a loss of
pleasure or interest

82
Q

Pathology most
commonly associated
with adult respiratory
distress syndrome

A

Diffuse alveolar damage

83
Q

Signs/symptoms seen in
meningitis

A

Kernig’s, Brudzinski’s, Jolt
accentuation maneuver

84
Q

Average GFR of 57-yearold
man

A

93 ml/min/1.73 m2

85
Q

Associated most with
depression

A

Anti-hypertensive

86
Q

Bleeding/hemorrhage in
the delicate innermost
layers of the meninges

A

Intracerebral

87
Q

Segmental vitiligo

A
  • Mostly unilateral
  • Differs in cause and frequency
    of associated illness
  • Early onset and more rapid
    progression
  • Treatment in the same as that
    of non-segmental vitiligo
88
Q

Translation of viral
genome in dengue fever

A

Cytoplasm

89
Q

Serum sodium of semiconscious
75-year-old
man with heat stroke

A

128 mEq/L

90
Q

Epidermis

A
  • Cells are continually shred
    from the stratum corneum
  • It assists the immune system
    in warding off pathogens
  • Nourishment is mainly
    provided by diffusion
91
Q

Petechial rash in
meningococcal
meningitis

A
  • Rapidly spreading
  • Non-blanching
  • Purple or red spots
  • Small and irregular
92
Q

Tests for detecting H.
pylori

A
  • Urea breath test
  • Serum antibody measurement
  • Stool antigen
  • Urease activity detection
93
Q

Complications of
meningoencephalitis

A
  • Disseminated intravascular
    coagulation
  • Myocarditis
  • Sepsis
94
Q

Distance accomplished in the
walk distance test in patients
with chronic lung problems
associated with fair to good
prognosis

A

240 m

95
Q

Plasmodium species
that causes serious or
severe malaria

A

Falciparum

96
Q

Nephrotic syndrome

A
  • > 3.5g/day proteinuria
  • Hypoalbuminemia
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Lipiduria
97
Q

Male adolescent with
glomerulonephritis,
hearing and visual
impairment, and
abnormal deposition of
collagen in the eyes and
middle ear

A

Alport Syndrome

98
Q

Most frequent cause of
bacterial meningitis
next to Neisseria
meningitidis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

99
Q

Most likely cause of
meningitis in patients
with HIV-AIDS negative
for meningococcemia

A

Fungal

100
Q

Most likely cause of
meningitis in patients
with HIV-AIDS negative
for meningococcemia

A

Fungal

101
Q

Positive and negative
predictive value of
positive Murphy’s sign

A

70%

102
Q

Malaria species that can
cause mild disease

A

Vivax, Ovale, Malariae

103
Q

Retinal whitening

A

Cerebral malaria with
encephalopathy

104
Q

Genetic variation in
dengue viruses

A

Generally endemic in multiple
regions, with establishment
into additional territories

105
Q

Rabies

A

Caused by a lyssavirus thru
animal bite

106
Q

Polyarthritis of
Rheumatic fever

A

Wrists and elbows going to
shoulders and cervical area

IMX (6 decks)

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