Buzz Words 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Interferon Gamma effect on lungs with infections

A

Pulmonary cavitations secondary to tuberculosis

-Granuloma formation

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2
Q

Transforming Growth Factor-bets

A

Scar formation after injury and plays a role in fibrosis seen with chronic inflammation

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3
Q

HIV, multiple ring-enhancing lesions, seizures

A

Cerebral Toxoplasmosis

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4
Q

Treatment for Cerebral Toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimenthamine and sulfadiazine

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5
Q

Astrocyte CNS Tumor

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

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6
Q

Test to screen Cystic-fibrosis related diabetes?

A

OGTT

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7
Q

Glutamic acid to LYSINE

A

at position 6 in beta globin chain = Hemoglobin C disease; ly-C-ne

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8
Q

Glutamic acid to VALINE

A

at position 6 in beta globin chain = Sickle Cell Disease

VA-SICKLE-INE

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9
Q

Hydrophobic interaction among hemoglobin molecules

A

Sickle Cell Disease

HbS has a hydrophobic pocket because of the glu-val

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10
Q

Impaired oxygen unloading of hemoglobin

A

Carboxyhemoglobin

due to an allosteric change that increases the affinity of the remaining 3 oxygen-binding sites

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11
Q

Location of the SA node

A

Right atrium near

SUPERIOR VENA CAVA

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12
Q

Location of the AV Node

A

Right Atrium near

the SEPTAL CUSP OF THE TRICUSPID VALVE

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13
Q

Hematoma over mastoid process + Periorbital ecchymoses (+ cleat otorrhea)

A

basilar skull fracture

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14
Q

Parasthesia with orbital floor fracture

A

numbness of upper cheek, upper lip, upper gingiva secondary to infraorbital (CN V) damage

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15
Q

Abdominal organ supplied by an artery of the foregut even though the organ itself is not a foregut derivative

A

Spleen
from the mesoderm of the dorsal mesentery
splenic artery from the celiac trunk

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16
Q

S3 and S4 are best heard..

A

with the bell of the stethoscope over the cardiac apex while the patient is in the left lateral decubitus position and listening at end expiration (decrease lung volume and bring heart closer to the chest wall)

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17
Q

MOA of Oseltamivir in Treatment of Influenza

A

Inhibits virion particle release
Neuraminidase inhibitor

neuraminidase is required for the release of virus from infected cells and for the spread of virus within the respiratory track; reducies spread of virus to other host cells.

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18
Q

Last to change in normal respiratory mucosa from trachea to alveolar ducts

(Cartilage/Cilia/Goblet Cells/Mucous Glands/Serous Glands)

A

CILIA!!!

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19
Q

Genetic Testing: Analyze for the presence of mRNA

to determine whether a gene is being TRANSCRIBED

A

Northern Blot

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20
Q

Genetic Testing: Analyze for the presence of DNA

A

Southern Blot

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21
Q

Genetic Testing: Analyze for the presence of Protein

to determine whether a gene is being EXPRESSED

A

Western Blot

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22
Q

Genetic Testing: Analyze for the presence of DNA-bound protein

A

SouthWestern Blot

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23
Q

Testing: Test commonly employed to measure the amount of a protein in body fluids

A

ELISA

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay

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24
Q

Progressive motor weakness over the course of the day;

A

Myasthenia gravis

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25
Q

Decreased compound muscle action potential amplitude on electromyography with repeated excitation

A

Myasthenia gravis

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26
Q

Myasthenia gravis is antibodies against what?

A

postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

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27
Q

Step in collagen synthesis impaired in Ehlers-Danlos

A

N terminal propeptide removal defect

impaired peptide removal results in the formation of soluble collagen that does not properly crosslink

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28
Q

Microbio Test: Selective medium containing Vancomycin, Colistin, Nystatin, and Trimethoprim

A

Thayer-Martin Medium to identify Neisseria

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29
Q

What is the Chemoreceptor trigger zone that induces vomiting

A

Area Postrema

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30
Q

Where is the chemoreceptor trigger zone?

A

Dorsal surface of the medulla at the caudal end of the 4th ventricle

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31
Q

Damage to the nerves within the fascia of the prostate can cause

A
Erectile dysfunction 
(Cavernous Nerves)
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32
Q

Cremasteric reflex

What nerve?

A

Genitofemoral Nerve

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33
Q

Fecal incontinence, Decreased penile sensation, External Urethral Sphincter Paralysis
What nerve damaged?

A

Pudendal Nerve

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34
Q

Polyuria:
Serum Sodium - HIGH
Urine osmolality after water deprivation - NO CHANGE/MILD INCREASE
Urine osmolality after vasopressin injection - LARGE INCREASE

A

Central Diabetes insipidus

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35
Q

Polyuria:
Serum Sodium - HIGH
Urine osmolality after water deprivation - NO CHANGE/MILD INCREASE
Urine osmolality after vasopressin injection - MILD INCREASE

A

Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

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36
Q

Polyuria:
Serum Sodium - LOW
Urine osmolality after water deprivation - INCREASE
Urine osmolality after vasopressin injection - NO ADDITIONAL INCREASE

A

Primary polydypsia

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37
Q

Polyuria:
Serum Sodium - NORMAL
Urine osmolality after water deprivation - INCREASE
Urine osmolality after vasopressin injection - NO ADDITIONAL INCREASE

A

Normal

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38
Q

circulating immune complexes, pediatric disease

A

Henoch schonlein purpura

IgA antigen immune complexes

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39
Q

disseminated purpura

A

meningococcemia or disseminated gonococcus

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40
Q

purpura limited to the lower extremities

A

Henoch schonlein purpura

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41
Q

Nerve injury common from abdominal retractors during laparotomy (psoas muscle)

A

Genitofemoral nerve –> labial/scrotal anesthesia

42
Q

Nerve injury common during closure of Pfannensteil skin incisions (eg Cesarean section)

A

Iliohypogastric nerce –> burning pain and paresthesias

43
Q

Nerve injury common during retroperitoneal pelvic lymph node dissection

A

Obturator Nerve –> loss of medial thigh sensation and inability to adduct the thigh

44
Q

Pudendal nerve block markers

A

medial to ischial spine, through the sacrospinous ligament

45
Q

Antifungal
Binds ergosterol
Pore Formation

A

Amphotericin B

46
Q

Antifungal

Inhibits both DNa and RNA in fungal cells

A

Flucytosine

47
Q

Antifungal

Binds microtubules and inhibits mitosis

A

Griseofulvin

48
Q

Antifungal

Inhibits ergosterol synthesis

A

Azoles

and Terbinafine

49
Q

Tumor Lysis Syndrome
Increased uric acid
Uric acid becomes stones because of ____

A
acidic environments (low pH)
e.g. distal tubules and collecting ducts
50
Q

Biliary tract disease, cholangiocarcinoma

Parasite?

A

Clonorchis sinensis

51
Q

Brain cysts, seizures

Parasite?

A

Taenia solium

52
Q

Hematuria, Squamous cell bladder cancer

Parasite?

A

Schistosoma haematobium

53
Q

Liver (hydatid) cysts

Parasite?

A

Echinococcus granulosum

54
Q

Microcytic anemia

Parasite?

A

Ancylostoma

Necator

55
Q

Myalgias, Periorbital edema

Parasite?

A

Trichinella spiralis

56
Q

Perianal pruritus

Parasite?

A

Enterobius

57
Q

Portal hypertension

Parasite?

A

Schistosoma mansoni

Schistosoma japonicum

58
Q

Vitamin B12 Deficiency

Parasite?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

59
Q

Receptors used by CMV?

A

Integrins (heparin sulfate)

60
Q

Receptors used by EBV?

A

CD21 (B lymphocytes)

61
Q

Receptors used by HIV?

A

CCR5, CD4, CXCR4

62
Q

Receptors used by Parvovirus B19?

A

P antigen on RBCs

63
Q

Receptors used by Rabies?

A

Nicotinic AChR

64
Q

Receptors used by Rhinovirus?

A

ICAM-1

65
Q

Exposure to air contaminated by animal waste (e.g. farms) –> pneumonia, thrombocytopenia

A

Q Fever

Coxiella burnetii

66
Q

Pathogenicity: Activation of Electrolyte Transport

A

Irreversible activation of Gs

Vibrio Cholerae

67
Q

Pathogenicity: Blockade of Neurotransmitter Release

A

Blockade of ACh - Clostridium botulinum

Blockade of GABA and Glycine - Clostridium tetani

68
Q

Pathogenicity: Cellular Membrane Disruption

A

Phospholipase/Lecithenase - Clostridium perfringens

69
Q

Pathogenicity: Impairment of Protein Synthesis

A

Inhibition of protein syntheisis by ADP-ribosylation of EF-2
Diphtheria Toxin
Corynebacterium diphtheriae

70
Q

Pathogenicity: Widespread T Cell activation

A

Superantigen

Staph - Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin

71
Q

Pathogenicity: Actin depolymerization

A

Clostridium difficile

Toxin B –> pseudomembranous colitis

72
Q

Pathogenicity; plasminogen activator

A

Streptokinase - Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep)

73
Q

Food poisoning from: Reheated rice

A

Bacillus cerues

74
Q

Food poisoning from: Improperly canned foods (toxin) / honey (spores)

A

Clostridium botolinum

75
Q

Food poisoning from:

Reheated meat

A

Clostridium perfringens

76
Q

Food poisoning from:

Undercooked meat

A

E Coli O157:H7

77
Q

Food poisoning from:

Deli meats, soft cheeses

A

Listeria monocytogenes

78
Q

Food poisoning from:

Poultry, meat, and eggs

A

Salmonella

79
Q

Food poisoning from:

Meats, mayonnaise, custard

A

Staphylococcus aureus

80
Q

Food poisoning from:

Contaminated seafood

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Vibrio vulnificus

81
Q

Bloody diarrhea, liver abscess

A

Entamoeba histolytica

82
Q

Bloody diarrhea, pseudoappendicitis, day care outbreak

A

Yersinia enterolitica

83
Q

Cave exploration in Ohio

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

84
Q

Recent travel to Arizona

A

Coccidioides immitis

85
Q

Pigeon droppings

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

86
Q

buy AT 30

CCEL at 50

A

Aminoglycosides (gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, streptomycin)
Tetracycline (doxycycline)

Chloramphenicol
Clindamycin
Erythromycin (Macrolides)
Linezolid

87
Q

Cowdry Type A inclusions

A

HSV

88
Q

Temporal Lobe Encephalitis

A

HSV

89
Q

Pareventricular Subependyma encephalitis

A

CMV

90
Q

Greatly enlarged oligodendrocyte nuclei with glassy amorphic viral inclusions

A

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) / JC Virus

91
Q

Microglial nodules containing multinucleated giant cells

A

chronic HIV encephalitis

92
Q

Hypoglycemia but NO acetoacetate after prolonged fasting

A

Hypoketotic Hypoglycemia - either Primary Carnitine Deficiency or Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase Deficiency

93
Q

Mushrooms that cause hepatotoxicity because alpha amanitin inhibits…

A

RNA polymerase II – mRNA

94
Q

Promoter region : Site where RNA polymerase II bind

A

TATA box

95
Q

Acanthocytes on peripheral smear

A

abetalipoproteinemia

96
Q

Crumpled silk histiocytes on BM biopsy

A

Gaucher disease

97
Q

Globoid cells on brain biopsy

A

Krabbe disease

98
Q

Metachromatic deposits on sural nerve biopsy

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

99
Q

Sea blue histiocytes on BM biopsy

A

Niemann-Pick Disease

100
Q

Increased IDLElevated Cholesterol AND TAG

A

Apolipoprotein E abnormality

Type II Hyperlipoproteinemia