Bug List (Quiz 2) Flashcards

1
Q

Nocardia gram staining

A

Gram positive bacillus (branching filamentous)

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2
Q

Non-spore-forming, Exogenous pathogen

A

Nocardia species

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3
Q

interferes with phagosomal-lysosomal fusion

A

Cord factor (Nocardia species)

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4
Q

inactivates ROS

A

Catalase and superoxide dismutase (Nocardia species)

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5
Q

Nocardia species catalase ___

A

positive

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6
Q

Nocardia species obligate ___

A

aerobe

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7
Q

Nocardia species motility

A

non-motile

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8
Q

Nocardia species stain

A

partially/slowly acid-fast

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9
Q

Nocardia species stain partially/slowly acid-fast due to

A

mycolic acid in cell membrane

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10
Q

Nocardia species stain partially/slowly acid-fast using

A

carbon fuchsin dye

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11
Q

Nocardia species colony appearance

A

Fluffy colony appearance (NoCardio, you get fluffy)

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12
Q

infiltrates, multifocal nodules, cavitary lesions (often misdiagnosed as tuberculosis) in lungs; pneumonia-like symptoms

A

Nocardia species pulmonary disease presentation

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13
Q

brain abscesses, ring-enhancing lesions on CT

A

Nocardia species CNS disease presentation

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14
Q

due to direct inoculation or disseminated pulmonary infection

A

Nocardia species cutaneous disease presentation

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15
Q

Risks: immunocompromised patients

A

Nocardia species

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16
Q

Nocardia species found in

A

soil

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17
Q

Transmission via inhalation or traumatic inoculation

A

Nocardia species

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18
Q

More common in men

A

Nocardia species

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19
Q

Nocardia species treatment

A

Sulfonamides (SNAP, Sulfonamides with Nocardia, Actinomyces with Penicillin)

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20
Q

No antibody resistance

A

Nocardia species and Actinomyces species

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21
Q

Actinomyces species gram staining

A

Gram positive bacillus (branching filamentous)

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22
Q

Actinomyces species gram unique morphology

A

Sulfur granules

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23
Q

Non-spore-forming

Endogenous pathogen

A

Actinomyces species

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24
Q

Actinomyces species catalase ___

A

negative

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25
Q

Actinomyces species obligate ___

A

anaerobe

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26
Q

Actinomyces species motility

A

non-motile

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27
Q

Non-acid-fast

A

Actinomyces species

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28
Q

Tooth-shaped colony appearance

A

Actinomyces species

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29
Q

Cervicofacial disease following oral/jaw trauma (including dental procedures)

A

Actinomyces species

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30
Q

Firm skin abscesses in face or neck, eventually form cutaneous sinus tracts that drain hard yellow granules

A

Actinomyces species

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31
Q

Part of normal oral, vaginal, and GI flora; Risk: tissue injury (usually near mouth)

A

Actinomyces species

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32
Q

Risk: tissue injury (usually near mouth)

A

Actinomyces species

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33
Q

Actinomyces species treatment

A

Penicillin (SNAP, Sulfonamides with Nocardia, Actinomyces with Penicillin)

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34
Q

Bacteroides fragilis gram staining

A

Gram negative bacillus

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35
Q

Non-spore-forming, Encapsulated (polysaccharide)

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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36
Q

Bacteroides fragilis obligate ___

A

anaerobe

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37
Q

Intraabdominal infections/abscesses

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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38
Q

Part of normal gut flora, Risk: incident to cause break in gut mucosal surface

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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39
Q

Beta-lactamases confer resistance to penicillin

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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40
Q

One of the most frequent causes of anaerobic infections

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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41
Q

Fusobacterium species gram staining

A

Gram negative bacillus

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42
Q

Non-spore-forming, Potent endotoxin

A

Fusobacterium species

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43
Q

Fusobacterium species obligate ___

A

anaerobe

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44
Q

Dental infections, Deep space neck infections

A

Fusobacterium species

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45
Q

Part of normal oral, vaginal, and GI flora, Risk: recent dental work or mouth injury

A

Fusobacterium species

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46
Q

Fusobacterium species treatment

A

Antibiotics

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47
Q

Clostridium tetani gram staining

A

Gram positive bacillus

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48
Q

Drumstick/tennis racquet-like appearance

A

Clostridium tetani

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49
Q

Spore-forming (metabolically inactive)

A

Clostridiums

50
Q

Tetanus toxin

A

tetanospasmin

51
Q

travels via retrograde axonal transport to spinal cord

A

Tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin); Clostridium tetani

52
Q

protease that cleaves SNARE proteins –> inhibition of GABA and glycine (inhibitory) release from Renshaw cells in spinal cord, irreversible binding

A

Tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin); Clostridium tetani

53
Q

Clostridium tetani catalase ___

A

negative

54
Q

Clostridium tetani oxidase ___

A

negative

55
Q

Clostridium tetani obligate ___

A

anaerobe

56
Q

Clostridium tetani motility

A

motile (flagella)

57
Q

eismus (lockjaw), risus sardonicus (“evil smile”), opisthotonos (arched back)

A

Rigid paralysis (Clostridium tetani)

58
Q

Puncture wounds from barbed wire and rusty nails, Ubiquitous in soil

A

Clostridium tetani

59
Q

Clostridium tetani treatment

A

Tetanus immunoglobulin-neutralizes unbound toxin

60
Q

Clostridium tetani prevention

A

Toxoid vaccine (deactivated tetanus toxin, often given with DTaP)

61
Q

Clostridium botulinum gram staining

A

Gram positive bacillus

62
Q

protease that cleaves SNARE proteins –> inhibition of presynaptic release of acetylcholine (excitatory) at neuromuscular junction

A

Botulinum toxin (Clostridium botulinum)

63
Q

Clostridium botulinum catalase ___

A

negative

64
Q

Clostridium botulinum oxidase ___

A

negative

65
Q

Clostridium botulinum obligate ___

A

anaerobe

66
Q

Clostridium botulinum motility

A

motile (flagella)

67
Q

Flaccid paralysis (descending)

A

Clostridium botulinum

68
Q

Ptosis, diplopia, slurred speech, Respiratory muscle failure

A

Clostridium botulinum

69
Q

“Floppy baby syndrome”

A

Clostridium botulinum

70
Q

Transmitted via improperly canned food in adults (ingestions of preformed spores)

A

Clostridium botulinum

71
Q

Transmitted via honey in infants (ingestion of spores)

A

Clostridium botulinum

72
Q

can colonize in GI tract of infants as their gut flora is not yet fully developed

A

Clostridium botulinum

73
Q

Ingestions of ___ Clostridium botulinum in adults

A

preformed spores

74
Q

Ingestions of ___ Clostridium botulinum in infants

A

spores

75
Q

In infants, antibiotic use is contraindication

A

Clostridium botulinum

76
Q

In infants, ventilatory support is needed due to weakness of respiratory muscles

A

Clostridium botulinum

77
Q

Clostridium perfringens gram staining

A

Gram positive bacillus

78
Q

cleaves lecithin (phospholipid), damages cell membrane

A

Alpha toxin (lecithinase) (Clostridium perfringens)

79
Q

Clostridium perfringens alpha toxin

A

lecithinase

80
Q

hemolytic activity

A

Theta toxin (Clostridium perfringens)

81
Q

Clostridium perfringens ___ hemolysis

A

beta

82
Q

Clostridium perfringens catalase ___

A

negative

83
Q

Clostridium perfringens oxidase ___

A

negative

84
Q

Clostridium perfringens motility

A

non-motile

85
Q

Clostridium perfringens obligate ___

A

anaerobe

86
Q

Double zone of beta-hemolysis on blood agar

A

Clostridium perfringens

87
Q

Necrotizing skin, soft tissue infection

A

Clostridium perfringens

88
Q

Myonecrosis (gas gangrene, hemolysis)

A

Clostridium perfringens

89
Q

Late-onset food poisoning (watery diarrhea)

A

Clostridium perfringens

90
Q

Associated with motorcycle accidents and military combat wounds

A

Clostridium perfringens

91
Q

Clostridium perfringens found in

A

soil; undercooked/contaminated meats

92
Q

Clostridium perfringens treatment

A

Penicillin (first line of treatment)

93
Q

Clostridium difficile gram staining

A

Gram positive bacillus

94
Q

recruits neutrophils to site of infection and stimulates cytokine release, disrupting tight junctions in intestinal tract and increasing permeability and fluid secretion

A

Toxin A (Clostridium difficile)

95
Q

interferes with actin polymerization, increasing permeability of intestinal wall

A

Toxin B (Clostridium difficile)

96
Q

Toxic megacolon

A

Clostridium difficile

97
Q

Clostridium difficile catalase ___

A

negative

98
Q

Clostridium difficile oxidase ___

A

negative

99
Q

Clostridium difficile obligate ___

A

anaerobe

100
Q

Clostridium difficile motility

A

motile (flagella)

101
Q

detects toxin-encoding genes

A

NAAT (nucleic acid amplification) (diagnosing Clostridium difficile)

102
Q

uses antibodies to detect toxins

A

EIA (enzyme immunoassay) (diagnosing Clostridium difficile)

103
Q

Stool testing for glutamate dehydrogenase via EIA (does not distinguish toxigenic vs nontoxigenic)

A

diagnosing Clostridium difficile

104
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis (yellow-white exudates on surface of colonic mucosal cells)

A

Clostridium difficile (DIFFiCult, DIarrhea and Colitis)

105
Q

Watery, foul smelling diarrhea (high-volume)

A

Clostridium difficile (DIFFiCult, DIarrhea and Colitis)

106
Q

Leukocytosis, fever

A

Clostridium difficile

107
Q

Part of normal gut flora (toxigenic and nontoxigenic strains)

A

Clostridium difficile

108
Q

Transmission via fecal-oral route (ingestion of spores)

A

Clostridium difficile

109
Q

Nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infection

A

Clostridium difficile

110
Q

Antibiotics (disruption of gut microbiome): clindamycin, fluoroquinolones, cephalosporins, penicillins

A

Clostridium difficile

111
Q

Proton pump inhibitors (decreased stomach acidity = germination of spores)

A

Clostridium difficile

112
Q

Wash hands with soap (resistant to alcohol-base hand sanitizers)

A

Clostridium difficile

113
Q

Contact precautions in hospital

A

Clostridium difficile

114
Q

Clostridium difficile first line of treatment

A

Oral vancomycin

115
Q

Clostridium difficile treatment for severe infection

A

IV metronidazole

116
Q

Fecal microbiota transplant (recurrent infection)

A

Clostridium difficile

117
Q

“No Card Game for Old Men” sketchy

A

Nocardia species

118
Q

“Israeli Soldier” sketchy

A

Actinomyces species

119
Q

“Rhesus Research Revolution” sketchy

A

Clostridium tetani

120
Q

“Robotulism” sketchy

A

Clostridium botulinum

121
Q

“Private Ringen’s Motorcycle Accident” sketchy

A

Clostridium perfringens

122
Q

“Chocolate Factory” sketchy

A

Clostridium difficile