BSS Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Acute phase proteins

A
CRP
procalcitonin
ferritin
fibrinogen
alpha-1 antitrypsin
caeruloplasmin
serum amyloid A
haptoglobin
complement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

During the acute phase response the liver decreases the production of other proteins (sometimes referred to as negative acute phase proteins)

A
albumin
transthyretin (formerly known as prealbumin)
transferrin
retinol binding protein
cortisol binding protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ECG - What does P wave represent?

A

Represents the wave of depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria
Lasts 0.08 to 0.1 seconds (80-100 ms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ECG - What does PR INTERVAL represent?

A

Represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization
Time from the onset of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex
Ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ECG- What does QRS complex represent?

A

Represents ventricular depolarization

Duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ECG - What does ST segment represent?

A

Isoelectric period following the QRS
Represents period which the entire ventricle is depolarized and roughly corresponds to the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ECG- What does T wave represent?

A

Represents ventricular repolarization and is longer in duration than depolarization
A small positive U wave may follow the T wave which represents the last remnants of ventricular repolarization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ECG- What does QT interval represent?

A

Represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur, and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential.
Interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate.
At high heart rates, ventricular action potentials shorten in duration, which decreases the Q-T interval. Therefore the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval (interval between ventricular depolarizations). This allows an assessment of the Q-T interval that is independent of heart rate.
Normal corrected Q-Tc interval is less than 0.44 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ECG features in hypokalemia?

A
U waves
Small or absent T waves (occasionally inversion)
Prolonged PR interval
ST depression
Long QT interval

In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is the oxygen dissociation curve shifted to the left?

A

curve is shifted to the left when there is a decreased oxygen requirement by the tissue

Shifts to Left = Lower oxygen delivery
HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
low [H+] (alkali)
low pCO2
low 2,3-DPG
low temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is the oxygen dissociation curve shifted to the Right?

A
Shifts to Right = Raised oxygen delivery
raised [H+] (acidic)
raised pCO2
raised 2,3-DPG*
raised temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Triad of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

A

Acute confusion
Ataxia
Ophthalmoplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When do refeeding symptoms occur?

A

If patient not eaten for > 5 days, aim to re-feed at < 50% energy and protein levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

High risk for re-feeding problems

A

ONE of following:
BMI < 16 kg/m2
Unintentional weight loss >15% over 3-6 months
Little nutritional intake > 10 days
Hypokalaemia, Hypophosphataemia or hypomagnesaemia prior to feeding (unless high)

Two of following
BMI < 18.5 kg/m2
Unintentional weight loss > 10% over 3-6 months
Little nutritional intake > 5 days
History of: alcohol abuse, drug therapy including insulin, chemotherapy, diuretics and antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Factors stimulating renin secretion?

A
Hypotension causing reduced renal perfusion
Hyponatraemia
Sympathetic nerve stimulation
Catecholamines
Erect posture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Spleen function?

A

Filtration of abnormal blood cells and foreign bodies such as bacteria.
Immunity: IgM. Production of properdin, and tuftsin which help target fungi and bacteria for phagocytosis.
Haematopoiesis: up to 5th month gestation or in haematological disorders.
Pooling: storage of 40% platelets.
Iron reutilisation
Storage monocytes

17
Q

What does white pulp in spleen do?

A

Immune function. encompasses approximately 25% of splenic tissue. White pulp consists entirely of lymphoid tissue.

18
Q

What is the function of Red pulp (spleen)?

A

Filters abnormal red blood cells.

19
Q

Definition of lung compliance

A

Lung compliance is defined as change in lung volume per unit change in airway pressure
More stretchy

20
Q

Causes of increased lung compliance?

A

Causes of increased compliance
age
emphysema - this is due to loss alveolar walls and associated elastic tissue

21
Q

Causes of decreased lung compliance

A

pulmonary oedema
pulmonary fibrosis
pneumonectomy
kyphosis

22
Q

Which drugs cause pseudohaematuria?

A

Rifampicin, phenytoin, levodopa, methyldopa, and quinine

23
Q

syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH): causes

A

Malignancy
especially small cell lung cancer
also: pancreas, prostate

Neurological
stroke
subarachnoid haemorrhage
subdural haemorrhage
meningitis/encephalitis/abscess

Infections
tuberculosis
pneumonia

Drugs
sulfonylureas
SSRIs, tricyclics
carbamazepine
vincristine
cyclophosphamide

Other causes
positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
porphyrias

24
Q

Normal Gap Acidosis: HARDUP

A
H - Hyperalimentation/hyperventilation
A - Acetazolamide
R - Renal tubular acidosis
D - Diarrhoea
U - Ureteral diversion
P - Pancreatic fistula/parenteral saline
25
Q

Causes of a raised TLCO

A
asthma
pulmonary haemorrhage (Wegener's, Goodpasture's)
left-to-right cardiac shunts
polycythaemia
hyperkinetic states
male gender, exercise
26
Q

Causes of a lower TLCO

A
pulmonary fibrosis
pneumonia
pulmonary emboli
pulmonary oedema
emphysema
anaemia
low cardiac output
27
Q

KCO also tends to increase with age. Some conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO

A

pneumonectomy/lobectomy
scoliosis/kyphosis
neuromuscular weakness
ankylosis of costovertebral joints e.g. ankylosing spondylitis

28
Q

Mnemonic for the causes of hypercalcaemia:

CHIMPANZEES

A
C alcium supplementation
H yperparathyroidism
I atrogentic (Drugs: Thiazides)
M ilk Alkali syndrome
P aget disease of the bone
A cromegaly and Addison's Disease
N eoplasia
Z olinger-Ellison Syndrome (MEN Type I)
E xcessive Vitamin D
E xcessive Vitamin A
S arcoidosis
29
Q

Somatostatin - function

A

Somatostatin is produced in the D cells of the pancreatic islets. It is also produced in the gut (enterochromaffin cells) and is found in brain tissue. Those substances that stimulate insulin release will also induce somatostatin secretion. It is an inhibitor of growth hormone, it also delays gastric emptying and reduces gastrin secretion.
It reduces pancreatic exocrine secretions and may be used therapeutically to treat pancreatic fistulae.

Somatostatinomas are rare pancreatic endocrine tumours and will result in the clinical manifestations of diabetes mellitus, gallstones and steatorrhoea.

30
Q

Actions of adrenaline on ALPHA adrenergic receptors cause?

A

α adrenergic receptors:
Inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas
Stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle
Stimulates glycolysis in muscle

31
Q

Actions of adrenaline on β adrenergic receptors:

A

Stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas
Stimulates ACTH
Stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

32
Q

Fluid physiology of a physiologically normal adult

A

The 60-40-20 rule:
60% total body weight is water
40% of total body weight is intracellular fluids
20% of body weight is extracellular fluids
Males typically have more water per unit weight than females, as females have a higher fat content.

33
Q

Aldeosterone

1) What is it? Where is it produced
2) What activates it?
3) What action does it cause, where does it act

A

1) Steroid hormone produced by zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex.
2)Part of RAAS and also ACTH, Hyponatraemia, Hyperkalaemia and hypovolaemia
3) Acts on distial tububle of kidney. Regulates Na+/K+ and H20 balance. Increases Na+ K+ permeability causes Resorption of Na+ and H20 in exchange for K+
Also acts on collecting ducts and secrete H+ ions

34
Q

Describe JVP wave

ASKME

A

a Wave - atrial contraction - abscent in AF, prominent in TS, or RV hypertrophy
c wave - Right ventricular contraction + bulging of tricuspid valve on to RA
X descent - Rapid atrial filling due to atrial relaxation (klosed tricuspid) - - Absent in TR
V descent - Maximal atrial filling, prominent in pericarditis
Y - emptying of atrium absent in Tamponade

35
Q

3 Characteristics of Diabetes insipidus

A

Polyuria
Polydipsia
Dilute urine