Brooklyn 9 Flashcards
Question 1:
The FDNY primarily communicates at fires and emergencies using HT radios (Motorola XTS-3500, Mode;s I and III) programmed on ultra high frequency (UHF) band (406-512 frequencies). The radios are programmed using analog technology with both simplex and duplex channels. Which channels are considered the duplex channels?
A: Channels 11, 12, 14, 15
B: Channels 1-8
C: Channels 1-8 and 10, 13, 16
D: Channels 10, 13, 16
E: Channel 9
A: Channels 11, 12, 14, 15
Explanation:
11 and 12 are used during Auxiliary Radio Communications Systems (ARCS) and channels 14 and 15 are used during subway emergencies
B- Simplex channels during a “Base Station Leaky Cable System”
C- Simplex channels
D- Digital channel, reserved for future use
Communications ch 13 sec 1.1
Question 2:
Which type of photovoltaic electrical system is typically used with larger solar panel systems and is also known as “universal mounting” because it can be installed both on rooftops as well as on the ground?
A: Stand-mounted
B: Flush-mounted
C: Integrated design
D: Circular System
A: Stand-mounted
AUC 351 4.1
Question 3:
Which choice below is not considered an URGENT message?
A: A member discovering another member with a non life threatening injury that requires medical attention
B: Interior attack discontinued
C: Collapsed feared
D: Missing FF located
E: Fire entering an exposure
D: Missing FF located
This is a MAYDAY message
Communications ch 9 page 8
URGENTS start at sec 9.4.2
Question 4:
Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding the The Ogura Cordless Rebar Cutter?
A: It is designed for cutting maximum 1” diameter high tensile rebar, tensile fastening bolts, locks and treaded rod.
B: The support handle can be installed either on the left, right and top side of the cutting head.
C: Position the tool so it is at 45 degrees to the rebar to be cut.
D: The tool has ‘high speed mode’ and ‘high torque mode’. It will select the operating mode automatically, according to the work load. The mode indicator, located on the handle, will light up when the tool is in ‘high torque mode’.
C: Position the tool so it is at 45 degrees to the rebar to be cut.
Explanation:
Position the tool so it is at 90 degrees to the rebar to be cut. If the tool is not at 90 degrees to the rebar it can cause shaking and overload the tool.
TB Tools 28 DS 2 3.1, 3.4, 3.6, 4.4
Whether units are responding to alarms for an unconscious person or operating at a building fire, members must avoid contact when the drug “fentanyl” if it is suspected to be in the area of operation. If members are contaminated, all of the following are the correct ways to decontaminate except?
A: If member had direct skin contact, member should, as soon as possible, wash area with soap and water
B: If member had direct skin contact, member should, as soon as possible, wash area with soap and water while avoiding alcohol-based hand disinfectants or bleach solutions
C: All clothing (work duty uniform and/or under garments) contaminated or suspected of being contaminated should be removed and laundered being careful not to disturb any areas of contamination
D: If PPE is exposed during fire operations, the member wearing the PPE shall, as soon as possible, be wet down with copious amounts of water to immediately reduce the amount of exposure
D: If PPE is exposed during fire operations, the member wearing the PPE shall, as soon as possible, be wet down with copious amounts of water to immediately reduce the amount of exposure
Explanation:
Lightly wetted. (sprayed with just enough to wet the gear and not excessively drip off)
Haz Mat 18 sec 5
Know this bulletin
Question 6:
All of the following choices contain correct information regarding the electronic riding list (EBF-4) except?
A: Chief and Company Officers shall submit a Preliminary or Final EBF-4 at the start of each tour.
B: Both members actually riding on the apparatus, as well as members detailed to another unit, should be included on a particular unit’s EBF-4 for the tour.
C: The final EBF-4 shall be updated anytime during the tour as necessary (e.g., ML during tour, early relief, manpower change, reduced staffing).
D: A preliminary EBF-4 is appropriate when a unit is awaiting further manpower for the tour. Members awaiting relief shall be included on the Preliminary EBF-4 pending arrival of details. A final EBF-4 is appropriate when all members for the tour have reported for duty and are assigned riding positions.
B: Both members actually riding on the apparatus, as well as members detailed to another unit, should be included on a particular unit’s EBF-4 for the tour.
Explanation:
Only members ACTUALLY RIDING on the apparatus of that unit shall be included on the unit EBF-4. Do not include members detailed to another unit for the tour.
AUC 346 2.2 - 2.4
Question 7:
The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter will alarm when?
A: LEL-10 percent O2- 23.5 percent (oxygen enriched) O2- 19.5 percent (oxygen deficient)
B: LEL-20 percent O2- 23.5 percent (oxygen enriched) O2- 19.5 percent (oxygen deficient)
C: LEL-10 percent O2- 30 percent (oxygen enriched) O2- 19.5 percent (oxygen deficient)
D: LEL-5 percent O2- 30 percent (oxygen enriched) O2- 19.5 percent (oxygen deficient)
A: LEL-10 percent O2- 23.5 percent (oxygen enriched) O2- 19.5 percent (oxygen deficient)
Explanation:
Also- a series of XXX will show under the COMB/EX indicates the atmosphere is above 100 percent of LEL
a series of crosses along the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 30 percent oxygen
Emergency Procedures Natural Gas add 2 sec 2.5, 4.1, 5.3
Question 8:
If no supervisor is present on-scene at a Fire Department incident, and a press inquiry does not interfere with Department operations, members may respond to press inquiries with certain, non-confidential information. Which should not be disseminated by members?
A: The hospital(s) to which the patient(s) or victim(s) are being transported.
B: The number of patients or victims, if known.
C: The type of incident or event.
D: The type of injuries sustained.
D: The type of injuries sustained.
Explanation: Members shall NOT discuss the condition of patient(s) or victim(s), the care provided or other confidential information. Acronym: Hot New Topic Hospital Number of victims Type of incident AUC 332 3.4.3
Question 9:
During taxpayer fires, a Roof Sector Supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof operations. This could a chief or company officer as designated by the IC. As a Roof Sector Supervisor, choose the most correct tactic used during a Taxpayer fire.
A: Generally, vertical openings are made at the roof level. Scuttles, skylights or covers of former skylights that are located away from the main body of fire should be opened first
B: The roof cut for vertical ventilation must be large enough to cause the bulk of the heat, smoke and gases being produced by the fire to vent in that direction and away from the advancing hose line. A hole 3x6 is recommended
C: If trenching is to be implemented, take skylight returns close to the trench, as soon as possible, to assist in venting
D: The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two saws and four members on the roof
D: The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two saws and four members on the roof
Explanation:
A- Scuttles, skylights or covers of former skylights that are located over or NEAR the main body of fire should be opened first
B- 8x8 is recommended
C- Leave skylights returns in place where the skylights are to be used as an effective trenching boundary
Taxpayers pages 28-29
Question 10:
Knowledge of the SCBA is crucial to all Fire Department Officers. Of the following choices, which is described incorrectly?
A: The Pressure Reducer Assembly (PRA), mounted on the left side of the backframe, reduces the high pressure breathing air received from the cylinder. The PRA normally reduces the operating pressure to 100 psi before entering the regulator’s low pressure hose.
B: A malfunction of the PRA’s primary system will automatically direct breathing air into a secondary system. When this occurs, the operating pressure will only be reduced to 150 psi and will cause the vibralert alarm to activate.
C: Failure of both the primary and secondary systems in the open position will activate a Relief Valve in the PRA, which will rapidly discharge all pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere. When this occurs, the cylinder valve should be remain fully open, permitting the member to maximize use of the limited air remaining.
D: When the primary and/or secondary system malfunctions, the member must notify their officer and immediately leave the contaminated area. This member must be accompanied to a safe area by another member using a SCBA.
C: Failure of both the primary and secondary systems in the open position will activate a Relief Valve in the PRA, which will rapidly discharge all pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere. When this occurs, the cylinder valve should be remain fully open, permitting the member to maximize use of the limited air remaining.
Explanation:
Failure of both the primary and secondary systems in the open position will activate a Relief Valve in the PRA, which will rapidly discharge all pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere. When this occurs, the cylinder valve should be PARTIALLY CLOSED, allowing only a minimal amount of air to release, permitting the member to both breathe and conserve air.
TB SCBA 3.6
You have just received a ticket to respond as a CFRD Engine on the transmission of a 10-66 signal. Knowing the books well, the CFRD Engine shall report where upon arrival?
A: Command Post
B: Staging area
C: Secondary staging area
D: There is no CFRD Engine on the transmission of a 10-66
A: Command Post
Explanation:
On transmission of the next higher alarm, which is part of signal 10-66, all units other than Rescue, Squad, SOC Support Ladder, FAST Unit, and CFRD Engine, shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a Staging Area until ordered to the scene.
MMID ch 5 sec 3.2
Question 12:
The air cylinder supplying the maxi-force air bag system should be changed when the high pressure gauge?
A: reads 200 psi
B: falls below 200 psi
C: reads 220 psi
D: falls below 220 psi
B: falls below 200 psi
TB Tools 20 3.1.4 Note
Question 13:
The most correct ventilation definition can be found in which choice?
A: Modern content fires are largely comprised of hydrocarbons and synthetics which slowly consume the available oxygen in the air as they burn at a greater rate than legacy content fires
B: Modern content fires do not become ventilation limited fires due to their higher fuel load
C: Legacy content fires enter an early decay stage due to the limited available oxygen, producing heavy smoke and varying heat conditions
D: The stages of a modern content fire are 1) Incipent, 2) rapid growth stage, 3) early oxygen limited decay stage, 4) rapid growth stage, 5) fully developed stage, 6) second decay stage
D: The stages of a modern content fire are 1) Incipent, 2) rapid growth stage, 3) early oxygen limited decay stage, 4) rapid growth stage, 5) fully developed stage, 6) second decay stage
Explanation:
A- Modern content fires are largely comprised of hydrocarbons and synthetics which RAPIDLY consume the available oxygen in the air as they burn at a greater rate than legacy content fires
B- Modern content fires QUICKLY become ventilation limited fires due to their higher fuel load
C- MODERN content fires enter an early decay stage due to the limited available oxygen, producing heavy smoke and varying heat conditions
Ventilation sec 2.1.6
Which characteristic of low rise fireproof multiple dwellings is listed incorrectly?
A: They will vary in height, generally from three to seven stories.
B: They may contain one single stairway or two remote stairways. These stairways may be open or enclosed.
C: They will always be equipped with standpipe systems.
D: They may have elevators.
C: They will always be equipped with standpipe systems.
Explanation:
Usually not equipped with standpipe systems, thus requiring a hand stretched hoseline, supplied by a pumper.
MD 7.2
Question 15:
Lt Horthorn is the first arriving officer for a report of a Bio-Detection System (BDS) at a United States Postal Service (USPS) facility. Lt Horthorn responded to the initial emergency response meeting point where he made contact with the USPS Liaison, and transmitted what signal for a confirmed BDS activation?
A: 10-75 for an emergency
B: 10-80
C: 10-80-1
D: 10-80-2
B: 10-80
Explanation:
** The USPS Liaison may need to be decontaminated
Any additional units above the initial assignment shall proceed to the pre-designated Fire Department Staging Area
Haz Mat ch 14 sec 6.2
Question 16:
When a Brownstone building is fully involved, arriving Engine Companies would be correct to take all of the following actions except?
A: The first arriving Engine Company should drop two hoselines in front of the fire building and position the apparatus for the possible use of the multiversal nozzle or to supply a TL.
B: The first hoseline should be advanced into the fire building. The second hoseline should be advanced into the fire building as a back-up hoseline.
C: The third hoseline will be stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander and may be advanced into the fire building, or if fire is reported in an exposure, stretched to that exposure.
D: The third hoseline will be stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander and may be advanced into the fire building, or if there is no fire in the exposures, operate on the exterior of exposure 1 of the fire building.
D: The third hoseline will be stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander and may be advanced into the fire building, or if there is no fire in the exposures, operate on the exterior of exposure 1 of the fire building.
Explanation:
or if there is no fire in the exposures, stretched through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building.
Bwst 3.4