Brooklyn 11 Flashcards
Question 1:
The CORRECT decontamination procedure involving PPE can be found in which choice?
A: For fireground contamination involving just the PSS, the PSS shall be decontaminated in qtrs using a sponge and water. (A mild detergent may be used)
B: If bunker pants, coat, and PSS have been grossly contaminated by other than fireground contamination, all three items shall be placed in double (two) clear bags, tied or taped closed. An EDR-1 shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes
C: Prior to forwarding contaminated PPE, remove all items from pockets (e.g. coins, nails, tools, pens, etc). Place items in double (two) BLACK bags, tied or taped closed. An EDR-1 shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes
D: Prior to forwarding contaminated PPE, remove all items from pockets (e.g. coins, nails, tools, pens, etc). Place items in double (two) RED bags, tied or taped closed. An EDR-1 shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes
A: For fireground contamination involving just the PSS, the PSS shall be decontaminated in qtrs using a sponge and water. (A mild detergent may be used)
Explanation:
AUC 310 add 5…..new as of 3/29/2019
A- When the PSS has been grossly contaminated by other than fireground contamination; it shall be bagged separately
B- The PSS system shall not be bagged with bunker coat and pants….2.5
C- Clear bags….2.3
D- Clear bags…2.3
IN BOLD….RED OR BLACK BAGS WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED….2.4
Also: Radios, tools and other HARD surface items shall be decontaminated in quarters with a chlorine bleach solution as per CFRD Manual ch 3
Question 2:
Choose the most CORRECT information when the TAC “U” channel is activated
A: Zone “A” channel 13 is designated the TAC “U” channel. This channel transmits at 2 watts
B: All FDNY Units will have the capability to operate on the TAC “U” channel
C: When the TAC “U” channel is activated, all operating units shall switch to Zone “A” channel 13
D: The yellow FAST Unit HT does NOT have the capability to operate on the TAC “U” channel
B: All FDNY Units will have the capability to operate on the TAC “U” channel
Explanation:
Communications ch 14 add 2
A- 5 watts…..2.1
B- Correct….3.1
C- All operating units shall remain on the Primary Tactical Channel unless specifically instructed to switch to another channel….3.3
D- The yellow FAST Unit HT has the capability to operate on the TAC “U” channel….3.3.2 Note
Question 3:
The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is an efficient compact and easy to maneuver portable monitor. Choose the INCORRECT statement made in regards to the Blitzfire.
A: The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor shall be inspected weekly
B: The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor shall be supplied with one 3 1/2 supply line
C: The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor should not be operated at more than 175 psi inlet pressure with any type of solid stream or fog nozzle
D: When using solid stream tips with the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor the 1 1/4 and 1 1/2 tips shall be used. The 2” solid stream tip should not be used
B: The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor shall be supplied with one 3 1/2 supply line
Training Bulletins Tools 38 A- sec 10.1 B- One 2 1/2" supply line....7.1 C- sec 7.3 D- sec 7.5
Question 4:
The correct DOT numerical classification for Radioactive Material can be found in which choice?
A: 5
B: 6
C: 7
D: 8
C: 7
Explanation: Haz-Mat ch 2 sec 2.1 Acronym: Every Good Lieutenant Standard Operating Procedure Requires Coordinated Members E- Explosives G- Gases L- Liquids S- Solids O- Oxidizers P- Poisions R- Radioactive Material C- Corrosives M- Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods
Question 5:
The member monitoring EFAS shall be identified by which correct radio designation?
A: L-100 Can EFAS to Command
B: EFAS L-100 Can to Command
C: L-100 EFAS Can to Command
D: EFAS to Command
D: EFAS to Command
Explanation:
Communications ch 9 add 3 sec 2.3.note
“EFAS to Command” “Command to EFAS”
Question 6:
Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) Units have been formed to augment the Hazardous Materials Group in incidents where contaminated victims are encountered. On arrival, the CPC Officer shall ensure all of the following except?
A: The first arriving CPC Unit Officer will recommend to the IC the Entry Point into the Hot Zone
B: The CPC Unit Officer shall not don a chemical protective suit unless the situation indicates that a suit is required in order to properly supervise the unit’s operation…..e.g. Entry team would not be in line of sight
C: At large incidents with multiple victims, make sure non-ambulatory victims are addressed first
D: Have the back-up team assume the standby position, which is both legs in suit, outer boots and surgical gloves on, SCBA donned, cylinder opened, face piece on, but regulator disengaged from face piece, right arm in suit and identity tag in place
C: At large incidents with multiple victims, make sure non-ambulatory victims are addressed first
Haz-Mat 5 CPC Units
AMBULATORY victims should be addressed first
They should be directed to a predetermined CCP where they can be decontaminated and then treated in the Cold Zone by medical personnel who are not restricted by having to wear CPC …. sec 9
A- 5.1
B- 5.1
D- 7.2
Question 7:
The cockloft nozzle is designed to extinguish fires in the confined space of any building with a cockloft. The cockloft nozzle should never be the primary attack line and is only to be used when supported and protected by an additional conventional handline. Which units carry the cockloft nozzle?
A: Battalion and Division vehicles
B: Division vehicles only
C: Battalion vehicles only
D: Squad Companies and Division vehicles
D: Squad Companies and Division vehicles
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Tools 7 DS 18 sec 2.2
When using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP Multiple Dwelling, the preferred location for operation is immediately inside the apartment door. This is to provide members with a degree of protection provided by the public hallway …3.3
Prior to using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP Multiple Dwelling, consideration shall be given to cutting a vent hole over the main body of fire…3.2
The “Cargo Manifest” can be found in which choice?
A: Truck
B: Railroad
C: Aircraft
D: Ships
D: Ships
Explanation:
Haz-Mat ch 2 sec 4.4
A- Truck….”Bill of Lading” is kept in the cab within reach of the driver
B- Railroad….”Waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine
C- Aircraft…..”Airbill” is kept by the pilot
D- Correct….”Cargo Manifest” is kept by the master or first mate
Question 9:
The CORRECT procedure for a CFRD Engine to communicate to an EMS unit already on scene can be found in which choice?
A: Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 1 with the unit designation (e.g. “Engine 100 to EMS”)
B: Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 3 with the unit designation (e.g. “Engine 100 to EMS”)
C: Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 10 with the unit designation (e.g. “Engine 100 to EMS”)
D: Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 13 with the unit designation (e.g. “Engine 100 to EMS”)
A: Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 1 with the unit designation (e.g. “Engine 100 to EMS”)
Explanation:
Communications ch 14 add 1 sec 2.2
B- Channel 3 is Secondary tactical
C- When the use of HT channel 1 is impractical, EMS/Fire frequency (Channel 10) may be used at non-fire emergencies to facilitate communications…..2.4.Note
D-Channel 13 is TAC “U”….FD/PD interagency…….Communications ch 14 add 2 sec 1.1
If the CFRD unit is on-scene first, EMS will initiate contact with CFRD unit (e.g. “EMS 17 Adam to Engine 100”) on HT channel 1
Question 10:
Certain conditions are indicative of a Major Gas Emergency and may require changing from a simple mitigation strategy to one that emphasizes all efforts on securing life safety (including utility personnel and first responders). Which choice below most correctly lists these conditions? 1. Serious damage to major components of the gas infrastructure. 2. 10% LEL or greater detected outside or inside. 3. Elevated natural gas reading (10% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure (manhole, sewer, etc.) 4. Gas present in one or more subsurface structures (manhole, sewer, etc.) 5. Indications of gas migrating into a building from an outside source. 6. Gas leaking inside of a structure and the controlling valve cannot be located or is inoperable. 7. Gas leaking or present inside of a wall or void in a structure
A: 1,2,5,6,7
B: 1,2,3,5,7
C: 2,4,5,6,7
D: 1,3,4,5,6,7
A: 1,2,5,6,7
Explanation:
3. Elevated natural gas reading (20% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure (manhole, sewer, etc.)
4. Gas present in TWO OR MORE subsurface structures (manhole, sewer, etc.)
1. NOTE: This includes serious damage to a Master Meter servicing many appliances, gas service pipe, Main Valves, Distribution Mains, etc.
EP Gas 5
Question 11:
The Department has provided all Ladder Companies with two types of natural gas investigative tools. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding Department tactics and strategy with these tools?
A: The Natural Gas Detector and Natural Gas Meter complement each other and both shall be utilized when investigating suspected natural gas leaks.
B: The Natural Gas Detector is the superior tool for locating leaks in appliances (stoves), supply piping (joints) and points of entry into a building (cracks).
C: The Natural Gas Meter is a superior tool for identifying areas in which it is no longer safe to operate.
D: Small amounts of gas are inherently safe and will not pose risk of serious injury to members.
D: Small amounts of gas are inherently safe and will not pose risk of serious injury to members.
Explanation:
Even small amounts of natural gas can cause serious injuries to unprotected members from flash fires.
EP Gas 6.4
Question 12:
A BC conducting drill with local units on gas emergencies had to address which incorrect comment made?
A: An “Explosion Profile” is the size-up of a building’s explosion potential based on the current amount of natural gas and gas energy within the structure. To determine this, the amount of natural gas present and the size of the area the gas is accumulating in should be estimated.
B: A 10-75 and 10-80 Code 1, specifying a “Major Gas Emergency,” should be transmitted to the dispatcher when an incident is determined to be a Major Gas Emergency.
C: The IC may modify the assignment assigned on a 10-75 and 10-80 Code 1 for a “Major Gas Emergency” to meet incident needs after careful consideration and consultation with the Rescue Battalion via cell phone (preferred) or 800 MHz radio.
D: When a 10-75 and 10-80 Code 1 specifying a “Major Gas Emergency” is transmitted, the IC should also transmit the location of the designated Command Post and Staging Area.
C: The IC may modify the assignment assigned on a 10-75 and 10-80 Code 1 for a “Major Gas Emergency” to meet incident needs after careful consideration and consultation with the Rescue Battalion via cell phone (preferred) or 800 MHz radio.
Explanation:
The IC may modify the assignment assigned on a 10-75 and 10-80 Code 1 for a “Major Gas Emergency” to meet incident needs after careful consideration and consultation with the HAZ-MAT BATTALION via cell phone or 800 MHz radio (PREFERRED).
EP Gas 7.2, 7.3
Question 13:
Sound strategy at gas emergencies can be found in which choice below?
A: The officer not put to work by the IC should be the Safety Officer until relieved by the assigned Battalion Chief designated as the Safety Officer.
B: As soon as possible, the IC should transmit to the dispatcher a concise description of the conditions, % LEL of meter readings taken with the locations, and tactics implemented.
C: Stopping a leak from a high pressure main will generally require the Utility Company construction crew plug or clamp (squeeze) the pipe to interrupt natural gas flow. The request should be made as early as possible to allow for the long reflex time for this resource.
D: Medium and low pressure natural gas mains present much greater risk as large amounts of gas will escape. Stopping a leak generally involves the Utility Company finding and operating the correct upstream valves to interrupt the flow of natural gas.
B: As soon as possible, the IC should transmit to the dispatcher a concise description of the conditions, % LEL of meter readings taken with the locations, and tactics implemented.
Explanation:
A) The officer not put to work by the IC should be the STAGING AREA MANAGER until relieved by the assigned Battalion Chief designated as the Staging Area Manager.
C) Stopping a leak from a LOW PRESSURE main will generally require the Utility Company construction crew plug or clamp (squeeze) the pipe to interrupt natural gas flow. The request should be made as early as possible to allow for the long reflex time for this resource.
D) MEDIUM and HIGH pressure natural gas mains present much greater risk as large amounts of gas will escape. Stopping a leak generally involves the Utility Company finding and operating the correct upstream valves to interrupt the flow of natural gas.
EP Gas 7.3, 8
Question 14:
You arrive at a gas emergency where a backhoe damaged a gas line in an excavation located in the middle of a residential neighborhood. Which tactic implemented below would be considered incorrect?
A: Check subsurface structures and surrounding basements/cellars for natural gas infiltration from the original leak, or secondary leaks as soon as possible.
B: Set up precautionary hose lines to control possible extension in case the natural gas ignites. Operate a hoseline into the excavation to protect against ignition and hasten isolation and repair.
C: Large caliber streams should be considered as their reach and volume is appropriate for defensive use. If the natural gas ignites, do not extinguish the fire but cool adjacent structures as necessary to prevent extension from radiant heat.
D: Locate valve locations if outside of the potential blast zone and create access for the Utility Company if blocked by vehicles, etc. (consider floor jacks, Hurst tool chains, NYPD Towing, resources through NYCEM, etc.) Relay valve identification numbers and locations to the Utility Company if representatives are not yet on scene.
B: Set up precautionary hose lines to control possible extension in case the natural gas ignites. Operate a hoseline into the excavation to protect against ignition and hasten isolation and repair.
Explanation:
AVOID operating into the excavation, as water accumulation here can impede isolation and repair.
Note: It is possible to have a natural gas leak where the backhoe was operating, another leak at the building line or in the building, and still another one at a coupling or where the service pipe connects to the Distribution Main. These additional leaks can go unnoticed and accumulate to explosive levels.
EP Gas 8 1
Question 15:
Which choice below displays an incorrect tactic for a major subsurface gas leak?
A: Use meters to determine how much natural gas has accumulated. From this, an estimate can be made as to the location/size of the potential blast zone; evacuate this area, keeping all personnel, except for trained Utility Company Personnel, outside of the potential blast zone.
B: Establish the potential blast zone and continue to monitor the perimeter for changes. Mark the potential blast zone with red, “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape and announce the potential blast zone boundaries over the handie-talkie and Department Radio.
C: Meter readings should be taken at subsurface structures (sewers and manholes) as natural gas may travel along sewer runs, and electric, gas or water conduit/pipe. Gas from a leaking pipe may travel some distance before finding a place to surface as pavement, snow or frozen ground can trap it underground.
D: As rapidly as possible, surrounding below-grade areas of adjacent buildings should be surveyed with meters. Natural gas may pass some buildings with little or no infiltration but enter others via points of entry and wall cracks. Continue to monitor exposures throughout the operation.
A: Use meters to determine how much natural gas has accumulated. From this, an estimate can be made as to the location/size of the potential blast zone; evacuate this area, keeping all personnel, except for trained Utility Company Personnel, outside of the potential blast zone.
Explanation:
evacuate this area, keeping ALL personnel (including responders and Utility Company personnel) out of the potential blast zone except for direct, lifesaving efforts.
EP Gas 8 2
Question 16:
A Company Commander drilling with his members on interior gas leak procedures made which incorrect statement?
A: If the Natural Gas Meter displays any readings at the building entrance/first floor, the Ladder Company Inside Team should go directly to the basement/cellar to investigate. Do not delay by going to a caller on an upper floor.
B: If the leak is found and can be controlled by a valve or, on low pressure service (or medium/high pressure service after the service regulator) by tapping/plugging, then do so.
C: If the leak is found and levels can be kept at less than 80% LEL by venting, you may continue to operate.
D: If levels can be kept at less than 80% LEL, remove ignition sources (shut breakers, pull fuses, shut off gas appliances, etc.) This may be done from an area whether or not it is in the explosive range.
D: If levels can be kept at less than 80% LEL, remove ignition sources (shut breakers, pull fuses, shut off gas appliances, etc.) This may be done from an area whether or not it is in the explosive range.
If levels can be kept at less than 80% LEL, remove ignition sources (shut breakers, pull fuses, shut off gas appliances, etc.) ONLY if this can be done from an area not within the explosive range.
EP Gas 8 3
Question 17:
Your unit responds to a report of a gas leak inside of a building but the location of the leak cannot be found. Which consideration below is incorrect?
A: If the leak is not found, investigate the structure’s natural gas meters; if one is showing high gas flow, shut it using the Meter Valve, Head of Service Valve or curb valve/service valve. When possible, always shut the valve closest to the leak.
B: Treat the affected area as a “Potential Blast Zone” if levels cannot be limited to less than 20% LEL by venting and the leak cannot be found and there are indications the leak is coming from an outside, subsurface source.
C: The size of the potential blast zone shall include the area likely to be affected by structural collapse. This zone will be determined by the Incident Commander and identified by red, “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape.
D: Utility Companies and FDNY Haz-Mat Company 1, Haz-Mat Technician Units and SOC Support Ladder Companies are equipped with detectors designed for detecting natural gas in voids.
B: Treat the affected area as a “Potential Blast Zone” if levels cannot be limited to less than 20% LEL by venting and the leak cannot be found and there are indications the leak is coming from an outside, subsurface source.
Explanation:
Treat the affected area as a “Potential Blast Zone” if levels cannot be limited to less than 10% LEL by venting and the leak cannot be found and there are indications the leak is coming from an outside, subsurface source.
EP Gas 8 3
Question 18:
Many restrictions come with the designation of an area as a “potential blast zone.” Which choice below is incorrect?
A: Apparatus should not be located within the potential blast zone; members may temporarily enter a potential blast zone to move apparatus. The number of members and time spent operating in the potential blast zone should be kept to a minimum and allow for rapid evacuation.
B: The potential blast zone will include streets, yards or alleys on all sides of the involved building. Exposures may be included in the potential blast zone if likely to be affected by an explosion.
C: Other agencies should be prevented from entering the potential blast zone unless they are involved in direct, life-saving procedures; this includes Utility Company personnel.
D: Extreme care shall be exercised before re-entering a building that was in the potential blast zone. Natural gas levels in surrounding areas should be absent or low as the potential blast zone is redefined based upon all information gathered before allowing any members, including Utility Company personnel, back in.
A: Apparatus should not be located within the potential blast zone; members may temporarily enter a potential blast zone to move apparatus. The number of members and time spent operating in the potential blast zone should be kept to a minimum and allow for rapid evacuation.
Explanation:
Apparatus should not be located within the potential blast zone; however, do NOT enter a potential blast zone to move apparatus. The number of members and time spent operating in the potential blast zone should be kept to a minimum and allow for rapid evacuation.
EP Gas 9
Question 19:
There are few reasons for a member to enter the potential blast zone at a gas emergency. Which choice below is incorrect?
A: The quick evacuation of likely occupants is a permissible tactic inside of the potential blast zone. This should be done with minimum exposure of members and minimum time spent in the potential blast zone.
B: Removing ignition sources and venting are not options within the potential blast zone.
C: Reconnaissance is not a permissible reason to be inside of the potential blast zone.
D: It is permissible to enter the potential blast zone for purposes of power removal.
D: It is permissible to enter the potential blast zone for purposes of power removal.
Explanation:
No amount of reconnaissance, venting or power removal is worth a first responder’s life. Other than rapid evacuation no other actions inside of the potential blast zone should be warranted.
EP Gas 9.1
Question 20:
Safety inside of the potential blast zone at a gas emergency is paramount. All choices below contain correct information regarding safety in this area except?
A: Do not use door bells as this may trigger an electric spark; knock on doors.
B: Static electricity can cause ignition. When knocking on doors, strive to stand on doormats outside of apartments; likewise, traversing across carpeted areas is preferable to hard surfaces.
C: Known life hazards and people needing assistance should be helped using standard removal techniques. Minimize the time spent inside of the potential blast zone.
D: Ensure only intrinsically safe equipment is utilized.
B: Static electricity can cause ignition. When knocking on doors, strive to stand on doormats outside of apartments; likewise, traversing across carpeted areas is preferable to hard surfaces.
Explanation:
AVOID standing on doormats inside of the building; likewise, AVOID traversing across carpeted areas.
EP Gas 9.1.1
Question 21:
Currently, the only FDNY-issued powered equipment that are intrinsically safe (can be used in a potentially explosive atmosphere) include all of the following except?
A: Handie-talkies
B: Flashlights issued by the FDNY
C: Thermal Imaging Cameras
D: Natural Gas Detectors and Natural Gas Meters
C: Thermal Imaging Cameras
Explanation:
Do not use any powered equipment that is not intrinsically safe inside of the potential blast zone. Thermal Imaging Cameras, Ventilation Fans, Cell Phones and Megaphones are not intrinsically safe.
Megaphones may be used OUTSIDE of the potential blast zone to issue instructions to the public.
As a precaution, intrinsically safe equipment should be powered on in a clear environment and remain on until returned to a clear environment.
EP Gas 9.1.2
Question 22:
One tactic employed at a gas emergency is “rapid evacuation” which will allow members to locate and rescue civilians from an explosive environment, while limiting their exposure to potential extreme hazards. This is significantly different from primary searches conducted at fires and is accomplished with as few members in the potential blast zone as possible to cover the greatest area, and exit the potential blast zone in the shortest time possible. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding this tactic?
A: Evacuation should be via an available stairway; elevators should not be used.
B: It is conducted by knocking on doors and moving from door to door to alert occupants; the intent is to alert occupants to self-evacuate. If no one answers the door to an area or apartment, members should employ forcible entry procedures.
C: Assistance can be provided to people with special needs or those requiring assistance.
D: Occupants should be notified there is potential for a natural gas explosion and they are not to turn on lights or use cell phones or any other electronic devices and must evacuate immediately by orders of the Fire Department.
B: It is conducted by knocking on doors and moving from door to door to alert occupants; the intent is to alert occupants to self-evacuate. If no one answers the door to an area or apartment, members should employ forcible entry procedures.
Explanation:
If no one answers the door to an area or apartment, members should MOVE ON TO THE NEXT DOOR. When forcible entry is REQUIRED in an explosive environment it should be accomplished using equipment and techniques that will limit the chance of causing a spark.
EP Gas 9.1.3
Question 23:
Which consideration below is incorrect regarding the Department’s “rapid evacuation” tactic at a Major Gas Emergency?
A: When required, conventional forcible entry involving the use of an axe to strike the Halligan should be employed. Do not use hydraulic forcible entry tools (i.e. Hydra-Ram) due to the potential for sparks to be created.
B: In structures with elevators, occupants should be instructed to use the stairs and not the elevators unless the situation makes it impractical (e.g., gas leak on an upper floor of a highrise residential building where FDNY members utilize elevators to evacuate civilians). Elevators in the potential blast zone are NOT to be used by civilian or FDNY personnel; electric arcs are created whenever they are activated by the call button or signaled to move.
C: The IC should consider the evacuation of all buildings in proximity to the incident location when necessary. If these building are not located in the potential blast zone, operations such as routine forcible entry, searches, venting and power removal can be conducted as necessary.
D: It is recommended that members quickly meter sewers, manholes and cellars as they retreat from the original operating area after evacuating occupants.
A: When required, conventional forcible entry involving the use of an axe to strike the Halligan should be employed. Do not use hydraulic forcible entry tools (i.e. Hydra-Ram) due to the potential for sparks to be created.
Explanation:
Conventional forcible entry involving the use of an axe to strike the Halligan is NOT permitted. Entry SHOULD be conducted with the use of the adz end of the Halligan to gap and force the door and/or with the use of the hydraulic forcible entry tool (Hydra-Ram).
C) Note: In addition to buildings, streets, sidewalks, public spaces, transit facilities, etc., may need to be evacuated as a precaution and to clear areas for Utility Company construction crews.
EP Gas 9.1.3
Question 24:
Which tactic below is incorrect when operating at a Major Gas Emergency?
A: Use plain-speak in preliminary and progress reports concerning the extent of the evacuation required and the need for assistance from NYPD, NYCTA, MTA, etc. NYCEM may be contacted directly to initiate/coordinate additional non-Fire Department resources.
B: 2 1/2” hose and large caliber streams are appropriate for defensive positions and will allow greater reach. Fog streams should be used to assist in the dissipation of natural gas venting outside of a structure.
C: The Utility Company may need to “plug” or “squeeze” a pipe with natural gas under pressure to stop a leak when a working valve is not available. When required and consistent with safety, a charged fog hoseline may be used to protect workers placing the plug or operating the clamp.
D: At all major natural gas leaks, notify the dispatcher to have the appropriate Electric Utility Company respond and request an ETA.
B: 2 1/2” hose and large caliber streams are appropriate for defensive positions and will allow greater reach. Fog streams should be used to assist in the dissipation of natural gas venting outside of a structure.
Fog streams should NOT be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside of a structure; LET THE GAS VENT NATURALLY.
C) Note: In all cases, the IC has the responsibility and authority to disapprove this tactic if it places Utility Company personnel or FDNY members at risk. Consult with the Utility Company to consider risks and options.
EP Gas 9.2.1, 9.2.2
Question 25:
Discretion must be used when considering power removal at a major gas emergency. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?
A: Power cannot be removed from the potential blast zone without introducing the risk of ignition. Power removal always causes an arc at the point/location that power is removed.
B: If FDNY members can remove power from the area of the leak before natural gas readings reach 80% LEL, it should be done. In order to determine this, explosive readings must be taken wherever the highest concentration of natural gas has accumulated in the building which will always be at the source of the leak.
C: After evacuation, and upon consultation with the appropriate Utility Companies, the IC may consider allowing the Utility Company to cut power remotely from a utility pole or manhole, even if natural gas levels are in the explosive range if all persons remain withdrawn from the potential blast zone and the location from which the Utility Company is cutting power is not located within the potential blast zone.
D: When power is removed, automatic generators, battery back-up burglar alarms, battery back-up hardwired smoke detectors and uninterrupted power supply units for electronics, when present, create small arcs when they transfer from electric power to their alternate.
B: If FDNY members can remove power from the area of the leak before natural gas readings reach 80% LEL, it should be done. In order to determine this, explosive readings must be taken wherever the highest concentration of natural gas has accumulated in the building which will always be at the source of the leak.
Explanation:
If FDNY members can remove power from the area of the leak before natural gas readings reach 80% LEL, it should be done. In order to determine this, explosive readings must be taken wherever the highest concentration of natural gas has accumulated in the building which is USUALLY, BUT NOT ALWAYS, near the source of the leak.
EP Gas 9.2.2
Question 26:
When considering power removal at a major gas emergency, the IC would be correct to take into account the information in all choices below except?
A: If power can be removed from the area of the leak before natural gas readings reach 80% LEL, it should be done. Explosive readings must be taken wherever the highest concentration of natural gas has accumulated in the building and this is usually, but not always, near the source of the leak.
B: Readings solely taken in an area remote from the leak cannot be used to determine it is safe to cut power.
C: If any readings display levels of 80% LEL or greater, the opportunity to cut power has expired.
D: When unable to locate the source of the leak, it is always safer to shut power.
D: When unable to locate the source of the leak, it is always safer to shut power.
Explanation:
When unable to locate the source of the leak, DO NOT shut power.
EP Gas 9.2.2
Question 27:
Locating the correct valves is a crucial component to controlling a major gas emergency. Which choice is incorrect?
A: When conditions permit, units may assist the Utility Company in locating valves and valve covers.
B: Main valves have identification codes either on the collar underneath the valve cover or on a tag under the cover. These codes should be relayed to the Utility Company Control Center and Utility Company members on the scene.
C: FDNY members should be reminded to only operate valves on the supply side of the curb valve/service valve.
D: The IC may be able to receive the general location of main valves by contacting the Utility Company’s Control Center. Access problems (vehicles, dumpsters on valve covers, etc.) can be identified and resolved early.
C: FDNY members should be reminded to only operate valves on the supply side of the curb valve/service valve.
Explanation:
FDNY members should be reminded NOT to operate any valve on the supply side of the curb valve/service valve (i.e.; main valve).
EP Gas 9.2.3
Question 28:
Which ventilation tactic below is not in accordance with Department procedures when operating at a major gas emergency?
A: If previous ventilation efforts have failed to prevent the area from becoming a potential blast zone (80% or more LEL gas leak location known or 10% or more LEL gas leak location unknown) then the emphasis should be on rapid evacuation, not ventilation.
B: It is generally safe for members to operate in an environment with high concentrations of natural gas if these levels are above the Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) as these areas can be considered “too rich to burn.”
C: Natural ventilation can be accomplished by rapid evacuation teams as they move through buildings. Venting windows and doors as they are passed is permissible if doing so will not delay evacuation. Do not remain in a potential blast zone simply to ventilate.
D: When HVAC intakes of a building are exposed to an outdoor natural gas leak, fresh air supply fans should be shut down to prevent drawing gas in. Similarly, HVAC systems should be shut down when the equipment or area is involved in the gas leak.
B: It is generally safe for members to operate in an environment with high concentrations of natural gas if these levels are above the Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) as these areas can be considered “too rich to burn.”
Explanation:
NO area can be considered “too rich to burn” as these areas, at some portion of the affected space, are in the explosive range and will explode and involve the entire area if an ignition source is reached.
EP Gas 9.2.4
Question 29:
Units may be directed to work with Utility Company personnel in pulling manhole covers to create paths for natural gas to vent to open air during a major gas emergency. Which choice below reflects incorrect information regarding this tactic?
A: Sewer manhole covers may be removed by FDNY personnel with the approval of an onscene Chief Officer. The Chief Officer should ensure the area is cordoned off to identify the hazard of the open manhole.
B: Round manhole covers can be removed by two firefighters utilizing manhole hooks; Battalion vehicles carry two manhole hooks for use of this purpose. Likewise, rectangular and square electric manhole covers shall be pulled by FDNY personnel using these hooks when necessary.
C: Do not pull any electric manhole covers (or any cover if there is doubt as to its type) when there is a manhole fire in the area or smoking/arcing is observed in an electric manhole or transformer vault.
D: Round, electric manhole covers can be removed by FDNY personnel only when requested by an on-scene Utility Company worker, approved by an on-scene Chief Officer, and after the cover has been determined to be free of stray voltage by the on-scene Utility Company.
B: Round manhole covers can be removed by two firefighters utilizing manhole hooks; Battalion vehicles carry two manhole hooks for use of this purpose. Likewise, rectangular and square electric manhole covers shall be pulled by FDNY personnel using these hooks when necessary.
Explanation:
Rectangular or square electric manhole covers shall NOT be pulled by FDNY personnel.
EP Gas 9.2.4
Question 30:
Lt McLearn is working in L-100 during the 6x9 tour when he receives a ticket to respond 1st due for a fire on the 31st floor of a 40 sty 200x200 CL1 High-Rise office building. Upon arrival, Lt McLearn enters the lobby, and ensures all of the following duties are completed except?
A: Obtain as much information as possible from the security guard
B: Obtain the floor plan. If only one copy is available, do not remove it from the fire command station
C: Order his chauffeur to conduct a preliminary inspection of the exterior of the building for 1) Persons in distress 2) Smoke or fire showing through the skin of the building 3) The need for any exterior operations
D: Proceeded to a floor at least two floors below the fire using “Fireman Service” elevator. Ascended one flight and determined the location of the fire on the floor and select a stairway with a standpipe that will provide the best attack on the fire and relay all information to the ICP
A: Obtain as much information as possible from the security guard
A- Fire Safety Director....8.3.1.A B- 8.3.1.B.2 C- 8.3.1.C D- 8.3.1.E.4 High-Rise Office Building
Question 31:
The purpose of the FAST Unit is to be immediately available to assist a member who becomes trapped, distressed or involved in other serious life threatening situations. Choose the only correct statement made about the FAST Unit.
A: Ladder Companies responding with 4 FFs shall not be utilized as a FAST Unit
B: The FAST Unit shall report to and stage within eyesight of the Incident Command Post
C: Split into 2 teams when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings
D: When ordered, have members of the FAST Unit provide additional egress routes while still maintaining unit integrity, e.g., remove window bars, place portable ladders
D: When ordered, have members of the FAST Unit provide additional egress routes while still maintaining unit integrity, e.g., remove window bars, place portable ladders
Explanation:
Managing Members In Distress ch 2 and 4
A- When reporting to the ICP, the ladder company officer must inform the IC that they are not fully staffed….ch 2 sec 2.2
B- The FAST Unit shall report to and stage near the Incident Command Post, within VERBAL contact, at a position from which they can be readily deployed (High-Rise buildings could be different)….look at ch 2 sec 3.1
C-The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings….ch 2 sec 7.4
D- ch 4 sec 4.1
Question 32:
The traditional fire development curve follows 4 stages, which are Incipient, Growth, Fully Developed, and Decay. At which stage would “Rollover” occur?
A: Incipient
B: Growth
C: Fully Developed
D: Decay
B: Growth
Explanation:
Engine Operations ch 4 sec 4.6.4
This rollover is an indicator that the fire conditions are rapidly changing. When rollover is observed and members are not operating under the protection of a charged hoseline, they shall immediately leave and isolate the fire area
Flashover occurs in the Fully Developed Stage…4.6.4.C
Question 33:
You are en-route with E200 for a report of a store fire. You arrive, and see heavy smoke coming from the corner store of a Taxpayer. The 10-75 is transmitted, you order a handline stretched, and then consider several tactics used during this type of fire. Choose the incorrect tactic.
A: Supplying a sprinkler system is to be given a high priority after the establishment of the initial line
B: 2 1/2” hand lines must be stretched at all times at Taxpayer fires
C: For a fire that is traveling rapidly along a row of stores in a Taxpayer it may be best to skip stores and stretch lines into alternate stores ahead of the fire. The bypassed stores will be covered by subsequent lines
D: If difficulty is encountered in gaining entrance to a taxpayer fire, a small hole made in the security doors and removal of the window may provide an opening for hose stream operations.
B: 2 1/2” hand lines must be stretched at all times at Taxpayer fires
Explanation:
Taxpayers
When compatible with fire conditions, 1 3/4” lines may be used in exposures….7.1.4
A- 7.1.3….3rd engine ensures sprinkler is supplied….7.2.3.C
C- 7.1.7
D- 7.1.6
Question 34:
When operating at any building fire, overall safety of firefighters is a major concern, especially when it comes to Loft type building fires. Choose the incorrect statement from the list below when operating at a Loft type building fire.
A: Water runoff needs to be constantly monitored, particularly when LCS are being utilized. Roof and floor drains should be checked by firefighters and cleared of debris, as necessary, utilizing a gloved hand
B: Floor collapse can be initiated by the failure of a single column. Members should avoid striking columns with LCS
C: A brick wall with sand lime mortar can have this bonding material washed out by LCS dislodging bricks and seriously weakening the wall
D: If the structural stability of gravity tank supports is questionable, consider draining the contents of the tank and diverting the water off the roof into a drain pipe, or by opening a standpipe outlet on a lower floor
A: Water runoff needs to be constantly monitored, particularly when LCS are being utilized. Roof and floor drains should be checked by firefighters and cleared of debris, as necessary, utilizing a gloved hand
Explanation:
Lofts sec 9
Utilizing HAND TOOLS
Question 35:
Choose the incorrect statement made in regards to a standpipe and/or sprinkler system.
A: All hoselines stretched from a standpipe shall be 2 1/2 hose with controlling nozzle and 1 1/8” MST
B: If a pressure reducing/restricting device (PRD) is found on the standpipe outlet, it should be removed. If the PRD cannot be removed, and there is no other outlet available without a PRD, than it is permissible to use an outlet with a PRD
C: Controlling nozzle must always be carried attached to the folded lead length
D: If building is equipped with both standpipe and sprinkler systems and the standpipe is to be used, the engine company first to arrive must connect first line to sprinkler siamese and second line to standpipe siamese
D: If building is equipped with both standpipe and sprinkler systems and the standpipe is to be used, the engine company first to arrive must connect first line to sprinkler siamese and second line to standpipe siamese
Explanation:
Evolution 9 sec 3.9.notes
If building is equipped with both standpipe and sprinkler systems and the standpipe is to be used, the engine company first to arrive must connect first line to standpipe siamese and second line to sprinkler siamese
Question 36:
Supervisors of members requiring medical attention for sensitivity reactions to latex medical examination gloves shall make immediate notification to the medical officer on duty, ensure that appropriate medical attention and follow-up is provided, and ensure that appropriate paperwork is generated. From the list below, which is considered the proper paperwork?
A: CD-72
B: CD-73
C: MDX-3
D: Letterhead to OSHA Unit via chain of command
B: CD-73
Explanation:
Safety Bulletin 75 sec 3.2
CD-73 “Member Exposure Report”
Members experiencing sensitivity reactions to latex medical examination gloves that are NOT sufficient to warrant medical attention shall forward a letterhead memorandum to the OSHA Unit through the chain of command documenting their experiencing…..3.3
The Department provides white cotton glove liners for use in combination with the latex medical examination gloves, by members who experience sensitivity to the latex material…..3.4
Question 37:
When operating at a Haz-Mat incident, the primary responsibilities for SOC Support Ladder Companies include all of the following except?
A: Their primary objective is to perform rescue operations of non-ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Exclusion Zone.
B: Conduct air monitoring to identify safe zones if not already in progress
C: Conduct contamination monitoring of victims after Gross Decontamination to determine if Technical Decontamination is needed
D: Assist in Member and Civilian Decontamination operations as directed
A: Their primary objective is to perform rescue operations of non-ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Exclusion Zone.
A) The primary objective of the “CPC Ladder Companies” is to perform rescue operations of non-ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Exclusion Zone.
Note: SOC Support Ladders may also conduct air monitoring “assist” with rescue of victims if HMTU or HMC1 is on-scene and conducting air monitoring. ERP sec 8.8.3
Question 38:
The only correct precaution you took at a Haz-Mat scene can be found in which choice?
A: You assumed that a small leak in a small container is insignificant
B: You assumed since plant personnel were not using protective clothing, there is no hazard present
C: Empty containers pose no danger at all
D: You did not use water on a substance that was fuming until after proper identification and hazard assessment
D: You did not use water on a substance that was fuming until after proper identification and hazard assessment
Explanation:
Haz-Mat 2 sec 7
A- Do not assume that a small leak in a small container is insignificant
B- Do not assume because plant personnel are not using protective clothing, that there is no hazard
C- Empty containers may be MORE hazardous than full ones. Vapors or residue of the product they formerly contained may be present
Question 39:
If an emergency situation develops which requires the immediate withdrawal of the nozzle team, the officer or other member aware of the situation should indicate this fact by using ______ strong slaps on the shoulder of the other members and then pull them in the direction of retreat
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4
D: 4
Engine Operations ch 5 sec 5.1.21
Question 40:
The incorrect responsibility for the 2nd due Ladder Officer operating at a High-Rise Building fire can be found in which choice?
A: Report into the ICP and determine if the fire floor has been verified by the first arriving ladder company
B: Obtain an elevator car that provides the safest access to the fire area and place the car on “Fireman Service.” If possible, the same elevator car used by the 1st arriving ladder should be utilized
C: Upon arriving at the floor below the fire (or on the fire floor) obtain as much information as possible from the 1st arriving ladder company, areas searched, fire area location, and occupants reported missing, etc.
D: Conduct search operations on the floor above and check for extension
D: Conduct search operations on the floor above and check for extension
