Brooklyn 2 Flashcards

1
Q

According to the Citywide Incident Management System (CIMS), which of the following is not considered a “core competency” of the FDNY?
A: Search and Rescue

B: CBRN/Haz-Mat Mass Decontamination

C: Arson investigation (cause and origin)

D: Area evacuation

A

D: Area evacuation

STRUCTURAL Evacuation 
FDNY Core Competencies:
1. Fire suppression
2. Pre-hospital emergency medical care 
3. Search and rescue
4. Structural evacuation 
5. CBRN/Haz-Mat Life Safety Operations and mass decontamination 
6. Arson investigation (cause and origin) 
AUC 276 2.1
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2
Q

The FF assuming the Housewatch has how many seconds to acknowledge a response via the PC/ATS?
A: 5

B: 10

C: 15

D: 20

A

D: 20

If there is no response in 20 seconds, the dispatcher will prompt the unit to verify response via the Voice Alarm
Communications ch 2 sec 2.2.1

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3
Q

Security of quarters is the responsibility of all members. If a relocated unit does not receive a teleprinter response message, the lock combination can be obtained through the dispatcher. What is the correct method of obtaining the combination, in order of preference?
A: 1. Use a nearby ERS box. 2. Use an outside public telephone.

B: 1. Use an outside public telephone. 2. Use a nearby ERS box.

C: 1. Have the dispatcher relay the combination over the air. 2. Use a nearby ERS box.

D: 1. Have the dispatcher relay the combination over the air. 2. Use an outside public telephone.

A

A: 1. Use a nearby ERS box. 2. Use an outside public telephone.

AUC 300 2.1.4 2

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4
Q

While out shopping for the meal, you receive a run for an active shooter in a night club just a few blocks away from where you are. From looking at the ticket, the company you are working is assigned as part of the Division Task Force for active shooters. Select the company with the correct suffix for this type of run.
A: E-300D

B: E-400T

C: L-200D

D: E-200S

E: E-500K

A

E: E-500K

THIS IS NEW as of 10/4/2018...Know this page for sure! A- Tech Decon Task Force
B- Transport Backup Unit
C- Tech Decon Task Force
D- Communications Unit
Communications ch 2 page 2-37
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5
Q

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the KO Curtain?
A: The dimensions are 8’X6’

B: Units should contact the administrative Division for a replacement KO Curtain.

C: The company-issued KO Curtain shall only be deployed during drill when under the supervision of a company officer.

D: There are four, 3/8 inch diameter, 15 foot long fire-proof ropes; one at each corner of the curtain.

A

C: The company-issued KO Curtain shall only be deployed during drill when under the supervision of a company officer.

Under no circumstance is a company’s KO Curtain to be deployed for drill purposes. Each Division has been issued Training KO Curtains for drill. Repeated use of the KO Curtain for drill can cause unnecessary damage to the KO Curtain.
TB Tools 2 1, 6.3, 6.5

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6
Q

E-200 arrives 1st due for a report of a fire in a Lithium Ion Energy storage container. The initial assessment is that there is no fire or smoke showing from the container. As a precautionary measure, the officer should establish an initial danger zone of how many feet from the container?
A: Minimum 50 ft radius

B: Minimum 75 ft radius

C: Minimum 100 ft radius

D: Minimum 200 ft radius

A

A: Minimum 50 ft radius

THIS IS NEW!
Minimum of 50 ft radius from container(s)/cabinets(s)
Minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems
Haz-Mat 19 sec 5

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7
Q

All of the following are correct statements regarding access to NYCHA buildings with the exception of which choice?
A: Key FOBs have been issued to all FDNY units. These key FOBs will grant universal access to all NYCHA buildings. Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, it can be unlocked remotely by NYCHA Security by calling the 24 hour NYCHA Emergency number directly or through the dispatcher.

B: Should the building lose electrical power, the electromagnetic lock will deactivate, but the door will remain locked by the crash bar lock. A special key will be needed to unlock the door from outside the building.

C: When the key FOB is placed by the reader located on the door frame, there will be an audible tone (buzzing) emitted for 7-9 seconds. This tone indicates the electromagnetic lock has been deactivated, at which time the door may be opened.

D: Each key FOB has an individual serial number assigned to it. NYCHA Elevator Machinery Room Keys have also been issued to all units and these keys also have individual serial numbers.

A

D: Each key FOB has an individual serial number assigned to it. NYCHA Elevator Machinery Room Keys have also been issued to all units and these keys also have individual serial numbers.

NYCHA Elevator Machinery Room Keys have also been issued to all units. These keys are standard issue and do NOT have serial numbers.
B) Note: This key is not issued to FDNY units at this time, but it can be requested for use from the building management office at the premise location.
MD Add 4 1.1, 1.3, 1.4, 2.1, 3.1

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8
Q

E-300 and L-400 respond to 344 Fulton street for a CO activation in apartment 4C on the 4th floor. Upon investigation, the officers get readings on their GasAlert Extreme CO meters of 70 PPM. Based on this reading, the officers follow the procedures according to Haz-Mat chapter 4. Choose the incorrect procedure
A: Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO

B: Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate

C: If it is determined that an appliance is malfunctioning and thereby producing CO, it should be shut down

D: Attempt to reset the detector

A

B: Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate

RECOMMEND that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation for CO readings greater than 9 PPM but less than 100.
100 PPM or greater, begin evacuation
Haz-Mat ch 4 pages 4-5

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9
Q

The First Responder’s Bridge Manual is comprised of two stand-alone manuals, a Field Guide and a Risk Management Guide. What color is the Risk Management Guide?
A: Green

B: Red

C: Orange

D: Blue

A

B: Red

Risk Management Guide (Red Book). Command Chiefs will respond to the scene with the Risk Management Guide (Red Book) or have it transported to the scene via FDOC.
AUC 344 1.2

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10
Q

What symbol on the MSA Altair Digital Gas meter under the COMB/EX icon will indicate the atmosphere is above 100 percent of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
A: A series of crosses

B: A series of Xs

C: A series of skulls and cross bones

D: A series of dashes

A

B: A series of Xs

This is an extremely dangerous atmosphere as it is indicative of a potentially explosive environment that members should not operate in except for life saving purposes
A series of large crosses along the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 30 percent oxygen
Emergency Procedures Gas add 2 sec 4.1

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11
Q

Which consideration below is stated incorrectly regarding private dwelling fires?
A: For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, early collapse is not a primary consideration.

B: For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, depending on the duration and intensity of fire, the size of the structural components, and the type of construction involved, the amount of time before collapse occurs is generally estimated to be an hour.

C: For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within 30-45 minutes.

D: In private dwellings constructed with lightweight materials, when fire extends from the building’s contents to its structural components, collapse may occur within 5 to 10 minutes.

A

C: For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within 30-45 minutes.

For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within 20 minutes.
PD Ch 6 1.6-1.7

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12
Q

As any good truckie will tell you, Engine Company tactics is key in controlling and extinguishing a fire involving a Taxpayer type building. Choose the incorrect Engine Company tactic
A: For a fire that is traveling rapidly along a row of stores in a taxpayer it may be best to skip stores and stretch lines into alternate stores ahead of the fire. The bypassed stores will be covered by subsequent lines

B: If difficulty is encountered in gaining entrance to a taxpayer fire, a small hole made in the security doors and removal of the window may provide an opening for hose stream operations

C: During a cellar fire where the 1st line advance down the interior stair, the 2nd line must be stretched to the top of the stairs to protect the members in the cellar and prevent the upward extension of the fire

D: Hoselines are never to be operated into a trench cut

A

D: Hoselines are never to be operated into a trench cut

In cases where entry is delayed or where where the pulling of ceilings is impossible due to fire conditions or ceiling construction, a hoseline or lines operated properly into a trench cut may confine the fire. All members in the stores must be withdrawn
Taxpayers pages 40-43

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13
Q

Upon arrival at an operation, the designated “Systems Control Unit” would be most correct to report to the?
A: Operations Section Chief

B: Resources Unit Leader (RESL)

C: Fire Sector

D: Logistics Section Chief

A

D: Logistics Section Chief

If there is no Logistics Section Chief the Systems Control Unit Leader (SCUL) will report directly to the Incident Commander.
ICS Ch 2 Add 6 1.1

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14
Q

On each response, Officers and FFs must conduct an initial size-up which includes type of building, occupancy, and conditions on arrival. Part of this initial size-up includes a ventilation profile of the fire conditions. Choose the incorrect ventilation profile.
A: Under normal conditions fire and smoke should be venting from a window outwards and upwards,

B: Fire and smoke venting downward or horizontally from a window would be an indication of a wind impacted fire

C: Fire or smoke pulsing from a window would be an indication of a wind impacted fire

D: The more that venting flames fill the window, the less severe conditions will be and FFs can safely move in to extinguish the fire

A

D: The more that venting flames fill the window, the less severe conditions will be and FFs can safely move in to extinguish the fire

The more that venting flames fill the open window, the more members can anticipate severe interior conditions.
FFP ventilation sec 4.1

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15
Q

When cutting an initial ventilation hole at a peaked roof private dwelling fire, you would be correct to consider all of the following except?
A: The first hole should be made at the main gable.

B: A center hall usually follows the same direction as the main gable.

C: A hole at the main gable, with the ceiling pushed down, when directed by the ladder company officer, will vent the blind attic space, the knee walls and the attic hall and rooms below, allowing rapid line advancement and search by the inside team.

D: The power saw may only be used from the basket of a tower ladder or from an aerial ladder.

A

D: The power saw may only be used from the basket of a tower ladder or from an aerial ladder.

The power saw may only be used from the basket of a tower ladder.
PD Ch 4 6.3 A

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16
Q

When turning corners no apparatus should be driven in excess of _______mph?
A: 20

B: 15

C: 10

D: 5

A

B: 15

Regs ch 11 page 3

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17
Q

When an area is declared a crime scene, certain procedures should be followed. Which procedure listed below is incorrect?
A: Do not adjust the radio or television, or use the telephone in the crime scene area.

B: Take a single path of travel entering and leaving the crime scene and have all required personnel use the same path when possible.

C: Refrain from smoking, eating or drinking in the crime scene area.

D: If a member sustains a laceration, immediately have the member wash his/her hands using the closest sink to avoid contaminating the crime scene.

A

D: If a member sustains a laceration, immediately have the member wash his/her hands using the closest sink to avoid contaminating the crime scene.

Do not wash hands in sinks or use toilet facilities.
AUC 317 5.7-5.10

18
Q

The correct procedure for entering an Immediate CIDS can be found in all of the following except?
A: Use the eCIDS application to enter the proposed immediate CIDS

B: After submitting the CIDS entry, notify FDOC/Starfire by phone to inform them of the pending immediate CIDS

C: After notification, the admin BC shall enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS

D: An immediate CIDS entry will always appear at the top of a units pending list and be in BOLD print

A

B: After submitting the CIDS entry, notify FDOC/Starfire by phone to inform them of the pending immediate CIDS

Notify the admin BC by phone to inform the chief of the pending immediate CIDS. The BC will notify the DC who will notify FDOC by phone
Remember, Faxed copies of the CD-201 are no longer accepted
Communications ch 4 sec 4.3.3

19
Q

Two probationary firefighters were discussing roof construction in Brownstone buildings. The on-duty Officer has to correct which incorrect comment made?
A: The majority are flat construction with no parapet in the rear.

B: Some have a center peak which slopes toward the front and the rear.

C: There may be more floors in the rear than in front. The roof slopes to the front where there are small front windows making access to and removal of trapped persons from these areas difficult.

D: In flat roof buildings, the cockloft space between the top floor ceiling and the roof is approximately 4’ to 6’ in height and the roof is pitched toward the front of the building.

A

D: In flat roof buildings, the cockloft space between the top floor ceiling and the roof is approximately 4’ to 6’ in height and the roof is pitched toward the front of the building.

In flat roof buildings, the cockloft space between the top floor ceiling and the roof is approximately 2’ to 3’ in height and the roof is pitched toward the rear of the building.
Bwst 2.2.15, 2.2.18

20
Q

In order to collect data on the events that lead to multiple injuries and to prepare strategies to prevent injuries, the Chief of Operations requires the supervisor of a unit to submit a report when?
A: 3 or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour

B: 2 or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour

C: 3 or more members suffer minor injuries at the same incident resulting in no medical leave that tour

D: 2 or more members suffer minor injuries at the same incident resulting in no medical leave that tour

A

A: 3 or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour

SB 7 add 2 sec 1.3

21
Q

Proper placement of the tip of the portable ladder provides for easier and safer mounting and dismounting. It also allows the user to maintain balance by providing a handhold. Which placement of the portable ladder is listed correctly?
A: Placed against a fire escape - Tip shall be level with the fire escape railing.

B: Placed at a window - Tip shall be slightly above the window sill.

C: Placed at a roof - Tip shall be at least 5 feet above the roof or parapet.

D: Placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall - Tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing.

A

D: Placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall - Tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing.

Placed against a fire escape - Tip shall be slightly above the fire escape railing.
Placed at a window - Tip shall be level with window sill.
Placed at a roof - Tip shall be at least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.
Placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall - Tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing.
Lads 1 7.4

22
Q

The most correct procedure for starting a fire pump in a High-Rise Office building can be found in which choice?
A: Move selector lever, close knife switch, close circuit breaker, push starting button

B: Close circuit breaker, move selector lever, close knife switch, push starting button,

C: Close circuit breaker, close knife switch, push starting button, move selector lever

D: Close knife switch, close circuit breaker, push starting button, move selector lever

A

D: Close knife switch, close circuit breaker, push starting button, move selector lever

High-Rise Office Buildings sec 4.1.4

23
Q

At a row frame fire where the building is fully involved and there is fire in the exposures, a “holding operation” will be implemented. In this situation, where is the first hoseline stretched?
A: Into the fire building through the front door.

B: To the top floor of the most severe exposure.

C: Through an exposure to the rear yard.

D: In front of exposure one to operate on the exterior.

A

A: Into the fire building through the front door.

RF 6.5 A

24
Q

When positioning at a building collapse, all of the following are correct except?
A: If possible, the 1st and 2nd arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains

B: Two of the second alarm ladder companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street

C: Initially, the first arriving TL should be the only unit in front of the collapse building, unless there is a specific need for additional units,

D: Aerial ladders and SOC support ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless needed for specific rescue purposes

A

B: Two of the second alarm ladder companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street

Two of the second alarm ENGINE COMPANIES
FFP Collapse Operations page 6

25
Q

At vacant building fires, officers of aerial ladder companies shall consider the need for access and positioning of tower ladders in order to utilize their extinguishing capabilities. However, there are vacant building fires where the officer gives precedence to the positioning of their aerial apparatus. These situations are accurately listed in all choices below except?
A: The officer receives information or has prior knowledge that part of this building is used by vagrants or squatters.

B: The reach of the 100’ aerial is required to expedite or execute certain tasks or assignments.

C: A large caliber stream is expected to be utilized.

D: A building is not completely vacant.

A

C: A large caliber stream is expected to be utilized.

Lads 2 6.6.1

26
Q

Which color of smoke is not an indicator of a backdraft?
A: Dense black smoke

B: Orange/yellow

C: Dirty brown

D: Yellow/brown

A

B: Orange/yellow

Gray/yellow
Taxpayers page 20

27
Q

Operating a Tower Ladder in hilly locations can be a challenge. An experienced officer would know all of the following to be accurate with the exception of which choice?
A: Grades up to a 4% slope are considered to be level for operation of a TL. When the apparatus is in other than a “level configuration” its performance, stability and safety factors are reduced in proportion to the degree of deviation.

B: The maximum “slope” for TL operation has been set at 15% grade by the manufacturer for safe performance of apparatus.

C: It is recommended that operations be conducted in the “uphill” quadrant.

D: A difference of slightly over 10 feet from front to rear of the apparatus is approximately a 15% slope.

A

D: A difference of slightly over 10 feet from front to rear of the apparatus is approximately a 15% slope.

A difference of slightly over 5-1/2 feet from front to rear of the apparatus is approximately a 15% slope.
Lads 6 3.4.6

28
Q

The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is designed for a maximum inlet pressure of ____ psi. Do not exceed this pressure.
A: 100psi

B: 175psi

C: 200psi

D: 300psi

A

B: 175psi

TB Tools 38 4.1

29
Q

Choose the incorrect statement in regards to steam
A: Steam is invisible

B: When operating at a steam generating plant during a high pressure steam leak, verbal communications will be difficult

C: SOC companies such as Rescues and/or Squads will mitigate the emergency inside a steam generating plant

D: All units to respond to the designated mustering site outside the steam generating plant

A

C: SOC companies such as Rescues and/or Squads will mitigate the emergency inside a steam generating plant

Plant personnel will mitigate the emergency. FDNY should only enter the plant to perform search and rescue for missing plant personnel
Emergency Procedures Steam System Emergencies pages 1-3

30
Q

Upon arrival as the FAST Unit, the officer and FFs must operate strictly according to the FDNY’s procedures regarding FAST Units. Select the incorrect procedure
A: If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST officer shall remind the IC of their designation

B: The FAST officer should bring an up to date copy of the response ticket to the ICP which would include any CIDS information that is available

C: When communicating between FAST unit members requires the word FAST after the unit designation Ex: L-100 Can FAST to L-100 FAST

D: When communicating to other units, the FAST officer and member’s radio designation shall include the word FAST after the unit designation. Ex: L-100 FAST to Command

A

C: When communicating between FAST unit members requires the word FAST after the unit designation Ex: L-100 Can FAST to L-100 FAST

Does not require the use of the word FAST..Ex: L-100 Can to L-100
MMID ch 2 page 2

31
Q

All of the following choices correctly describe characteristics of Universal Gold 1%-3% AR-AFFF except?
A: AR-AFFF is freeze/thaw stable. If the product is frozen, upon thawing there is no performance loss.

B: When stored, AR-AFFF will remain effective for a maximum of 10 years.

C: AR-AFFF should not be mixed with any other type of foam product but can be used side-by-side with other foam products on the same fire, when necessary.

D: AR-AFFF foam can be generated with either fresh or salt water.

A

B: When stored, AR-AFFF will remain effective for a maximum of 10 years.

Properly stored, AR-AFFF can remain effective for up to 25 years.
TB Foam 3.1

32
Q

Question 32:
During a fire, FFs face difficulties in communicating due to stream impact noise, power saw operations, opening up and ventilation noise. For Engine officers to over come these difficulties, a system of touch signals were developed. Choose the incorrect touch signal
A: If an emergency develops which requires the immediate withdrawal of the nozzle team, the officer or other member aware of the situation should indicate the fact by using 3 strong slaps on the shoulder of the members and then pull them in the direction of retreat

B: 1 or 2 slaps on the back or shoulder to open or close the nozzle

C: Tug or pull on the arm or nozzle to direct the stream

D: Pull back on shoulder, bunker coat or mask assembly to halt or stop advance

A

A: If an emergency develops which requires the immediate withdrawal of the nozzle team, the officer or other member aware of the situation should indicate the fact by using 3 strong slaps on the shoulder of the members and then pull them in the direction of retreat

4 strong slaps
Engine ops ch 5 page 4

33
Q

Wind can have a significant impact on fire operations in fireproof multiple dwellings. Of the the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: The impact of the wind will be affected by the size of the window opening, the fuel load and the stage of the fire when the window failed.

B: When wind impacted fire conditions exist in a FPMD, the IC shall notify the Borough dispatcher.

C: The direction and speed of wind at the street level is a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level.

D: It does not take high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside the building. Wind behavior is not consistent or predictable.

A

C: The direction and speed of wind at the street level is a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level.

The direction and speed at the street level is NOT a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level.
MD Add 3 2.1, 2.2 Note 2, 3.2.1

34
Q

The subway emergency key that opens the standard emergency exit is in what shape?
A: Triangle

B: Circle

C: square

D: rectangle

A

A: Triangle

FFP Under River Rail Ops page 5

35
Q

Lt. Smith was conducting a drill on ventilation and roof cutting at Old Law Tenement fires. Which statement made was incorrect?
A: Initially, approximately a 3’ x 6’ coffin cut is recommended.

B: One large, expandable hole is more efficient and safer than many smaller holes.

C: The saw is designed that whenever possible, roof boards and coverings shall be cut in two separate phases. First, cut the roof covering, then the roof boards.

D: Leave removed pieces of roof section next to openings to warn operating forces.

A

C: The saw is designed that whenever possible, roof boards and coverings shall be cut in two separate phases. First, cut the roof covering, then the roof boards.

The saw is designed that whenever possible, roof boards and coverings shall be cut in ONE operation. Sometimes the cut section can be lifted in one piece. When this cannot be accomplished, remove the roof covering first, then the roof boards. When many layers of roof covering are encountered, the saw blade may bind.
Lads 3 5.9.4-5.9.6

36
Q

When laying out a new company journal, the pages to record company drills can be found in which choice?
A: Pages 500 running backward to 498

B: Pages 497 running backward to 495

C: Pages 501 running forward to 503

D: Pages 494 running backwards as necessary

A

B: Pages 497 running backward to 495

A- Chief visits
C- Not mentioned
D- Battalion MASK depot for MSU members and chief officers
Guide to Company Journal Entries sec 3

37
Q

At a fire on the 3rd floor of a 3-story rowframe, what is the most correct order of preference for the first-arriving Roof Firefighter to access the roof?
A: 1. Aerial Ladder. 2. Second Arriving Aerial Ladder. 3. Immediate adjoining building.

B: 1. Aerial Ladder. 2. Second Arriving Aerial Ladder. 3. An adjoining building (not the immediate adjoining building).

C: 1. Aerial Ladder. 2. Immediate adjoining building. 3. Rear Fire Escape.

D: 1. Immediate adjoining building. 2. Aerial Ladder. 3. Rear Fire Escape.

A

B: 1. Aerial Ladder. 2. Second Arriving Aerial Ladder. 3. An adjoining building (not the immediate adjoining building).

The “immediate” adjoining building should not be used for access to the roof due to the possibility of cockloft involvement.
RF 5.7 F

38
Q

The GasAlert Extreme CO meter is a pocket sized warning device issued to all units for monitoring CO gas in ambient air. A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given if the CO in the atmosphere exceeds _______PPM and a visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration is given if the CO in the atmosphere exceeds _______PPM.
A: 9, 35

B: 10, 36

C: 35, 99

D: 36, 99

E: 35, 100

A

E: 35, 100

We use this meter everyday
36-100 would be during the low alarm
101 and higher would be the high alarm
Haz-Mat 4 add 1 sec 1

39
Q

At an Old Law Tenement fire, which size-up factor will determine the “severity of the life hazard and intensity of the fire?”
A: Time

B: Construction

C: Street Conditions

D: Occupancy

A

D: Occupancy

Lads 3 1.4.1

40
Q

You are working in E-99 on Tuesday, November 27th, 2018 when you receive a ticket that shows: SIG 5 ERS-NC at the corner of Stone and Pitkin ave. What time of day is this?
A: 0900-1800 hrs

B: 0900-2100 hrs

C: 1800-2200 hrs

D: 2300-0800 hrs

A

D: 2300-0800 hrs

Response to ERS boxes varies with the time of day. When a caller from an ERS box fails to make verbal contact with a dispatcher between 2300 and 0800 hours, one engine is dispatched. At other times the policy is “no contact, no response.”
Communications ch 2 page 18
Check out ABC 2-2011…This is a Group 1 Call Type, which means E-99 will be responding on a 10-20