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BROC Flashcards

1
Q

50/70 Rule (for aircraft)

A

if you haven’t reached 70% of your takeoff speed by the time you reach 50% of the runway, abort takeoff

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2
Q

what % of your takeoff speed should you have reached by the time you’ve reached 50% of the runway length

A

50/70 rule

-if you haven’t reached 70% of your takeoff speed by the time you reach 50% of the runway length, abort takeoff

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3
Q

who is responsible for the patient tracking system

A

TRANSCOM

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4
Q

TPMRC

A

Theater Patient MOvement REquestor CEnter

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5
Q

GPMRC

A

Global Patient movement Requirement CEnter

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6
Q

JPMRC

A

Joint Patient Movement REquirement Center

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7
Q

3 examples of TRANSCOM patient tracking systems

A

___ Patient Movement Requirement Center
TPMRC - theatre
GPMRC - global
JPMRC - joint

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8
Q

4 purposes of medical triage

A
  • determines level of need
  • manages limited resources
  • ensure appropriate care for the type of injury
  • prioritize treatment based on threat to life, limb, eyesight
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9
Q

4 catagories of triage

A

immediate
delayed
minimal
expectant

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10
Q

responsibility for moving patient remains

A

movement of patient remains (mortuary affairs)

LOGISTICS function NOT medical function

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11
Q

military trauma Role I

A

first aid & emergency care
ABCDE, hemorrhage, shock
**Shock Trauma Platoon or BAS Battle Aid Station

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12
Q

STP

A

Shock Trauma Platoon

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13
Q

BAS

A

Battle Aid Station

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14
Q

military trauma Role II

A

initial resuscitative surgical care

CRTS/FRSS

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15
Q

first level of military trauma care where surgery capabilities are introduced

A

Role II

R2LM, FRSS, FST, CRTS

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16
Q

military trauma Role III

A

fleet hospital, hospital ship,

Resuscitative care

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17
Q

breakdown of the trauma “Role I-IV”

A

Role I : first aid/emergency care. Shock trauma platoon/battle aid station
Role II: initial damage control surgeryu
Role III: resuscitiaive care. fleet hospital/hospital ship
Role IV: definitive care/MTF

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18
Q

2 types of military ambulances

A

M997

M998

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19
Q

M997

A

ambulance

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20
Q

M998

A

ambulance

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21
Q

MAP

A

Military Augmented Program

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22
Q

T/O

A

takeoff

table of organization

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23
Q

T/E

A

table of equipment

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24
Q

EMW

A

expeditionary maneuver warfare

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25
Q

purpose of FRSS

A

augments shock trauma platoon & battle aid station

supports: expeditionary maneuver warfare, STOM, OMFTS

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26
Q

STOM

A

ship to objective maneuver

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27
Q

STOM

A

ship to objective maneuver

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28
Q

goal of a STP

A

shock trauma platoon
Maine corp
casualty collect/initial resuscitation/evacuation

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29
Q

how many Shock Trauma Platoons per Med Battalion

A

8 Shock Trauma Platoons per MedB

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30
Q

medical assets as far forward as possible

A

Battle Aid Station = BAS

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31
Q

assets available at a BAS

A

Battle aid station = as far forward as possible

  • temporary shelter to triage
  • patient gets to it via vehicles
  • MD available to initiate treatment
  • 2 MD & 21 corpsmen
  • AMAL 635/636
  • 4 sections: security, triage, treatment, evacuation
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32
Q

staffing at a BAS

A

Battle Aid Station = as far forward as possible

*2 MD + 21 corpsmen

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33
Q

AMAL available at the BAS

A

AMAL 635/636

Battle Aid Station

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34
Q

AMAL stands for

A

Authorized Medical Allowance List

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35
Q

4 sections of a BAS

A

Battle Aid Station = as far forward

-security, triage, treatment, evacuation

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36
Q

how many surgical companies per Med BN

A

2-3 surgical companys

-3 OR, 3 ward/ with 30 beds each

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37
Q

how are CFRTS augmented with personnel

A

MAP program
augments CRTS with up to 84 personnel via the MAP program
Medical AUgmentation PRogram

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38
Q

what is a CRTS

A

specific ships of a ATF (Amphibious Task Force) where the FST is embarked

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39
Q

what ship does a FST embark on

A

CRTS are specific ships of the ATF (Amphibious Task Force) on which the FST is embnarked

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40
Q

personnel on a CRTS

A

CRTS is the specified ship of the ATF (Amphibous Task Force) the FST embarks on
-MAP (Medical Augmentation Program) augments it with up to 84 personnel with a MTF

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41
Q

MTF platforms linked to ships

A

Medical Augmentation Program

-CRTS (designated ship of the ATF) with 84

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42
Q

ATF

A

Amphibious Task Force

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43
Q

CRTS is a member of

A

ATF - amphibous task force

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44
Q

how much blood is on a LHD

A

500 unit frozen blood (10 year shelf life)
6 unit fresh blood
WBB

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45
Q

how many stretcher bearers is on a LHD

A

36 trained stretcher barriers

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46
Q

medical team that is part of ship’s company on a LHD

A

3 O’s & 19 enlisted

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47
Q

OIC of a FST

A

CATF Surgeron & SMO authoreity

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48
Q

ESG

A

Expeditionary Strike Group

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49
Q

MRCO

A

Medical Regulating Control Officer

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50
Q

how many OR’s on a LHA

A

4 OR’s

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51
Q

how many ICU beds on a LHA

A

15 ICU beds

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52
Q

how many ward beds on a LHA

A

45 ward beds on a LHA

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53
Q

how many quiet beds on a LHA

A

4 quiet beds

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54
Q

navy submarine/ship goes quiet

A

Silent running is a stealth mode of operation for naval submarines. The aim is to evade discovery by passive sonar by eliminating superfluous noise: nonessential systems are shut down, the crew is urged to rest and refrain from making any unnecessary sound, and speed is greatly reduced to minimize propeller noise.

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55
Q

when can surgery be done on a LHA

A

when a FST is aboard.

4 OR’s

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56
Q

medical team that is a ship’s company on a LHA

A

3 O’s & 19E
FST adds 16
MAP adds 84 if needed

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57
Q

BOS

A

Base Operating Support

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58
Q

how quickly must a fleet hospital be able to set up

A

a fleet hospital must be assembled within 10 days by doctrine

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59
Q

how are fleet hospitals named

A

Alpha, bravo, juliet, kilo, mike

+ 4 reserve units

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60
Q

EMF Alpha

A

Camp Pendleton

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61
Q

EMF Bravo

A

San Diego

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62
Q

EMF Juliet

A

Portsmouth

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63
Q

EMF Kilo

A

Camp Lejeune

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64
Q

EMF Mike

A

Jacksonville

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65
Q

EMF fleet hospital from Camp Pendleton

A

EMF Alpha

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66
Q

EMF fleet hospital from San Diego

A

EMF Bravo

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67
Q

EMF fleet hospital from Portsmouth

A

EMF Juliet

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68
Q

EMF fleet hospital from Camp Lejeune

A

EMF Kilo

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69
Q

EMF fleet hospital from Jacksonville

A

EMF Mike

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70
Q

what are the 5 main fleet hospital EMF’s

A

alpha bravo juliet kilo mike

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71
Q

where are the 4 reserve EMF fleet hospitals

A

Bethesda
Great Lakes
Jacksonville
Camp PEndleton

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72
Q

ISO

A

Industry Standard Organization

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73
Q

how quickly must hospital shops be able to deploy

A

hospital ships must be deployable with full medical augmentation in 5 days

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74
Q

medical assets named in the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

A

hospital ships are the only medical asset named in the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
*hospital ships are considered a FDO

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75
Q

FDO

A

flexible deterrant option

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76
Q

examples of FDO

A

flexible deterrant option
*economic, diplomatic, military, information
a hospital ship is a FDO

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77
Q

class of hospital shops

A

T-AH

Mercy Class

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78
Q

hospital ships as an asset

A

hospital ships are a FDO “flexible deterrant option”

asset of president, DOD, Combatant Commander

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79
Q

bed packages available for the hospital ships

A

250, 500, 1K bed packages

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80
Q

ship’s company of the hospital ships

A

60 military sealift command civil mainers

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81
Q

resource sponsor for the medical crew aboard the hospital shops

A

OPNAV

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82
Q

PM

A

prev med

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83
Q

JFC

A

joint force commander

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84
Q

JFS

A

Joint Force Surgeon

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85
Q

elements of a mass casualty plan

A

-write prior to deployment
-inventory
-personnel assignemtns
-security plan
-tyraining
-transport assets/nees
-communication plan/assets
-HN support
-administration/capabilities
assetx/personnel, envornments

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86
Q

administrative needs for mass casualty plans

A
  • documentation packets
  • radio
  • pt tracking system
  • administrative support
  • pt flow and staff assignments in advance
  • prev med checks in advance
  • test communication and backup
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87
Q

who moves patient on the flight & well decks

A

combat cargo personnel

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88
Q

important logistical issues regarding pt flow in MASCAL

A
  • casualty flow
  • blood supply
  • pt ID/tracking
  • admin forms
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89
Q

elements regarding MASCAL space/environment setup

A 
casualty flow
lights
space
draw out patient floor plan for each team area
effieienceis set up to save time
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90
Q

post deployment health assessment DD

A

DD 2796

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91
Q

DD 2796

A

Post-Deployment Health Assessment

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92
Q

SWMDO

A

Surface Warfare Medical Department Officer

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93
Q

SWMOIC

A

Surface Warfare Medical Officer Indoctrination Course

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94
Q

MOOTW

A

Military Operations Other Than War

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95
Q

DSCA

A

Defense Support to Civil Authorities

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96
Q

“In Transition” program

A

free confidential specialized coach and assitance to AD who need access to medical health car

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97
Q

website resource for mental health

A

Military Psychological Health Center of Excellence

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98
Q

HDP

A

Hazardous Duty Pay

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99
Q

HFP

A

Hostile Fire Pay

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100
Q

IDP

A

Imminent Danger Pay

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101
Q

HDIP

A

Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay

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102
Q

special pay for dangerous land duty

A

HDP: hazardous duty pay
HFP: hostile fire pay
IDP: Imminent Danger Pay
HDIP: hazardous duty incentive pay

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103
Q

air force team who helps the EMF

A

AELNO

USAF aeromedical evacuation

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104
Q

difference between the two ambulance trucks

A

M996: ground ambulance
MM97: armored ground ambulance

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105
Q

patients a M996 can carry

A

6 ambulatory
OR
2 litters
OR 3 ambulatory, 1 litter

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106
Q

how many ambulatory patients can a M996 truck carry

A

6 ambulatory

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107
Q

how many litters can a M996 ambulance truck carry

A

2 litters

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108
Q

how many ambulatory/litter combo patients can a M996 ambulance truck carry

A

1 litter

3 ambulatory

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109
Q

how many ambulatory patients can a M997 carry

A

8 ambulatory

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110
Q

how many litter patients can a M997 carry

A

4 litter patients

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111
Q

how many ambulatory/liter combo patients can the M997 ambulance truck carry

A

4 ambulatory & 2 litter

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112
Q

of patients the M997 can carry

A 
8 ambulatory
OR
4 litter
OR 
2 litter, 4 ambulatory
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113
Q

aircarft designated for AE missions

A

USAF no longer has dedicated aircraft for AE missions
INSTEAD
“In System Select” to describe aircraft desginated to perform AE missions

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114
Q

CASEVAC versus MEDEVAC

A

CASEVAC - unregulated casualty movement w/o medical attendents
MEDEVAC: medical attendents for ERC

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115
Q

CASEVAC

A

unregulated casualty movement w/o medical attendents

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116
Q

unregulated casualty movement w/o medical attendents

A

CASEVAC

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117
Q

patient movement w/medical attendents performing ERC

A

MEDEVAC

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118
Q

CRAF

A

Civilian Reserve Air Fleet

*select civilian airliners to augment DOD

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119
Q

civilian airliners supplement DoD if the need exceeds DOD capabilities

A

CRAF : Civilian Reserve Air FLeet

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120
Q

GPMRC

A

authorizes/coordinates inter & CONUS patient movement via TRANSCOM

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121
Q

authorize/coordinates intER & CONUS patient movemenet

A

TRANSCOM

GPMRC

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122
Q

C-12

A

Huron

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123
Q

Huron

A

C-12

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124
Q

number of litter patients the C-12 Huron can carry

A

0 litter patients

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125
Q

number of ambulatory patients the C-12 Huron can carry

A

8 ambulator

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126
Q

how many patients can the C-12 Huron aircraft carry

A

0 litter

8 ambulatory

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127
Q

range of the C-12 Huron

A

1824 nm

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128
Q

knot speed of the C-12 Huron

A

300 knot speed

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129
Q

TACC

A

Tanker Airlift Control Center

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130
Q

who is responsible for transporting the patient between the MTF & point of embarkment

A

transferring MTF

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131
Q

program that moves the patient between MTF within the theatre of operations

A

intra-theatre operations = TPMRC

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132
Q

program that moves the patient inTER theatre/CONUS & intRA theatre

A

intRA: TPMRC

intER/CONUS: GPMRC

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133
Q

AECC

A

Aeromedical Evacuation Coordination CEnter

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134
Q

moves patient out of hte JOA

A

JPMRC

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135
Q

PE

A

personnel effects

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136
Q

who is responsible for developing policies r/t intra-theatre

A

Joint Force Surgeon

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137
Q

where are Theatre Mortuary Evacuation Ports located

A

near flight lines

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138
Q

Mortuary Prep Points

A

autopsy & embalming

Naples, Vicenza (Italy), Rota, Giemo

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139
Q

OCONUS mortuary that let you bypass Dover

A

germany, guam, japan, SK

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140
Q

largest DOD Moartuary site

A

Dover POrt

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141
Q

4 places that provide mortuary services

A

Dover Port = largest DOD Mortuary
OCONUS Mortuary
Mortuary Prep Point
Theatre Mortuary Evacuation Points

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142
Q

C-130

A

Hercules

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143
Q

Hercules

A

C-130

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144
Q

how many litter patients can go on a C-130 Hercules

A

70 litter patienbts

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145
Q

how many ambulatory patients can go on a C-130 Hercules

A

92 ambulatory

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146
Q

max load ambulatory/litter patients on a C-130

A

70 litter OR 92 ambulatory

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147
Q

combat configuration of a C-130 Hercules

A

50 litter and 30 ambulatory

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148
Q

medical intelligence

A

MEDINT

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149
Q

PHA

A

Preventative HEalth Assessment

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150
Q

DNBI

A

Disease Non Battle Injury

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151
Q

medical condition not sustained via combat

A

DNBI: Disease NonBattle INjury

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152
Q

when do you do you Pre-Deployment Health Assessment

A

30 days prior to deployment

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153
Q

when can you do your Post Deployment Health Assessment

A

30 days post deployment

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154
Q

who coordinates transportation for the deceased

A

Supply Department generates shipping documents and coordinates airlift for the deceased

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155
Q

CACO

A

Casualty Assistance Cells Officer

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156
Q

PADD

A

person authroized to direct disposition

*primary next of kin to the deceased

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157
Q

primary next of kin to the deceased

A

PADD: Person Authorized to Direct Disposition

*primary next of kin to deceased which gives the military legal authrity to move remains and perfom necessary oeprations

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158
Q

DD 1075

A

Record of Personnel Effects

for deceased

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159
Q

4 types of expeditionary pay

A

HDP
HFP
IDP
HDIP

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160
Q

C-2A

A

Greyhound

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161
Q

Greyhound

A

C-2A

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162
Q

how many patients can the C-2A carry

A

Greyhound

28 ambulatory

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163
Q

IDRA

A

Infectious Disease Risk Assessment

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164
Q

head of DOD MEDINT

A

National Center for Medical Intelligence

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165
Q

BW/BT

A

biological warfare and threats

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166
Q

NBC

A

Nuclear Biological CHemical

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167
Q

SGLI

A

Servicemember group life insurance

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168
Q

life insurance for AD

A

SGLI = servicemember group life insurance

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169
Q

DEERS

A

defense entrollment eligibility7 reporting system

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170
Q

application to file taxes late if you are AD

A

IRS Form 2350

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171
Q

how do you disperse SGLI payments

A

Page 2 dispenses payments

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172
Q

how much do you get from SGLI

A

servicemembers get $50K up to $400K max

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173
Q

intelligence

A

product resulting from the collection, process, integration,a nalysis, evaluation, interpretation of available ifnformation for observe, investiation, analysis, understanding

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174
Q

resources to help families

A

Fleet & Family
Ombudsman
Navy Services Family LIne

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175
Q

P-3C

A

Orion

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176
Q

Orion

A

P-3C

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177
Q

how many litter patients can the P-3C Orion carry

A

1 litter patient

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178
Q

how many ambulatory patients can the P-3C carry

A

5 ambulatory

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179
Q

how many patients can the P-3C Orion carry

A

1 litter OR 5 ambulatory

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180
Q

H&S

A

HQ & Service

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181
Q

MARDIV

A

Marine Division

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182
Q

MAW

A

Marine Air Wing

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183
Q

MLG

A

Marine LOgistics Group

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184
Q

MAGTF

A

Marine Corp Air & Ground Force

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185
Q

MPSRONS

A

maritime prepositioned squdrons

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186
Q

DOMS

A

Director of MIlitary Supp

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187
Q

goals of FRSS

A

to increase surgical capabilities closer to POI ato decrease mortality
**rapidly deployable with limited footprint

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188
Q

how many casualties can a FRSS treat without resupplyng

A

18

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189
Q

how long can a FRSS sustain operations without resupply

A

up to 48 hours

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190
Q

surgical capabilities of FRSS

A 
lap
trach
amputate
carinotomy
thoracotomy
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191
Q

sustainability of a FRSS

A

treat 18 casualties and continue operations for up to 48 hrs w/o resupplying

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192
Q

how quickly must you be able to set up an EMF

A

10 days

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193
Q

MRCO

A

Medical REgulating COntrol Office

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194
Q

what is a Marine Corp air asset

A

V-22 Osprey

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195
Q

V-22

A

Osprey

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196
Q

Osprey

A

V-22

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197
Q

how many litters can a V-22 Osprey carry

A

12 litters

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198
Q

how many ambulatory patients can a V-22 Osprey carry

A

24

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199
Q

how many patients can the V-22 carry

A

12 litter
OR
24 ambulatory

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200
Q

paperwork that certifies OCONUS death of person

A

DD 2064: Certificate of Death Overseas

body has 3 copies w/ it

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201
Q

DD 2064

A

Certificate of Death Overseas

body carries 3 copies with it

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202
Q

maritime patrol ship

A

P-8

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203
Q

P-8

A

Maritime Patrol Ship

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204
Q

medical asset aboard a submarine

A

1 IDC

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205
Q

4 types of command authority

A

COCOM
OPCON
TACON
ADCON

206
Q

HH-60H

A

Blackhawk

207
Q

Blackhawk

A

HH-60H

208
Q

how many litter patients can the HH-60H Blackhawk take

A

4 litter

209
Q

how many ambulatory patients can the HH-60H take

A

1 ambulatory

210
Q

how many patients can the HH-60H Blackhawk take

A

1 ambulatory OR 4 litter

211
Q

how many infantry regimens in a MARDIV

A

3 infantry regiments

212
Q

MPF

A

Maritime Prepositioning FOrce

213
Q

how quickly can MAGTF plan/execute missions after receiving a WARNORD

A

6-48 hours

214
Q

how quickly can a MAGTF deploy a MPF

A

5-16 days

215
Q

how quickly can the MAGTF plan/execute missions

A

6-48 hours post receiving WARNORD
OR
5-14 days after MAGTF

216
Q

how many ambulatory patients can a LVPT-7 Landing Vehicle transport

A

21 ambulatory

217
Q

how many litter patients can the LVPT-7 Landing Vehicle carry

A

6 litter

218
Q

how many patients can the LVPT-7 Landing Vehicle carry

A

21 ambulatory & 6 litter

219
Q

NAMRU

A

Navy Medical Research Unit

220
Q

medical research commands

A

NAMRU: Navy MEdical REserch Unit

221
Q

S1

A

Personnel

222
Q

Manpower joint overseers

A

S1

223
Q

MOLLE

A

aka Med Bag

Modular Lightweight Load Carrying Equipment

224
Q

aka med bag

A

MOLLE”: Modular LIghtweight Load Carrying Equipment

225
Q

objective of the FRSS

A

get surgical capabilities closer to POI to help those who would die w/o surgery

226
Q

best way to save people from preventable deaths on the battlefield

A

get medical assets downrange & close as possible to POI to help those who would die w/o surgery

227
Q

S2

A

Intelligence

228
Q

aka Intelligence

A

S2

229
Q

plane the AELNO use for MEDEVAC

A

C-17

230
Q

LCAC

A

Landing Craft Air CUshioned

231
Q

how many litter patients on a LCAC

A

Landing Craft Air Cushioned

3 litter patients

232
Q

how many ambulatory patients can a LCAC carry

A

landing craft air cushion

12 ambulatory

233
Q

how many patients can the LCAC carry

A

Landing Craft Air Cushion

3 litter OR 12 ambulatory

234
Q

Navy Personnel COmmand

A

NAVPERS

235
Q

NAVPERS

A

Navy Personnel COmmand

236
Q

EABO

A

Expeditionary Advance Base Operations

237
Q

responsibility of DIVO/DH w/ regards to evals

A

responsible for the evals of junior enlisted/CPO in the department

238
Q

responsibility of DH during FITREP season

A

DH have the key responsibility for ensuring the sailors under their charge are rated accurately and fairly

239
Q

role of DH in terms of evaluations of enlisted

A

ensure they receive fair and accurate marks

240
Q

when can the DH be the reporting senior for eval purposes

A

E1-E3.

so their final assessment will appear in the sailor’s official record

241
Q

DH & enlisted evaluations

A

DH is the reporting senior for E1-E3
DH can be the senior rater but annother officer is the reporting senior for those above E4
*DH assessments are a factor but the reporting senior’s assesment is in the official personnel fire

242
Q

justification for writing your own fitrep/eval

A

eval writing is an effective tool for teaching /mentoring

* let them write their owbn evalu draft but not the entire report

243
Q

how do you give E6 and above leadership experience w/regard to evaluations

A

E6 and above are the rater/senior rater on E4 and below so this is an effective mechanism for recognization of their leadership of the sailors

244
Q

official instruction for FITREPS/EVALS

A

Bupers Instruction 1610.10 series

245
Q

signing FITREPS/EVAL

A

sailors must sign all adverse fitreps but NAVPC can accept non-adverse fitresps by certificing in teh signature bloc “certified, copy provided”

246
Q

closeout evalus for promoting/frocking

A

closeout evalus for promotion/frocking purposes (E1-E5) not required except if total persiod of op from last eval is over 15 months

247
Q

LCU

A

Landing Craft Utility

248
Q

how many litters can a LCU carry

A

landing craft utility

100 litters

249
Q

how many ambulatory patients can a LCU carry

A

Landing craft utility

400 ambulatory patients

250
Q

how many patients can a LCU carry

A

landing craft utility

100 litter OR 400 ambulatory

251
Q

difference in patient load for LCU versus LCAC

A

LCU: 100 litters OR 400 ambulatory
LCAC: 3 litter OR 13 ambulatory

252
Q

when are O3 fitreps dated

A

January

253
Q

when are LTJG fitreps dated

A

February

254
Q

what FITREPS are due in January

A

LT

255
Q

what fitreps are due in February

A

O2

256
Q

what fitreps are due in March

A

W3-5

E5

257
Q

when are E5 fitreps due

A

March

258
Q

how does the promotion selection board meet the sailor

A

selection board is only able to meet the sailor within the paper in front of them. not the acutla sailor

259
Q

what is a great way to communicate with the selection board

A

FITREP/EVAL. also to communicate w/them

260
Q

4 P’s of Navy Medicine Priorities

A

People
Platforms
Performance
Power

261
Q

People, Platforms, Performance, Power

A

the 4 P’s of Navy Medicine Priorities

262
Q

role of Force Master Chief of the Hospital Corp

A

advance welfare, morale, viutilization training and maintain open lines of communication

263
Q

HQ of Navy Medicine

A

BUMED

264
Q

role of BUMED

A

HQ of Navy MEdicine

265
Q

where does the Navy Surgeon General work

A

BUMED

266
Q

USAID

A

US Agency for International Development

267
Q

runs DART

A

OFDA

268
Q

DART

A

Disaster Assistance REsponse TEam

under OFDA

269
Q

FOG

A

Field OPerations Guide

270
Q

OFDA

A

Office Foreign Disaster Assistance

271
Q

UN & refugees

A

UN High Commissioner for Refugees

“Handbook for Emergencies”

272
Q

UN Field Handbooks

A

Handbook for Refugees
UN DIsaster Assessment and Coordination FIeld Handbook
Mannuel for REfugee Emergencies
FIre Hndbook

273
Q

coordinates the US response to disasters

A

OFDA: Office for the FOreign Disaster DAssistance

274
Q

when does OFDA respond

A

Office Foregin Disaster Assistance

*when the US AMbassador or CHief of MIssions in the country delcasres a disaster based on critical factors

275
Q

criteria that help OFDA (via US Ambassador or Chief of MIssions in the country) determine declares a disaster

A
  • magnitude exceeds ability of the country to respond
  • country has agreed to accept US assistance
  • it is within the interest of the USG to assist
276
Q

when can’t OFDA help a country even if the US wants to

A

cannot help the country unless the accept USG help

277
Q

when does assistance for a country post disaster not happen even if the country request it

A

to help, we have to agree it is within the interest of the USG to respond

278
Q

what is OFDA assistance meant to do

A

supplement/support noit replace the HN response, preparedness, and mitigation

279
Q

objectives of an OFDA assessment team assessment

A

assess scope of damage & initial community needs

report ot chief of mission/OFDA HQ in DC

280
Q

DUINS for enlisted

A

C School

281
Q

first school for enlisted

A

A School

282
Q

A School

A

initial technical trainign

283
Q

XOI

A

XO inquiry

284
Q

how to best help enlisted with their career

A

medical department shoudl familiarize self w/the BUPERS enlisted community manager page to get informoation to guide HMS through their career

285
Q

how does leadership/mentorship directly help enlisted

A

recruit - apprentice - journeyman - master

286
Q

CH-46 D/E

A

Sea Knight helicopter

287
Q

Sea Knight

A

CH-46 D/E helicopter

288
Q

how many ambulatory patients can the CH-46 D/E

A

Sea Knight helicopter

25 ambulatory

289
Q

how many litter patients can teh CH-46 D/E Sea Knight carry

A

15 litter

290
Q

how many patients can the CH-46 D/E Sea Knight carry

A

25 ambulatory

15 litter

291
Q

class of LHA

A

America Class

292
Q

America Class

A

LHA

293
Q

4 deployable elements of the MAGTF

A

CE< GCE, ACE, LCE

combaet elements

294
Q

CE

A

combat element

295
Q

H & S

A

HQ & Service

296
Q

AFRIMS

A

Armed Forces REsearch Institute of MEdical S

297
Q

DBIDS

A

Defense Biometric ID System

298
Q

system that recognizes your fingerprint/CAC

A

DBIDS: defense biometric ID system

299
Q

PERS

A

Navy Personnel

300
Q

AARP

A

American Assocation for REtired PERsons

301
Q

ceremonial washing of a body

A

abultion

302
Q

ablution

A

ceremonial washign of the body

303
Q

acts in a hostile manner

A

belligerent

304
Q

belligerent

A

acting in ahostile manner

305
Q

legal status of an individual who has the right to engage in hostilities during international armed conflict

A

combatant

306
Q

combatant

A

legal status of an individual who has the right to engage in hstilities during international armed conflicts

307
Q

when is the CDR/superior held liable for a war crime

A

liable for a war crime if they knew or should have known of the violence before/during

308
Q

COSR

A

combatoperations stress control

309
Q

may release someone from prision to family if the care they need is beyond what the facility can provide

A

compassionate release

310
Q

ICRC

A

international committee of hte red cross

311
Q

w of War

A

collection of ratified treaties whihc make up legal obligations for mil ops

312
Q

MOS

A

military occupational specialty

313
Q

where was Muhammad born

A

Mecca

314
Q

holiest city in Islam

A

Mecca

315
Q

OPNAVIST

A

office of the chief of naval ops instruction

316
Q

exhibitionism

A

non-consensual sexual activities

317
Q

Law of War

A

collection of ratified treaties which make up legal obligations for military operations

318
Q

collections of ratified treaties which make up legal obligations for military oeprations

A

Law of War

319
Q

Common Article 3 of Geneva Convention

A

murder, mutilitation, cruel treatment/torture and humiliating/degrading treatment and sentenced/executed w/o …

320
Q

chief academic officer of a university

A

Provost

321
Q

EPOW

A

enemy POW

322
Q

3 guiding principles for the treatment of detainees

A

Geneva Convention
Laws of War
Medical ethics

323
Q

POL

A

petroleum, oil, lubricants

324
Q

MOC

A

maritime operations center

325
Q

PPR

A

preplanned response

326
Q

COMPLAN

A

communications plan

327
Q

COP

A

common operating picture

328
Q

TCPED

A

tasking, colection

329
Q

watch cell

A

indication & warning and rapid dissemination of time-sensitive information

330
Q

role of Battle Watch Command lead

A

24/7 curent op wat team
*CO’s direct representative for all curren operations that are under the Fleet COmmand Center attians/maintains/shares operational situation awareness

331
Q

CO’s watch team lead to maintain situational awareness

A

Battle Watch Command lead

332
Q

logistical readiness

A
  • enables C2 and sets conditions for subordinate success
  • sets structures/procedures needed to execute logistics and to support oversight
  • plan/coordinate/integrates operations and theatre-level logistics to support movement/maneuver/force application
  • advise CCDR to ensure FUOPS are logistically sustainable and feasible
333
Q

FITREPS due in APril

A

O5

E9

334
Q

when are O5 FITREPS due

A

APril

335
Q

when are E9 fitreps due

A

APril

336
Q

CH-53E

A

Sea Stallion

337
Q

Sea Stallion

A

CH-53E

338
Q

how many ambulatory patients can the CH-53E carry

A

Sea Stallion

37 ambulatory

339
Q

how many litter patiens can the CH-53E Sea Stallion carry

A

24 litter

340
Q

how many patients can the CH-53E Sea Stallion caryry

A

37 ambulatory
OR
24 litter

341
Q

what qualifies for JMESI cretits

A

complete Masters Degree
billets/jobs
certifications
approved courses liek AROC, C4, MEDEXCELLENCE

342
Q

AQD for Executive Medicine

A

67A

343
Q

67A

A

Executive MEdicine AWD

344
Q

criteria to get the 67A AQD

A

“Executive Medicine”

- successive Executive Medicine billet (CO/XO)

345
Q

goal of AQD 67A

A

“Executive Medicine”

- successful CO/XO tour and support preparation for Flag Officer

346
Q

when are O1 FITREPS due

A

May

347
Q

fitreps due in May

A

)1

348
Q

1st Triad

A

DH
DIVO
LCPO

349
Q

% of where corpsmen serve

A

67%: DHA/BUMED
19% FMF
14% Fleet

350
Q

benefit of IDC pipeline

A

accelerated to E6

351
Q

3 ways enlisted can promote faster

A

IDC
C School
MAP

352
Q

STAR Program

A

Selective Training & Reenlistment

lets your enlist/reenlist and become eligible for career incentives

353
Q

accelerated advancement via IDC

A

accelerated advancement from E5 - E6

354
Q

how to advance the enliste

A

eval recommends promotion & eligible per BUPERS guidence (time in rate, rating exam)

355
Q

HYT

A

high year tenure
-enlisted can continue to serve until their HYT date regardless of # times they fail to advance. if they don’t advance by that date, they must involuntary separate or r_

356
Q

bonus sub IDC

A

$60K

357
Q

who knows the latest of the mannings per HM rank

A

COmmand Career COunseler

358
Q

how does the Detailer advocate for a sailor

A

sail advocate for balancing best career options against personnal/family restrictions

359
Q

reenlistment bonus for FMF reconniassance IDC

A

$60K

360
Q

bonus for Surg Tech

A

$45K

361
Q

fitresps due in June

A

E4

362
Q

when are E4 evals due

A

June

363
Q

how many ambulatory can travel in a Bradley ARmored MEDEVAC

A

4 ambulatory

364
Q

how many litters can be on the BRadley Armored Medevac

A

4 litters

365
Q

how many patients cant eh BRadley ARmored MEdevac carry

A

4 litter OR 4 ambulatory

366
Q

NCIS

A

Navy Criminal InvestigativeServies

367
Q

who investigates sexual assault

A

NCIS - navy criminal investigative services

368
Q

monetary theft the NCIS investigates

A

NCIS investigates over $500

369
Q

4 LOE from the “Design for Maintaining Maritime Superority”

A

LOE BLue, Green GOld, Purple

370
Q

LOE Blue from the “Design for Maintaining Maritime Superiority”

A

LOE BLue = Strengthen Navy from the Sea

371
Q

who do personnel assigned to the H&S Company Support

A

Infantry

372
Q

which medical assets support the Infantry

A

H&S company

373
Q

LOCE

A

littoral operations in a contested enviornment

374
Q

who has national command authority

A

president SecDefq

375
Q

who does the Joint Force Surgeon advise

A

JFS advices the host national medical capabilities and makes recommendations to the JOint Force Commander

376
Q

JP 5-0.2

A

Joint Task Force Planning Guidance

377
Q

LOE Green from the “Design for Maintaining Maritime Superiority”

A

LOE Green: achieve high velocity outcomes

378
Q

3 Tenents of Distributed Lethality

A
  • increase offensive lethality of all warships
  • distributed offensive capabilities geographically
  • get ships the right mix of resources to persist in a fight
379
Q

LOE Gold in “Design for Maintaining Maritme Superiority”

A

LOE Gold: strength our navy team for the fight

380
Q

LOE Purple in “Desgn for Maintaining Maritime Superiority”

A

LOE Purple: expand/strength our Navy PResence

381
Q

4 LOE from “Design for Maintaining Maritime Superiority”

A

LOE Blue: strength our Navy from the Sea
LOE Green: achieve high velocity outcomes
LOE Gold: strength our navy team for the fight
LOE Purple: expand/strength our navy presence

382
Q

when should you a career development board

A

15 - 18 months before a sailor’s PRD

383
Q

when should you enroll / update EFMP information

A

15 months priori to PRD

384
Q

how many jobs can enlisted apply fro on MyNavyAssignmet portal

A

up to 7

385
Q

when are O6 fitreps due

A

July

386
Q

when are E1 Fitreps due

A

July

387
Q

MII3 Personnel Carrier

A

Armored Tank

388
Q

how many ambulatory patient can get into a MII3

A

armored tank

10 ambulatory

389
Q

how many litter patients can a MII3 carry

A

4 litters with conversion

390
Q

how many patients can a MII3 carry

A

armored tank

10 ambulatory OR 4 liters

391
Q

eMSM

A

enhanced multiservice market

392
Q

TRO

A

Tricare Regional Office

393
Q

67G

A

AQD for Managed Care Performance

394
Q

AQD for Managed Care Performance

A

67G

395
Q

CETARS

A

Corporate Enterprise Training Activity Resource Systems

396
Q

FLTMPS

A

Fleet Management & Planning System

397
Q

what does CeTARS feed

A

FLTMPS
NSIPS
OSR

398
Q

BOL

A

Bupers ONline

399
Q

FITREP Block 41

A

Performance Narrative

400
Q

what part of the FITREP tells the board to distinguish the sailor from peers

A

Trait Average

401
Q

TRO

A

Tricare Regional Office

402
Q

Pre/Post Deployment Health Assessment

A

DD 2795/2796

403
Q

JMESP

A

Joint Medical Executive Skills Program

404
Q

what must be completed prior to XO screening

A

must do JMESP compentenceis

405
Q

who oversees JMESI

A

San Antionio

406
Q

how many JMESI compentencies

A

36

407
Q

JMESI

A

Joint Medical Executive Skills Institute

408
Q

4 types of sea duty pay

A

hazardous duty pay
special sea pay
career sea pay
imminent danger sea pay

409
Q

manpower reliance for operational platforms

A

rely on organic medical capabilities and MAP program (medical augmentation program_

410
Q

SMDR

A

senior medical department representative

411
Q

purpose of Overseas/Operational Suitability Screening

A

to not send people where they can’t get medical care they need & to not waste $

412
Q

when is the Overseas Screening completed

A

AD 30 days

family 60 days after receiving orfers

413
Q

AQD of Expeditionary Medicine

A

67B

414
Q

67B

A

AQD for Expeditionary Medicine

415
Q

goal of 67B

A

successful operational tour

416
Q

catagories of 67B

A

Expeditionary Medicine

8 core & 7 assigned

417
Q

S3

A

Operations

418
Q

first 3 directorates of a joint command

A

S1 - Manpower
S2- intelligence
S3- opeartions

419
Q

S6

A

C2, communications

420
Q

joint directorate that does C2

A

J6

421
Q

hard + soft power

A

smart power

422
Q

smart power

A

hard + soft power

423
Q

what type of power is GHE

A

smart power to support national strategic objectives

424
Q

how does GHE benefit PN/HN

A

help’s with social well being, rule of law, governance, economies, security and develop PN capabilities to increase self-reliance

425
Q

CERP forces

A

commander emergenyc response program

426
Q

4 types of MAFTF

A

MEF
MEB
MARSOC (Marine Special OPs_
SPMAFTF - special purpose

427
Q

MARSOC

A

Marine Special Operations

428
Q

spec ops for the marines

A

MARSOC

429
Q

breakdown of MARDIV

A 
3 infantry units
HQ
tank battalion
artillery
light armored reconnaissance
assault amphiboious 
comabt engineer
430
Q

LHA that act as CRTS

A

America
triopli
Bougainville

431
Q

who has control of FST as an asset

A

FST are an asset to CDR PAC/Atlanti fleets

432
Q

AELNO evacuation aircraft

A

C-17

433
Q

PRT

A

provincial reconstruction team

434
Q

NEPMU

A

Navy Environmental Prev Med Unit

435
Q

what jobs are under NEPMU

A

Navy Environmental Prev Med Unit

-industrial hygeine, entomology, enviornmental

436
Q

FDPMU

A

Foreward Deployed Prev MEd

437
Q

FHP

A

Force Health Protection

438
Q

what FITREPS are due in July

A

O6

E1-E3

439
Q

when are W1-2 evals due

A

September

440
Q

when are E8 fitreps due

A

September

441
Q

when are E7 evals due

A

September

442
Q

what Evals are due in September

A

W1-2

E7-8

443
Q

LCPO

A

Leading Chief Petty Officer

444
Q

LPO

A

Leading Petty Officer

445
Q

enlisted department leadership

A

LCPO

LPO

446
Q

year the Chiefs were established

A

1893

447
Q

SORN

A

Systems of REcords NOtice
SORN is a formal notice to the public published in the Federal Register that identifies the purpose for which Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is collected, from whom, what type, how information is shared, and how to access and correct information maintained by the agency

448
Q

enlisted LADR

A

Learning & Development Roadmap
LaDR guides Sailors in identifying current and projecting future assignments, Navy enlisted classifications, and training and education opportunities to include rate training, Professional Military Education, advanced education initiatives, professional certifications, etc. to aid in a Sailors personal an

449
Q

role of MCPO

A

master chief petty officer

  • administer manage progress,
  • probably only 1 per command
450
Q

role of a senior chief

A

SCPO

senior technical supervisor and trains . technical and managerial experience

451
Q

difference between SCPO (senior chief) & MCPO (master chief)

A

Senior Chief: senior technical supervisor w/technical & managerial experience

Master Chief: administers/manages programs

452
Q

reenlistment bonus for dental tech

A

$30K

453
Q

reenlistment bonus for Behavioral Health Techs

A

$45K

454
Q

DoD Reorganization Act

A

Goldwater-Nichols DOD Reorganization Act

455
Q

what resource says the CJCS is the senior military member

A

Goldwater- Nichols Reorganization Act

456
Q

most senior member of the Armed Forces

A

CJCS

457
Q

role of the Military Service Chiefs

A

dual-hatted

  • advises Prez/SecDef
  • manags their service
458
Q

chairman of the National Security Council

A

President

459
Q

members of the National Security Concil

A

President = chairman

VP, State, treasure, defense, assistant to the president for national security

460
Q

non-cabinet member of the Natioanl Security Council

A

Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs

CJCS - mil advisor, CIA director - intel advisor

461
Q

advisor to the National Security Council on military matters

A

CJCS

462
Q

intelligence advisor to the National Security Council

A

CIA Director

463
Q

advisors to the National Security Council

A

CJCS - military matters

CIA Director - inteligence matters

464
Q

members of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

A 
CJCS
Vice CJCS
Chief of Staff: Army, Air Force
Chief of Naval Operations
Commodant of the Marine COrp
465
Q

top Army active duty

A

Chief of Staff Army

466
Q

top Air Force active duty

A

Chief of Staff Air Force

467
Q

top Navy active duty

A

Chief of Naval Operations

468
Q

top Marine active duty

A

Commodant of the Marine Corp

469
Q

DHHQ

A

Defense Health HQ
Fal CHurch, VA
policies/,guide/manpowers

470
Q

who do MTF report to

A

Defense Health Agency and BUMED via their Eschelon 3 Commander

471
Q

FORCM

A

Force Master CHief

472
Q

rank of the Navy Surgeon General

A

Rear Admiral 2 star

473
Q

rank of the Staff Corp leaders

A

one star

474
Q

mission of BUMED

A

keep the Navy & Marine COrp families ready, healthy, and on the job

475
Q

vision of BUMED

A

Navy & MC have best readiness and health in the world

476
Q

strategic priorities of BUMED

A

readiness
health
partnerships

477
Q

guiding principles of BUMED

A

honor the trust to care for AMerica’s sons & daughters
honor the uniform we wear
honor the privilage of leadreshipo

478
Q

fitreps due in October

A

O4

479
Q

when are O4 FITREPS due

A

October

480
Q

fitreps due in December

A

E6

481
Q

fitreps due in NOvember

A

E6

482
Q

when are E6 fitreps due

A

Nov

483
Q

when are O1-O4 FITREPS due

A

1 - May
2- February
3- January
4- October

484
Q

bonus for dive medicine IDC

A

$60K

485
Q

authoritiative writing guide for Navy

A

Navy Correspondence Manual

486
Q

purpose of BLUF

A

statement/brief paragraph w/conclusion and recommendations up front

487
Q

how to get quickly to the point

A

BLUF: conclusion & recommendation up front

488
Q

how to acknowlege everyone should listen up

A

ALCON

all concerned

489
Q

FYSA

A

for your situational awarness

-beginning of correpondence to notify the recipient that the information is for awareness and requires no action

490
Q

how to state in a document/email that it is just a notification and no action is required

A

FYSA: For Your Situational Awareness

491
Q

Information Paper

A

1 page. discussion of facts/opinions, suggestions, arguments

caption it: INFORMATRION PAPER

492
Q

difference between a point paper & information paper

A

Point Paper is different b/c closes w/a brief succicient summary that indicates any position/conclusion

493
Q

to foregive a loan

A

forebearance

494
Q

how does Navy writing structure thoughts & discussion

A

Navy writing uses the 5 W’s to structure thoughts/discussion

495
Q

problem of financial interests & navy status

A

cannot hold financial interests that conflict w/performance of duty
*cannot engage in financial transactiosn using nonpublic government information of allow info to further personal interest

496
Q

ethics

A

good values and moral duty and obligation

-consicious/guiding philisophy/moral importance

497
Q

source for military ethics

A

DDD5500.7R
Joint Ethics REgulation
*foundation for punitive action
*money/…

498
Q

foundation for punitive actions r/t military ethical violations

A

DDD 5500.7-R: Joint EThics REgulations

499
Q

action post Captain’s Mast

A

sailor must appeal in writing within 5 days
ONLY IF
-unjust (evidence doesn’t support findings or illagally obtained
OR
- dispropriationalte: too hardsh/unfair w/ regards to the specific circumstance of the case

500
Q

how many days do you have to appeal post Captain’s Mast results

A

must appeal in writing within 5 days post

501
Q

criteria that must be met in order for a sailor to appeal post Captain’s Mast

A

2 = unjust, disproportionate

unjust: evidence doesn’t support findings/illegally obtained
disproportionate: too harsh/unfair r/t the specific circumstances of the case

502
Q

reenslistment bonus for DAPA

A

$45K

503
Q

reenlistment bonus for Resp TEch

A

$45K

504
Q

recruitment bonus for SAR

A

@25K

505
Q

recruitment bonus for FMF REconnaisance IDC

A

$25K

506
Q

reenslistment bonus for dive med tech

A

$25K

507
Q

NEC

A

Navy Enlisted Classifications

508
Q

ATF

A

Advance Technical Field

SAR, FMF Reconnaisiance IDC, Dive Med Tech

509
Q

EPAC

A

Enlisted PRogrammed Authoriztions
*sumamry of programmed billet authorizations
_basis for accessions int HM rate and dicrects impact on filling C-School billets

510
Q

what is enlisted manning “balanced”

A

manning 98-102% of ENlisted PRogrammed AUthorization is considered Balanced

BROC (3 decks)

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