Breast Disorders - Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What layer of embryonic tissue do the breast come from? What binds the lobes together?

A

Arises from the ectoderm

stroma (fibrous tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many lobes does a normal breast contain? What is considered the breast base? What is considered the breast apex?

A

12-20 lobes

base is closest to the ribs

apex: contains major excretory duct for the lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does each breast lobe contain? How many visible opening are usually present in the nipple?

A

group of lobules that have several ducts which unite to form the major duct for the lobe

Usually only 6-8 openings visible on nipple surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Areola also contains _______ which may be visible as punctate prominences. What type are they? What is there job?

A

Montgomery glands

sebaceous glands

function to secrete oil to help a breastfeeding mother’s nipple stay well lubricated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is 80-85% of normal breast tissue composed of? How does the breast consistency change comparing Nonpregnant, nonlactating breast vs pregnant vs lactating breasts

A

adipose tissue

Nonpregnant, nonlactating - small, tightly packed alveoli

Pregnant - alveoli hypertrophy and lining cells proliferate

Lactation - alveolar cells secrete lipids and proteins (milk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_______ is on the deep surface of breast to support the breast in upright position

A

cooper’s ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

**Where does the majority of the breast lymphatics drain to? **Why is this important clinically? **Which ones specifically?

A

**axillary lymph nodes

most common site of breast cancer metastases

sentinel nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

fetal breasts arise from the _____. What happens to the prepubertal breast?

A

basal layer of epidermis

rudimentary bud with few branching ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the prepubertal breast, ducts are capped with ______, ______ or _______.

A

alveolar buds, end buds or small lobules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens to the breast around puberty? What age? What cell types specifically?

A

estrogen/progesterone affect breast tissue
Communication between epithelial and mesenchymal cells resulting in extensive branching of ductal system and lobule development

age 10-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Overall, what factors contribute to breast growth? What happens to the nipple/areola during puberty?

A

increased acinar tissue, ductal size and branching, and deposits of adipose

Nipple and areola enlarge during puberty, smooth muscle fibers surround the base of the nipple and nipple sensitivity to touch increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is happening in premenstrual breast changes? What phase? What hormones?

A

breast epithelial cells proliferate during the luteal phase when estrogen and progesterone are increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

premenstrual breast changes _____ cells increase in number and size. ______ widen. What happens as a result?

A

acinar cells increase in number and size

ductal lumen widens

Overall increased breast size, turgor/fullness, and tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens to breast tissue postmenstrual?

A

breast epithelial cells undergo programmed cell death at the end of the luteal phase when estrogen and progesterone levels decline

DECREASED size and turgor, reduced number and size of breast acini, decreased diameter of ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

**When does final breast differentiation occur? What 2 hormones influence it?

A

FINAL is completed during the FIRST full-term pregnancy

progesterone and prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does the breast tissue change during late pregnancy?

A

fatty tissues are almost completely replaced by cellular breast parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What will estrogen and progesterone level do postpartum? What triggers the onset of milk production? What hormone regulates milk production?

A

Rapid drop in estrogen and progesterone postpartum

Drop in progesterone triggers onset of milk production

Prolactin is main regulator of milk production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What can cause the breast to rapidly return to pre-pregnancy state?

A

stopping nursing

giving estrogens

causes the breast to increase in adipose tissue aka back to pre-pregnancy breasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does the breast change during menopause? What elements are lost?

A

the decrease in estrogen and progesterone cause the breast to atrophy and involute, become less elastic, glands and ducts decrease

parenchymal elements (the functional tissue of the mammary gland, primarily consisting of the milk ducts and the glandular tissue responsible for milk production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Is some nipple discharge normal? What will it look like?

A

YES! about 80% of women will experience it at some point in their reproductive years

Usually multi-duct with a milky white, dark green, brown discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is green nipple discharge related to?

A

related to cholesterol diepoxides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

**Describe the presentation of physiologic nipple discharge? What if it is bloody?

A

Multiduct nonbloody discharge elicited following manual pressure

If bloody and pregnant, no worries

bloody and not pregnant = problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

**What are the 5 red flags for abnormal nipple discharge?

A

Spontaneous
Bloody
Unilateral and/or uniductal
Pt > 40
Associated breast mass

aka 1 pinpoint bead of fluid = concerning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the MC cause of pathologic nipple discharge?

A

intraductal papillomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some important questions to ask regarding abnormal nipple discharge?

A

Unilateral or bilateral

Single or multiple ducts

Spontaneous or must be expressed

Constant or intermittent

Elicited by pressure at a single site or general pressure

Timing in relation to menstrual cycle

Pre- or post-menopausal

History of hormone use (contraception, HRT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

There are many causes of galactorrhea, what are the 3 highlighted ones from lecture?

A

antipsychotics because they mess with the dopamine -> prolactin relationship

pituitary adenomas

chest wall irritation or stimulation (think nipple piercing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the classic presentation of galactorrhea?

A

bilateral multiductal milky discharge in nonlactating patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What tests would you want to order in a pt presenting with galactorrhea?

A

pregnancy test, prolactin, renal function, thyroid then ENDO consult!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the classic pathologic discharge presentation? Does a mass have to be felt?

A

unilateral, spontaneous serous or serosanguineous discharge from single duct

do NOT have to have a mass to be cancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

_____ discharge is more suggestive of cancer but usually due to _____

A

bloody discharge

benign papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

**What are the 2 first line tests when working up a pt for pathologic nipple discharge? Which one is preferred for which patients?

A

mammogram or breast US

younger than 40 = US

older than 40 = mammogram

also okay to order both!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

**What is the definitive dx for pathologic discharge?

A

subareolar duct excision (microductectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What 5 types of medications/essential oils are high offenders for causing gynecomastia?

A

androgens

anabolic steroids

methadone

lavender oil

tea tree oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How can you tell the difference between true gynecomastia and pseudogynecomastia? How is it graded?

A

Gynecomastia: true glandular enlargement - CENTRAL, may be tender

pseudogynecomastia: Fatty tissue - diffuse, nontender

Grade findings according to severity
Higher number = more severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What will pubertal gynecomastia present like?

A

tender 2-3 cm discoid enlargement of glandular tissue beneath areola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are s/s of gynecomastia that are highly suggestive of cancer?

A

Asymmetry

Enlargement not beneath areola

Unusual firmness

Nipple retraction

Bleeding or discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What 5 labs would you want to order in a pt presenting with gynecomastia?

A
  1. Serum prolactin
  2. beta-hCG
  3. Serum free testosterone
  4. LH
  5. Serum estradiol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When would a hCG be positive in males? When would it be mildly elevated?

A

+ beta-hCG usually 2o testicular tumor or other CA (i.e., lung or liver)

may see mildly elevated hCG in pts with primary hypogonadism and high LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does a low testosterone and high LH in the presence of gynecomastia indicate?

A

primary hypogonadism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does a high testosterone and high LH in the presence of gynecomastia indicate?

A

androgen resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does an increased serum estradiol indicate in the presence of gynecomastia?

A

Increased - testicular tumors, elevated hCG, liver disease, obesity, adrenal tumor, hermaphroditism, aromatase gene mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When does pubertal gynecomastia tend to resolve?

A

usually resolves spontaneously in 1-2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the tx for painful or persistent gynecomastia?

A

raloxifine or tamoxifen (SERM)

anastrozole (Aromatase inhibitor)

testosterone therapy for low T

sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the caution for Aromatase inhibitors? What is the name of the drug?

A

NOT recommended in use in teenagers because of the risk of osteoporosis and delayed epiphyseal fusion

anastrozole (Arimidex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What can anastrozole (Arimidex) do to estradiol and testosterone levels?

A

Causes decreased serum estradiol and increased testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When is radiation therapy recommended in gynecomastia?

A

Prophylactic - men with prostate CA receiving antiandrogen tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the 2 MC pathogens in mastitis?

A

Staph aureus

Group B strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

______ increases risk for mastitis. When is it commonly seen

A

smoking

2-3rd week after birth, UNCOMMON in non-nursing pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the classic presentation of mastitis?

A

painful erythematous lobule in outer quadrant of breast noted during 2nd or 3rd week of puerperium

may have signs of systemic infections

50
Q

What is the tx for mastitis?

A

Continue breastfeeding or use breast pump!!!

warm or cold compresses

supportive care: rest, fluids, NSAIDs, acetaminophen

abx: Dicloxacillin or cephalexin (500 mg QID)
alt: clinda or bactrim

50
Q

T/F: Mothers with mastitis should pump and dump until infection has resolved

A

FALSE!!

babies can still drink the milk from the infected breast

51
Q

What is the severe IV abx tx for mastitis?

A

Vancomycin + ceftriaxone OR

piperacillin-tazobactam

52
Q

What should you do if mastitis is NOT improving after 48-72 hours

A

Evaluate for abscess

Consider biopsy/inflammatory breast CA

53
Q

What am I? What does it usually arise from?

A

breast abscess

pre-existing mastitis

54
Q

What is the tx for peripheral breast abscess?

A

I&D

abx: Dicloxacillin or cephalexin
alt: clinda or bactrim

55
Q

What is the tx for subareolar breast abscess? What is the underlying cause?

A

usually requires subareolar duct excision and complete removal of sinus tracts because normal I&D has a 40% recurrence rate

also want to bx abscess wall to r/o breast CA

due to keratin-plugged milk ducts behind nipple

56
Q

fat necrosis breast masses are usually accompanied by _____ or ______. +/- ____ and _____. Should order _____ or ____ to help with dx

A

skin or nipple retraction

+/- ecchymosis, tenderness

US or mammo to help with dx

57
Q

if you leave a fat necrosis mass untreated, what will happen? If it does not, what should you do next?

A

mass gradually disappears

If no resolution after several weeks - bx

58
Q

What is a galactocele? What causes it?

A

Milk retention cyst

Caused by obstructed duct in lactating or galactorrhea patient

59
Q

Are US or mammo better at dx galactocele? What is the best way to dx?

A

US is better at distinguishing fluid from mass

but can order either or both

aspiration of cyst!! will yield a milky substance

60
Q

Which masses do NOT increase risk of subsequent breast cance?

A

Fat necrosis

Galactocele

single, nonproliferative lesions in fibrocystic breast changes

fibroadenoma

61
Q

______ are the MC cause of cyclic breast pain in reproductive age women. What is the age range? What is it due to? _____ increases you risk

A

Fibrocystic Breast Changes

age 30-50

benign changes in breast epithelium due to ESTROGEN levels

alcohol

62
Q

Pain or tenderness associated with a mass
Fluctuations in size
Multiplicity of lesions
+/- Nonbloody green or brown nipple discharge

What am I?
**What is the highlighted s/s from lecture?
What makes it worse?

A

Fibrocystic Breast

fluctuations in size

caffeine

63
Q

How do you dx fibrocystic breast changes?

A

US or mammo

aspiration to determine cystic vs solid

bx dominant mass

64
Q

premenopausal breast tissue is (dense/fatty) and post menopausal breast is (dense/fatty)

A

premenopause = dense = hard to read on mammo

postmenopause = fatty = easier to read on mammo

65
Q

What is the tx for fibrocystic breast changes? When can you expect s/s to resolve?

A

reassurance!!!

avoid trauma, good bra, weight loss, no caffeine, coffee, chocolate, low fat diets, increase in fresh fruits and veggies

CAM: evening primose oil or vit E

Symptoms usually resolve following menopause

66
Q

________ or _____ have been used in severe pain cases caused by fibrocystic breast changes. ______ is severe refractory cases

A

danazol or tamoxifen

sx

67
Q

_____ is the MC benign tumor in the breast. What age range?

A

Fibroadenoma

young women age 15-35

68
Q

What is the classic presentation of fibroadenoma? What is the definitive dx?

A

round, firm, discrete, relatively mobile, nontender mass about 1-5 cm in diameter

core biopsy or mass excision

69
Q

What will the US report show on a fibroadenoma?

A

well-defined solid mass with benign features

70
Q

What is a Phyllodes tumor? What is the tx?

A

a fibroepithelial tumor that clinically resembles fibroadenomas and has a small chance of becoming malignant

tx with excision with wide local margins

71
Q

If the fibroadenomas contains ____ or ______ should be more concerning. What should you do next?

A

calcifications or scarring (anything making it more complex)

excision of the mass

72
Q

What is the tx for an unclear diagnosis or rapid growth of a fibroadenoma?

A

sx with good margins of normal tissue!

73
Q

If the fibroadenoma is asymptomatic and you choose to monitor it, what are the monitor requirements?

A

Core needle biopsy to confirm dx OR repeat US and breast exam in 3-6 months

74
Q

What is the average age of breast cancer? What is the lifetime risk of developing breast cancer in female pts?

A

60-61

**1 in 8

75
Q

breast cancer is the main cause of death in women _____. Breast cancer is the ____ MC cause of cancer death in women

A

40-59

2nd death (1st is lung cancer)

76
Q

_____ 2x increases risk of breast CA
______ 3x increases risk of breast CA
______ puts you at higher risk for developing breast CA

A

1 first degree relative (mother/sister) - 2x risk

2 first degree relatives - nearly 3x risk

Younger age of family at dx = higher risk

77
Q

What percent of pts with breast CA report a positive family hx? What genes? How are they inherited?

A

15-20%

BRCA1 and BRCA 2 - autosomal dominant

78
Q

What are the 6 breast cancer risk factors? **What is the greatest risk factor?

A

Nulliparity OR first full term pregnancy age 30 or later

increased number of periods (early menarche or late menopause)

combination HRT

hx of uterine CA

hx of breast mass

**personal hx of breast cancer

79
Q

How are most breast cancers dx?

A

after abnormal mammogram

80
Q

What is the usually presentation of breast cancer? What quadrant is the most common?

A

painless breast mass
Usually hard, fixed, irregular margins, nonmobile

Most breast cancers are in the upper outer quadrant!

81
Q

What are concerning PE findings that would point towards breast cancer?

A

Change in breast size/contour

Nipple or skin retraction

Edema or erythema

82
Q

What lymph nodes should you palpate if concerned for breast cancer? What would increase your suspicion for breast cancer?

A

axillary, pectoral, supraclavicular, infraclavicular, subscapular, epitrochlear and lateral chain

Firm nodes or nodes >5 mm or matted/fixed axillary lymph nodes

83
Q

What 2 lymph nodes strongly indicate possibility of distant metastases?

A

+ supraclavicular or infraclavicular nodes

84
Q

What is the characteristic finding of Paget’s carcinoma? What is it mistaken for?

A

may only see small (1-2 mm) nipple erosions

Eczematoid eruption and ulceration

dermatits or infection of the nipple

85
Q

If you see edema of ipsilateral arm, what should that make you think?

A

advanced breast cancer

86
Q

If a palpable mass is associated with paget’s disease, what does that mean? non-palpable mass?

A

Palpable mass - 50% (if present, 95% are invasive cancer, usually infiltrating ductal)

no palpable mass: noninvasive cancer or ductal carcinoma in situ present in 75% of cases

87
Q

What is the usual presentation of Paget’s disease? How do you dx? What is the tx?

A

pain, itching or burning of breast along with superficial erosion or ulceration

May see bloody nipple discharge, retracted nipple

full-thickness biopsy of lesion

Mastectomy is traditional therapy

88
Q

What am I?

A

Paget’s disease

89
Q

**What is the characteristic finding for Inflammatory Breast Carcinoma (IBC)?

A

“Peau d’orange” (orange peel skin) may be seen

Diffuse, brawny edema of skin with erysipeloid border with usually NO palpable underlying mass

can present like mastitis that doesnt get better

90
Q

What is the tx for Inflammatory Breast Carcinoma (IBC)?

A

Tx - multiple rounds of chemo, followed by surgery and radiation

91
Q

_____ is the breast imaging modality of choice. How accurate is it?

A

mammo

correct in about 90% of cases

92
Q

Up to ____ of cancers detected on CBE not seen on mammogram. What should you do next?

A

15%

Biopsy should still be done if dominant or suspicious mass

93
Q

What kind of biospy is needed to definitively define breast cancer?

A

core needle bx

94
Q

What is the general consensus for mammogram screening?

A

at least once every 2 years among women 50-74

95
Q

What is the ACS breast cancer screening recommendation? When should you STOP screening for breast cancer?

A

Q 1 yr starting 40-45, may transition to Q2 yrs at 55

If 75+ years old, may continue screening as long as the pt has at least estimated 10 years life expectancy

96
Q

Where are more than 95% of breast cancer are in _____ components of the breast

A

epithelial component

ductal and lobular

97
Q

invasive or carcinoma-in-situ (CIS) arise mostly from the _______ and are _____

A

intermediate ducts

invasive!

aka not a good thing

98
Q

knowing the presence or absence of _______ is very important in the management of breast cancer. What are the 3 options?

A

hormone receptor sites!

estrogen, progesterone or HER2 receptors

99
Q

If the cancer is ER/PR/HER2 +, where is it more likely to metastasize to? What if there are no receptors present?

A

ER/PR/HER2 + - metastasize to bone, soft tissue, genital organs

No Receptors - metastasize to liver, lung, brain

100
Q

Are most cancers positive or negative for receptors? Which kind is associated with worse outcomes?

A

most are positive!

80% - ER + and/or PR +
23% - HER2 + (human epidermal growth factor receptor 2)

13% - no hormone receptors** associated with worse outcomes

101
Q

What is the difference between radical mastectomy and modified radical mastectomy? Which one is used frequently

A

Radical Mastectomy - en bloc removal of breast, PECTORAL MUSCLES, axillary lymph nodes

Modified Radical Mastectomy - removal of breast and underlying pectoralis major fascia with evaluation of select axillary nodes

Modified Radical Mastectomy used frequently!!

102
Q

______ is the excision of tumor mass with negative margin, axillary evaluation and postoperative irradiation. When is it an option?

A

breast conservation therapy

For stage I and II and certain stage III cancers

103
Q

What type of breast cancer is hormonal therapy indicated?

A

If positive for ER/PR/HER2

5 years of tamoxifen (SERMs) tx of choice
or
aromatase inhibitors (anastrozole)

104
Q

What 2 events does tamoxifen increase your risk for?

A

Increased risk of endometrial cancer and VTE

105
Q

What is the adjuvant therapy for hormonal receptor negative breast cancer?

A

pembrolizumab (Keytruda)

106
Q

When is systemic chemotherapy used in breast CA?

A

reduce occult metastases

107
Q

_____ may be used for chemoprevention of breast CA in some high-risk women

A

tamoxifen (Nolvadex), raloxifene (Evista)

SERM

108
Q

What does SERM stand for? what is the MOA?

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators

bind to estrogen receptors; block estrogen in some (not all) tissues

109
Q

How does the MOA differ slightly between tamoxifen and raloxifene?

A

tamoxifen - blocks estrogen in breasts; mimics estrogen in uterus and bone

aloxifene - blocks estrogen in breasts and uterus; mimics estrogen in bone

110
Q

Which SERM has a less potent estrogen blockade andsmaller reduction in new cancer but with less estrogenic SE (endometrial CA, VTE)?

A

Raloxifene

111
Q

What are the SEs of SERM and aromatase inhibitors? Can you use a SERM and aromatase inhibitor at the same time?

A

think menopausal symptoms

hot flashes, nausea, muscle aches and cramps, hair thinning, headache, paresthesias

NO!! one or the other

112
Q

What is the MOA of aromatase inhibitors? How does it compare to tamoxifen?

A

inhibit aromatase (enzyme that produces estrogen)

May be slightly MORE effective at reducing recurrence of breast CA

May be LESS effective than tamoxifen at initial chemoprevention

113
Q

______ are contraindicated in pregnant women and may increase serum concentration of _____

A

Aromatase Inhibitor

methadone

114
Q

________ MOA attach to and cause destruction of estrogen receptors. What drug class?

A

Fulvestrant (Faslodex), elacestrant (Orserdu)

SERD

does NOT mimic effects of estrogen

115
Q

______ are used to reduce release of GnRH and FSH/LH

A

GnRH agonists/antagonists

116
Q

What is the follow up recommended for breast cancer pts? What is the median time to recurrence?

A

PE Q 4 mo x 2 yrs, then Q 6 mo x 3 yrs, then yearly

Mammogram 6 months after radiation, then yearly

Routine laboratory tests

4 years

117
Q

What type of breast cancer has the higher chance of recurrence? If ________ is present, survival rate decreases

A

Hormone receptor negative cancers

axillary lymphadenopathy

118
Q

Consider chemoprophylaxis with _____ or _______ if patient is ≥ 35 years old and has ??????

A

SERM or aromatase inhibitor

5-year risk of breast cancer ≥ 3%
10-year risk of breast cancer ≥ 5%

consider prophylactic mastectomy if a strong family history