Breast Flashcards

1
Q

Categorise the causes of Nipple Discharge

A
  • Physiological
    • normal in pregnancy & lactation
    • milky discharge may occur transiently in neonate
    • bilateral multiduct green/white/brown/blue/black discharge can be physiological, natural secretion from apocrine glands in ducts, usu from multiple ducts
  • Intraductal
    • Single duct
      • Papilloma
      • DCIS/malignancy (rare)
    • Multiple ducts
      • Multiple papilloma (increased risk of malignant change)
      • Mammary duct ectasia (though this can be considered aberration of involution)
      • Breast infection
  • Galactorrhoea (some causes include physiological and drugs)
    • True galactorrhoea = a copious milky discharge not assoc w pregnancy or breastfeeding = rare & usually drug induced
    • Drugs that change DA activity: haloperidol, metoclopramide, chlorpromazine, opiates, COC
    • ­PRL due to: primary PRL-secreting tumour (pituitary or lung cancers)
    • hypothyroidism - ­increased TSH can stimulate prolactin release
    • chronic renal failure - ~30% these pts have elevated prolactin
  • Traumatic
    • Paget’s
    • Nipple eczema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Categorise the factors affecting local recurrence after BCT.

A
  • Tumour factors
    • Margins are most important factor
    • Histological grade
    • LVI
    • Extensive in situ component controversial – probably not
    • Size and histological subtype do not affect
    • Multiple tumours - no increase in LR if all excised
  • Patient factors
    • More common in younger pts
    • Family history increases LR
    • LR less frequent in pts w larger breasts
  • Adjuvant treatment (radiotherapy +/- endocrine, chemotherapy) reduces recurrence rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Categorise the factors influencing the cosmetic outcome after BCT.

A

Patient factors:

  • Small breast and very large breast problematic
  • Smoking
  • Age is correlated with poorer outcome

Tumour factors:

  • Locations of tumour; best in upper outer (45%)
  • Central difficult to reconstruct

Surgical factors:

  • The volume of breast tissue excised is the most important factor affecting cosmesis (>10% bad)
  • Re-excision
  • Axillary surgery associated with poorer cosmetic outcome
  • Post-operative complications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Categorise the side effects of radiotherapy

A

Early:

  • Systemic side effects - nausea, lethargy
  • Erythema
  • Oedema
  • Soft tissue necrosis
  • Decreased mobility
  • Tissue fibrosis

Late: (think of long term damage to nearby structures)

  • Rib #
  • Pneumonitis
  • Induced cancers
  • Vasculitis
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Brachial plexopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Classify the causes of granulomatous mastitis

A
  • Primary
    • Idiopathic
    • ?Autoimmune
    • ?Associated with cornybacterium
  • Secondary
    • Systemic granulomatous disease
      • Wegener’s
      • Sarcoidosis
    • Granulomatous infection
      • TB
      • Histoplasmosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Classify the causes of mastalgia

A
  • Non-breast pain (<2%)
    • Costochondritis (“Tietze’s syndrome”)
    • Rib injury
    • Cervical root syndromes
    • Angina
    • GORD
    • Mondor’s disease (cording superficial thrombophlebitis)
  • Cyclical mastalgia (60%)
    • Pre-menstrual crescendo
  • Non-cyclical mastalgia (40%)
    • Pregnancy
    • Breast cysts/abscesses
    • Sclerosing adenosis
    • Cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Decribe the classification of deformity following breast conserving surgery.

A

Described by Clough et al:

  • Type I
    • Patients have a treated breast with a normal appearance but there is asymmetry between the two breasts
  • Type II
    • Patients have a deformity of the treated breast. This deformity can be addressed with partial breast reconstruction.
  • Type III
    • Patients have a severe deformity or diffuse painful fibrosis. This can only be treated with mastectomy +/- reconstruction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the classification of capsular contraction following breast implant surgery.

A
  • Grade I (absent)
    • The breast is soft with no palpable capsule and looks normal
  • Grade II (minimal)
    • The breast is slightly firm, with a palpable capsule but looks normal
  • Grade III (moderate)
    • The breast is firm with an easily palpable capsule and looks abnormal
  • Grade IV (severe)
    • The breast is hard, cold, painful, and distorted.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the molecular classification of breast cancer

A
  • Luminal A
    • ER/PR +, Her2-, low Ki67
    • <15% have p53 mutation
    • Less aggressive; respond to hormone therapy
  • Luminal B
    • ER/PR+, HER2+/-, high Ki67
    • 30% have p53 mutation
    • More aggressive; high benefit of tailored therapy
  • Basal-like:
    • Most diverse and discussed
    • Usually triple negative
    • Most have p53 mutation
    • Younger women, ethnic predisposition
    • Treat with Anthracycline, Taxanes, maybe platinum-based
    • Scope for anti EGFR modality therapy
  • HER2 enriched
    • HER2 positive
    • ~75% have p53 mutation
    • Respond well to Herceptin and chemo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the Nottingham Prognostic Index and state 10-year survivals for each of the categories.

A

Pathological size (cm) x 0.2

+ Lymph node stage (1, 2, or 3)

+ Grade (1, 2, or 3)

  • NPI 2.02-2.4 (excellent) = 96%
  • NPI 2.41-3.4 (good) = 93%
  • NPI 3.41-4.4 (mod1) = 81%
  • NPI 4.41-5.4 (mod2) = 74%
  • NPI 5.41-6.4 (poor) = 55%
  • NPI 6.41-6.8 (v poor) = 38%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the sclerotic/fibrotic lesions of the breast.

A
  • These are histologically termed diagnoses which are proliferative lesions without atypia
    • Confer small ­ risk of breast ca cf general population (1.5-2xRR)
  • Sclerosing adenosis
    • Lobular lesion with increased fibrous tissue and interspersed glandular cells
    • Differs from radial scars & CSLs histologically in degree of excessive myoepithelial proliferation seen together w fibrosis
    • Can present as mass or suspicious finding on mamm (can be assoc w deposition of calcium)
  • Radial scar
    • Elastic/collagen stellate nidus w entrapped epithelial cells
    • <10mm
    • usually asymptomatic/incidental on biopsy; sometimes can be detected on mamm as suspicious spiculated mass; rarely present as palpable mass
  • Complex sclerosing lesion
    • Similar to radial scar but >10mm and less organized histologically
    • As above usually asymptomatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe your approach to management of a patient with gestational breast cancer.

A
  • Gestational breast cancer is defined as breast cancer that is diagnosed during pregnancy, in the first postpartum year, or any time during lactation.
  • Gestational breast cancer presents a challenging clinical situation, since the welfare of both the mother and the fetus must be taken into account.
  • The tenets of breast cancer management remain the same with some modifications
    • Manage the breast
    • Manage the axilla
    • Manage systemic disease
    • Consider reconstruction and psychosocial welfare
    • Minimise harm to the foetus but treatment of breast cancer shouldn’t be unnecessarily delayed because of pregnancy
  • Evaluate for distant disease as for non-pregnant woman but can attenuate to include CXR with fetal shielding, USS or MRI of liver and MRI spine with contrast to evaluate for bone mets
  • Breast and axillary surgery appear to be safe in pregnancy in any trimester
    • mastectomy may be chosen if early in the pregnancy as RT is contraindicated (causes pregnancy loss, malformation, disturbances of growth or development and mutagenic and carcinogenic effects)
    • otherwise can have BCS and RT given after delivery, or if candidate for neoadjuvant chemo (AC or FAC) which is safe in second and third trimesters (see below), surgery can be delayed til after that
    • AND is standard of care at present; SLNB controversial due to limited evidence (effect of pregnancy on SNB drainage is unclear)
    • reconstruction delayed til after delivery
  • Radiation therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy
  • AC or FAC chemotherapy is safe in the second and third trimesters (low incidence of congenital malformations but has been assoc w IUGR, prematurity and low birth weight in ~1/2 exposed infants); whereas in first trimester, 15-20% foetal loss
    • advice is to not delay initiation of systemic chemo once the pregnancy has reached second trimester, if indicated (for adjuvant or neoadjuvant purposes)
  • Herceptin is contraindicated in pregnancy
  • Endocrine therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Discuss risk classification based on gene expression profiling in breast cancer.

A

Gene expression profiling is a relatively new technology that assesses the tumour at a genetic level to further understand its biological behaviour and help oncologists decide whether chemotherapy is needed or could safely be avoided.

AN example of a gene expression profiling test is Oncotype-Dx. This is a molecular diagnostic test which predicts the likelihood of a patient’s tumour recurring over a ten year period. It analyses 21 genes in the tumour and develops a three tier recurrence score between 0 and 100.

If the Recurrence Score is:

lower than 18: There is a low risk of recurrence. The benefit of chemotherapy treatment is likely to be small and outweighed by the risk of side effects.

18 up to and including 30: There is an intermediate risk of recurrence and it’s not clear whether the chemotherapy benefits are greater than the risks of side effects. The TAILORx trial has demonstrated that this group can now safely avoid chemotherapy to no detriment!

greater than or equal to 31: There is a high risk of recurrence and the benefits of chemotherapy are likely to be greater than the risks of side effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Discuss the distribution of the causes of gynaecomastia

A

PIPP

  • ​Physiological – 20% - trimodal distribution
    • Conditions where there’s natural increase in oestrogen:testosterone ratio - neonate, puberty, elderly
  • Idiopathic – 20-25%
  • Pharmacological – 20-30%
    • Hormone supplements (oestrogens, anabolic steroids, anti-androgens)
    • Anti-androgens or androgen-blocking drugs e.g. spironolactone
    • Other cardiac drugs eg digoxin, ACEIs, amiodarone
    • Drugs that cause hyperprolactinaemia eg metoclopramide
    • Recreational drugs eg marijuana, opiates
  • Pathological – 35%
    • Increased oestrogen production by a tumour <3% (can produces oestrogens, androgens, aromatase or bHCG) – hepatomas, testicular tumours, pituitary tumours, adrenal tumours, paraneoplastic syndrome assoc w bronchial carcinoma
    • Systemic illness – renal failure, liver failure (decreased oestrogen clearance by liver), hypo/hyperthyroidism (increased aromatisation of androgen into oestrogens in hyperthyroidism), obesity (increased aromatisation)
    • Endocrine conditions
      • decreased natural testosterone production/primary hypogonadism – Klinefelter’s most common
      • secondary hypogonadism/testicular failure – eg damage to testes from mumps orchitis, bilateral cryptorchidism, radiotherapy or hypopituitarism
      • androgen insensitivity
      • acromegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Discuss the types and management of proliferative breast lesions with atypia, include reference to “upgrade” rates.

A
  • (epithelial hyperplasia = increase no of cells lining ducts
    • mild ductal hyperplasia = ­no of epithelial cells within a duct relative to normal (2-5 cells in depth) à observation, normal surveillance)
    • florid ductal hyperplasia = ­no of epithelial cells occupying ≥70% of duct lumen w cytological features of benign cells à observation, normal surveillance))
    • ADH )
  • ADH = proliferation of uniform epithelial cells lining duct with cellular atypia; looks microscopically like low grade DCIS in terms of cellular & architectural atypia but <2-3mm or involving (completely filling) <2 ducts
    • Upgrade rate 10-20%; excise
    • RR breast ca 4-5x – surveillance, ?offer chemoprevention)
  • ALH = proliferation of monomorphic, evenly space, discohesive cells filling but not expanding the involved lobules; shares cytologic & architectural features w LCIS but quantitatively lesser in extent; <50% acini expanded by these cells
    • Upgrade rate , low <3% - don’t excise unless discordance
    • RR breast ca 4-5x – surveillance, ?offer chemoprevention
  • LCIS = non-invasive lesion that arises from lobules & terminal ducts of breast; monomorphic proliferation of discohesive cells in >50% of total number of acini in TDLU
    • Not considered a breast ca but rather a histological marker for ­breast ca risk
    • Classic LCIS upgrade rate v low <3% - don’t excise unless discordant
    • Pleomorphic or florid LCIS upgrade rate 17-46% - excise to clear margins
    • RR 7-11x – surveillance, ?offer chemoprevention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Discuss your approach to management of BRCA1 and BRCA2 positive patients

A
  1. Risk assessment and counselling
    • Familial genetic testing
    • Risk counselling
    • Education
  2. High-risk screening
    • Self examination from 18
    • MRI/USS from 25-29
    • MRI/Mamm/USS from 30-75
    • ?TV USS and Ca-125
  3. Risk reduction
    • SERMs reduce risk by ~40%
    • RRM reduce risk by ~95%
    • Risk-reducing Salpingo-oophorectomy also reduces risk of breast cancer by ~50%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Family history that would mandate genetic testing in breast cancer

A

Two first or second degree relatives diagnosed with breast or ovarian cancer PLUS one or more of the following on the same side of the family:

Additional relative(s) with breast or ovarian cancer
Breast cancer diagnosed under 40
More than one primary breast cancer in the same woman
Breast and ovarian cancer in the same woman
Ashkenazi (Eastern European) Jewish ancestry
Male breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give an overview of benign breast disease in histological terms.

A
  1. Non-proliferative breast lesions
    • Simple cysts
    • Galactocele
    • Mild ductal hyperplasia
    • Simple columnar alteration
  2. Proliferative breast lesions without atypia
    • Florid ductal hyperplasia
    • Columnar hyperplasia
    • Fibroadenomas
    • Adenoma
    • PASH
    • Sclerosing adenosis
    • Radial scars/comple sclerosing lesions
    • Papilloma
  3. Proliferative breast lesions with atypia
    • Atypical ductal hyperplasia
    • Flat epithelial atypia
    • Atypical lobular hyperplasia
    • Lobular carcinoma in situ
    • Atypical papilloma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are breast cysts classified and what is the respective management?

A
  • Simple breast cysts
    • Asymptomatic should be left alone
    • Large, symptomatic cysts can be aspirated to dryness
    • If aspirated and a mass persists - triple assessment
  • Complicated/complex cysts
    • Thin or thick septations
    • Internal echoes
    • No posterior enhancement
    • Thickened/irregular wall
    • Need aspiration and cytology and biopsy of thickened area.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are fibroadenomata classified?

A
  • Simple
  • Complex – contain other proliferative changes eg sclerosing adenosis, ductal epithelial hyperplasia, epithelial calcification or papillary apocrine changes (may be associated with calcifications or cysts >3mm)
  • Giant >5-10cm
  • Juvenile fibroadenomata (age 10-18)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can benign breast disease be classified?

A
  • Congenital abnormalities – supranumerary nipples, accessory breast tissue, breast hypoplasia
  • ANDI
    • Breast development <25 – fibroadenomas, tubular & lactating adenoma, macromastia
    • Early reproductive 25-35 – cyclical pain & nodularity
    • Involution 35-555 – palpable breast cysts, sclerotic/fibrotic lesions, duct ectasia
  • Benign neoplasms & proliferations
    • Columnar changes
    • Epithelial hyperplasia, ADH
    • Ductal papillomas
    • Phyllodes
    • Lipomas
    • Granular cell tumours
  • Infection
    • Neonatal infections
    • Lactational
    • Non-lactational infections – periareolar infections, MDF
    • Post-surgical/implant associated infections
  • Other including traumatic, Mondor’s disease, gynaecomastia, diabetic mastopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How common is pathological response following NAC in breast cancer?

How is it classified?

A

Approximately 80% of patients have a clinical response; ~35% have complete clinical response, ~45% have a partial clinical repsonse. Complete pathological response occurs in ~13%.

The Miller-Payne classification is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is DCIS classified?

A
  • Histological sub-types:
    • Comedo (worse prognosis)
    • Non-comedo
      • Solid
      • Micropapillary
      • Papillary
      • Cribriform
      • Clinging
  • Histological grade:
    • Based on nuclear polymorphism, nuclear atypia, and mitotic rate into low, intermediate, or high grade.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is non-metastatic breast cancer classified?

A

Nonmetastatic breast cancer is broadly considered in two categories:

  • Early stage – This includes patients with stage I, IIA, or a subset of stage IIB disease (T2N1).
  • Locally advanced – This includes a subset of patients with stage IIB disease (T3N0) and patients with stage IIIA to IIIC disease.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is the malignant potential of phyllodes histologically classified into bening, borderline and malignant?

A
  • Classified as benign, borderline or malignant based on
    • degree of stromal cellularity and atypia
    • mitotic activity (<4, 4-9 or >10 per 10HPF)
    • infiltrative or circumscribed tumour margins
    • presence/absence of stromal overgrowth (presence of pure stroma devoid of epithelium most consistently assoc w aggressive (metastatic) behaviour - present in malignant but not in benign or borderline
  • these three groups have local recurrence rates of 8%, 13% and 18%; but margin status is also important in terms of recurrence risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is tumour grade in breast cancer graded?

(irrespective of histological type)

A

The Nottingham method. Assessment of grade considers tubule formation, nuclear pleomorphism, and mitotic count. Each category is given a score of 1-3.

Grade 1 - well differentiated = 3-5 points

Grade II - moderately differentiated = 6-7 points

Grade III - poorly differentiated = 8-9 points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In patients with positive sentinel lymph node biopsy for breast cancer staging, what criteria must be fulfilled in order to justify witholding axillary lymph node dissection?

A

Based on the inclusion criteria for the ACOSOG Z0011 and AMAROS trials:

  1. T1 or T2 disease
  2. 1 or 2 sentinel lymph nodes positive
  3. Breast conserving surgery
  4. Whole breast irradiation planned
  5. No pre-op chemotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In what potential DCIS cases can Radiotherapy be omitted?

A

Low- or intermediate-grade, small (<2.5 cm in size), and resected with widely negative margins (≥1 cm).

Consider more in older people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Indications of adjuvant Rx to chest wall post Mx

A
  1. pT3N+, pT4Nany, pTanyN2/3
  2. Consider for pT1-2N1, pT3N0 depending upon presence of additional risk factors*
  3. Positive surgical margins
  4. Inflammatory breast cancer

*Additional risk factors for locoregional recurrence include:

LVI

high tumour grade

multifocal or multicentric tumours

nodal burden

young age

ER negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Outline your management approach to mastalgia

A
  • Exclude underlying disease process
  • Simple measures:
    • Wear soft, supportive bra 24/7
    • Simple analgesia including topical NSAIDS
    • Maintain healthy weight
    • ?Reduce caffeine and fat
    • Change OCP
  • Medical therapy:
    • Evening primrose oil; no RCTs but anecdotally used
    • Danazol - androgenic - worse than…
    • Tamoxifen:
      • 10mg po od 3-6 months
      • Response in up to 70%
      • Take during luteal phase to reduce S/E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Personal Hx that would mandate genetic testing

A

BREAST (6)

  1. Breast cancer diagnosed <40yrs
  2. Triple negative ≤50yrs
  3. Triple negative any age when there is a close relative with breast or ovarian cancer
  4. Two or more primary cancers when first occurred <60yrs
  5. Lobular breast cancer and fhx of lobular breast or diffuse type gastric carcinoma
  6. Breast cancer plus personal or family history of: - Peutz Jegher syndrome, PTEN hamartoma syndrome (Cowdens), Li Fraumeni syndrome, ATM

OVARY (1)
High grade, non-mucinous, epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer

SEX (1)
Male breast cancer diagnosed at any age

BREAST and OVARY (1)
Breast and ovarian cancer primary cancers at any age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Provide an evidence based stance of “isolated tumour cells” and “micromets” in breast cancer.

A

Prognostically, patients with isolated tumor cell clusters appear to do as well as patients without any pathologic node involvement.

Patients with pN1mi breast cancer have a slightly worse prognosis compared with those with node-negative breast cancer, but micrometastases do not predict recurrence.

The results of the MIROR study (Micrometastases and Isolated tumour cells, Robust Or Rubbish?) described occult mets as having a small statistically increased risk of death, distant disease, and “events” ?clinical relevance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Provide an overview of hereditary/genetic breast cancer disease/syndromes.

A
  • high risk gene mutations - Bx2, Px3
    • BRCA1 (tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 17) and BRCA2 (tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 13)
      • account for 1.5% each of breast cancer overall
      • lifetime breast ca risk ~70% (BRCA1 higher - 72% vs 69%)
        • mean age of dx 43 vs 47
      • lifetime risk ovarian ca 50% (BRCA1) and 20% (BRCA2)
        • mean age of dx 52 and 63
      • also fallopian tube, primary peritoneal, pancreas, prostate
    • TP53 (Li Fraumeni) - tumour suppressor gene on chr 17 = 80-90% lifetime risk
      • also brain tumours, sarcomas, ACC
    • PALB2 (partner and localiser of BRCA2) = 60% lifetime risk
    • PTEN hamartoma (Cowden) syndrome - tumour suppressor gene on chr 10 = 30-50% lifetime risk
  • moderate risk gene mutations
    • ATM - tumour suppressor gene on chr 11 - 30-40% lifetime risk & panc ca risk
    • CHEK2 - cell cycle checkpoint inhibitor - tumour suppressor gene on chr 16 = 30-40% liftime risk
    • CDH1 - tumour suppressor gene on chr 16 - encodes E-cadherin, 40-50% lifetime risk
    • STK11 (Peutz Jeghers) - 45% lifetime risk
  • Others:
    • NBN gene (Nibrin protein)
    • NF1 gene
    • Lynch syndrome
      • Muir-Torre syndrome = subset - ~12% breast cancer risk
    • Fauconi anaemia
34
Q

Provide an overview of reconstruction options assoicated with ablative breast cancer surgery.

A

After WLE:

  1. Level I oncoplastic techniques
    • Skin and glandular undermining and re-centralisation of the nipple-areolar complex
  2. Level II oncoplastic techniques
    • Skin excision and glandular mobilisation to allow for major voume resection
    • Includes LD mini flap

After Mastectomy

  1. Tissue expander placement and later exchange
  2. Immediate implant placement
  3. Latissimus dorsi flap with implant
  4. Pedicled autologous flap
  5. Free autologous flap
35
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of immediate versus delayed reconstruction following breast cancer surgery?

A

Immediate:

  • Advantages
    • Allows preservation of the native breast envelope and infra-mammary fold
    • Skin flaps are pliable and have not been affected by radiotherapy
    • No second GA
  • Disadvantages
    • Limited time for decision making
    • Increased operating time
    • Coordinating multiple teams
    • Potential to delay of adjuvant therapy

Delayed:

  • Advantages
    • Time for decision making and psycho-social adjustment
    • Full pathology available for review
    • No delay to adjuvant therapy
  • Disadvantages
    • Skin sparing mastectomy now unlikely as skin contracted
    • Second hospitalisation
36
Q

What are the categories of breast cancer risk factors?

A
  1. Age and sex
  2. Personal history inc. previous breast Dx
  3. Family/genetic history
  4. Hormone exposure
    • Menarche and menopause
    • Parity
    • Exogenous hormone use
37
Q

What are the cytological features typical of malignancy seen in breast cancer?

A
  • Loss of cohesion
  • Pleomorphism
  • Cells in various planes
  • Myoepithelial cell nuclei absent/scant
  • Nuclear atypia

NB cytology cannot distinguish between invasive and in-situ carcinoma.

38
Q

What are the effects of neoadjuvant therapy in breast cancer regarding clinical and pathological response in the breast and axilla, DFS, and OS?

A
  • 79% objective clinical response
    • 36% complete clinical response
    • 43% partial clinical response
  • 13% complete pathological response
  • 35% of node positive converted to node negative
  • Mild increase in LR but no difference in OS or DFS
  • Reduction in mastectomy rates (RR 0.71)
39
Q

What are the guidelines for testing a patient for BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations?

A

GHSNZ guidelines

  • Manchester score gives probability of BRCA1 or BRCA2 of ≥10%
  • CanRisk score gives probability of BRCA1, BRCA2 or PALB2 mutation of ≥10%
  • individuals affected with breast ca
    • Female breast cancer diagnosed ≤40 years
    • Triple-negative breast cancer diagnosed ≤50 years
    • Triple-negative any age if close relative with breast or ovarian cancer
    • Male breast ca any age
    • High grade ovarian, fallopian or primary peritoneal cancer
    • Two primary cancers when first occurred <60yrs
    • Blood relative of a person w identified mutation
    • Personal hx suggestive of PJ syndrome, PTEN hamartoma syndrome or Li-Fraumeni
  • refer to genetics if: fhx of 2 or more 1st or 2nd degree relatives on same side of family, and must have additional risk factor
    • relative with breaset and ovarian ca
    • relative <40yrs at dx
    • male relative w breast ca
    • relative with bilateral breast cancer
    • Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry
40
Q

What are the indications and relative contraindications for breast-conserving therapy?

A

Indications: opposite to below; single clinical and radiological lesion

Relative contraindications:

  • Patient factors
    • Patient choice
    • Genetic status – BRCA1/2 carriers may be better served w mastectomy
  • Tumour factors
    • Inflammatory breast cancer
    • Locally advanced
    • Large tumour size cf size of breast
    • Multicentral/multifocal – need to get adequate tumour margins and leave cosmetically acceptable result
    • Associated with large area of DCIS
  • Inability to have radiotherapy
    • Connective tissue disorders eg active SLE, scleroderma
    • Pregnancy (temporary)
    • Previous radiotherapy to the area
41
Q

What are the indications for adjuvant radiotherapy following mastectomy?

A
  • T3/T4 tumours
  • Extensive LVI on histology
  • Invasion into chest wall or pec
  • Lymph node metastases
  • +/- extensive DCIS
  • +/- woman <40
42
Q

What are the indications for MRI in Breast cancer?

A
  • BRCA 1 or BRCA 2
  • Patient less than 40 years of age with breast cancer
  • Previous radiotherapy
  • Imaging/clinical disconcordance
  • Suspicion of chest wall involvement
  • Axilla positive but occult primary
  • Paget’s with no palpable mass
  • NACT for pre and post-operative response
  • Silicone implants imaging
  • Lobular cancer and
    • extent of tumour not clear on tomo & USS
    • <40yrs and dense breasts
    • likely to change the management of the breast (mastectomy vs partial mastectomy)
43
Q

What are the indications for NAC?

A

Strong:

  1. Inoperable, locally advanced breast cancer
  2. Inflammatory breast cancer

Relative:

  1. >2cm +/- node positive with favourable chemo profile - HER2, triple neg esp with G3
  2. Where adjuvant chemo will be offered so response in situ desired
44
Q

What are the indications for neo-adjuvant therapy in Breast Cancer?

A
  1. Locally advanced breast cancer
    • Stage III or T3 disease
  2. Select cases of early breast cancer
    • High tumour to breast ratio
    • Cosmetically poor location
    • T1c triple negative or HER-2 positive cancers
    • Downstage the axillary nodes in patients with cN1 disease allowing for SNB and Radiation rather than AND
  3. Patients with contraindications for surgery
    • Pregnancy (temporary)
    • Medically comorbid (could have endocrine)
45
Q

What are the key features of a lump/mass detected on clinical examination?

A
  • Site, size, shape, surfaces
  • Colour, consistency, compressibility
  • Temp, transilluminability, tenderness
  • Nodes, number/nearby lumps
  • Mobility.
46
Q

What are the mammographic features of typical of breast cancer?

A
  • Architectural distorsion
  • Pleomorphic calcifications
  • Indistinct margins
  • Masses
  • Asymmetry
47
Q

What are the relative contra-indications to neoadjuvant therapy for breast cancer?

A
  1. Most early breast cancer
  2. Chemo-insensitive subtypes
    • Luminal A
    • Classic lobular
48
Q

What are the ultrasonographic features of malignancy in breast cancer?

A
  • Irregular shape
  • Indistinct margins
  • Disturbance of tissue planes
  • Acoustic shadow (increased density)
  • Taller than wide
  • Non-compressible.
49
Q

What decision tool can be used in older patients with breast cancer to ascertain which treatment is best?

A

AgeGap decision tool

50
Q

What information is provided in a synoptic report of breast cancer?

A
  • Histologic subtype
  • Tumour dimensions
  • Histologic subtype
  • Histologic grade
  • Receptor status (ER/PR/HER2)
  • Margins
  • LVI, PNI
  • Presence of in-situ disease or hyperplasia
  • Lymph node involvement (ITC, micro, macrometastases)
  • Presence of extracapsular spread
51
Q

What is a Phyllodes tumour?

How is it treated?

A
  • Phyllodes tumours are tumours of mixed connective tissue and epithelium.
  • They may behave in a benign or malignant fashion, depending on where they sit of a spectrum of size, nuclear pleomorphism, invasive margin, stromal cellularity, and mitotic rate. The majority are benign. When malignant they behave similarly to sarcoma in that they metastasise distantly.
  • Phyllodes tumors should be completely excised; axillary lymph node dissection is not necessary. Adjuvant radiation therapy may benefit borderline or malignant, but not benign, tumors. Chemotherapy is reserved for highly selected patients with large, high-risk, or recurrent malignant phyllodes tumors. Hormonal therapy is not used to treat phyllodes tumors. Given the rarity of the disease, treatment principles are based mainly on retrospective series and case reports.
52
Q

What is early breast cancer?

A

Tumour <5cm with no or limited LNs, with no local invasion or mets

  • stage I: tumours <2cm w no spread to LNs
  • stage IIa: tumours <2cm, spread to 1-3nodes OR tumours 2-5cm, spread to no nodes
  • subset of IIb: tumours 2-5cm, spread to 1-3 nodes (IIb can also include T3N0 ie tumorus >5cm w no LNs but only talking about early breast ca here)
53
Q

What is granulomatous mastitis?

A

A rare, benign, chronic, non-caseating, inflammatory breast disease.

May be primary or secondary; sarcoidosis, Wegener’s granulomatosis. Possibly autoimmune, incompletely understood.

Usually occurs unilaterally, often in all quadrants of the affected breast. May mimic cancer and biopsy is needed for diagnosis.

Superimposed infection must be treated, then consider steroids or excision.

54
Q

What is granulomatous mastitis?

What is the pathophysiology?

What is the treatment?

A
  • Granulomatous mastitis is a rare chronic inflammatory breast condition.
  • Granulomatous changes occur around lobules and ducts of the breast in the absence of specific infection, trauma, or evidence of sarcoidosis.
  • Because the etiology of GM is not clear, and the diagnosis is made by exclusion, GM can be a heterogeneous disease with variable clinical presentations.
  • Management of GM is based on treating superimposed infection, draining collections, and ensuring that an atypical inflammatory breast cancer is not missed; i.e. getting adequate histology. Some have used corticosteroids, though there is no strong evidence for this.
  • Surgical resection is considered in extreme or refractory cases.
55
Q

What is inflammatory breast cancer?

A

A clinicopathological entity characterised by diffuse oedema & erythema involving the majority of the breast skin w or w/o an associated discrete underlying mass

Diagnostic criteria (need all):

  • rapid onset of breast erythema, oedema and/or peau d’orange, and/or warm breast, w or w/o an underlying palpable mass
  • duration of hx ≤6months
  • erythema occupying ≥1/3 of breast
  • pathological confirmation of invasive carcinoma (eg on core biopsy)

(Diagnosis mainly clinical; tumour emboli in the dermal lymphatics = histological hallmark of IBC but their absence doesn’t exclude the dx bc often missed due to sampling error. Clinical signs of oeema/warmth occur as a result of lymphatic obstruction. Dermal invasion by cancer w/o the associated typical clinicla signs is not IBC)

56
Q

What is locally advanced breast cancer?

A
  • includes clinical T3/T4 or N2/N3 disease
  • also includes T4d (inflammatory breast cancer)
  • ie subset of IIb (T3N0) + stage IIIa to IIIc
57
Q

What is Oncotype Dx?

A

This is a gene assay of 21 genes performed on the fixed tumour that gives a score of 0-100.

Low risk - 0-17

Int risk - 18-30

High risk - >30

Used for those with borderline indication for chemo.

Low risk has 98% 5 year survival with hormones only

58
Q

What is the definition of LCIS?

A

Noninvasive lesion that arises from the lobules & terminal ducts of the breast. Monomorphic proliferation of cells in >50% of the total number of acini in a terminal duct lobular unit. Not considered a breast cancer but rather a histologic marker for increased breast cancer risk.

59
Q

What is the differential in a patient who presents with massive breast enlargement?

A
  • Implants
  • Phylloides tumour
  • Giant fibroadenoma
  • Sarcoma
  • Mucinous cancer
  • Benign hypertrophy (usually bilateral)
  • Filorial elephantiasis
  • Pseudoangiomatous Stromal Hyperplasia
60
Q

What is the distribution of diagnoses made in a typical breast clinic?

A
  • 40% fibrocystic change
  • 30% no disease
  • 10% cancer
  • 10% benign tumour
  • 10% other
61
Q

What is the evidence base for the sentinel node biopsy concept in breast cancer?

A

Overarching themes here are the “Halstedian” view of breast cancer as a contiguous disease from primary to nodes, to distant metastses, versus the “Alternative hypothesis” which states that LN status is reflection of tumour biology and that variations of locoregional therapy are unlikely to substantially alter survival for what is already a systemic disease.

  • Multiple studies have demonstrated that lymph node involvement confers a worse prognosis but there has never been conclusive evidence that demonstrates increased OS with lymphadenectomy. This has lead to a paradigm shift over time towards more conservative surgery to the axilla.
  • The results of the NSABP trials of the 1990s and the RACS-SNAC trial of the mid 2000s demonstrated that the SNB is a legitimate means of staging the axilla.
  • The Z-11 trial of 2010 suggested that a positive SNB did not mandate CLND in a select group.
  • The AMAROS trial of 2014 randomised positive SNB patients to CLND or Radiation and found no difference in OS.
  • These latest studies confirm that lymph node treatment improves locoregional control but have not shown that survival is improved by lymphadenectomy per se.
62
Q

What is the histological definition of DCIS?

A

Abnormal proliferation of ductal epithelial cells with morphological features of malignancy but no BM or stromal invasion. 2 or more ducts involved.

63
Q

What is the management of LCIS?

A

Classic LCIS

  • on core bx and concordant - observe, upgrade rates <3% (not concordant - excise)
  • at margin of excision for coexisting lesion - not an indication for re-excision, don’t need clear margins if margins around invasive component are negative

Pleomorphic or florid LCIS

  • on core bx - excise, upgrade rate for pleomorphic 17-46%
  • on excision biopsy - re-excise to clear margins
64
Q

What is the pathophysiology of mammary duct ectasia?

A

Mammary duct ectasia is a chronic, benign, condition afftecting the major breast ducts characterised by:

  1. Thick secretions (often associated with smoking) leading to…
  2. Duct dilatation from retained secretions leading to…
  3. Periductal inflammation leading to…
  4. Fibrosis +/- development of a fistula.
65
Q

What is your approach to endocrine therapy in breast cancer?

What about the timing around chemotherapy?

A
  • Post-menopausal
    • Anastrazole inhibitors for 10 years
  • Pre Menopausal
    • High risk (those that get chemo)
      • Exemestane and Ovarian ablation
      • Ablation is surgical or medical or with radiotherapy
    • Low risk
      • Tamoxifen

Should be given metachronously after chemotherapy.

66
Q

What online prognostic tools exist?

A

Adjuvant online (US), PREDICT.

PROVIDE 5 - 10 YEAR prognosis + benefit of adjuvant chemo and hormones

67
Q

When is oncotype dx useful?

A

Chemo will be offered when node positive, HER2 positive or triple negative.
ER negative node positive as a group get unequivocal survival benefit from chemo so will be offered chemo.

Oncotype dx is therefore useful for

  • ER+ HER2- node negative (as some may benefit from chemo although node negative eg as tumour higher grade or larger or LVI OR
  • ER+ HER2- node positive (standard of care is to offer chemo as node positive but a subset of this group may not get substantial survival advantage from chemo)

Oncotype dx looks at 21 genes and analyses the risk of recurrence (score of 0-100)
Low risk score 0-25 - side effects of chemo likely to outweigh survival benefit
High risk score 31-100 - giving chemo offers significant survival advantage
There are other similar tests available - prosigna, mammaprint

68
Q

When is the best time to MRI a female patient for diagnostic breast imaging?

A
  • Between days 5-15 of the menstrual cycle
  • The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, with attendant increased levels of oestrogen and progesterone, generates oedematous stroma and increased enhancement which degrade image quality
  • Therefore, wait for one week post menstruation to ensure the patient is in the follicular phase.
69
Q

When would you perform a mastectomy for DCIS?

When would you perform a sentinel lymph node biopsy in DCIS?

A

Mastectomy in DCIS is reserved for patients with:

  • Larger areas of DCIS (arbitrarily 4cm)
  • Multicentric disease
  • Where radiotherapy is contraindicated (prev RadRx, dermatological conditions, lack of access)

SNB is reserved for those where concerns exist re IDC:

  • Undergoing mastectomy
  • Palpable mass
  • Large area of DCIS
  • Undergoing reconstruction
70
Q

Who gets adjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer?

A
  • individualised based on mdm discussion, survival outcome scoring systems (eg NHS predict) and occasionally reuqires oncotype dx testing to assist in decision making; current practice is to refer for discussion with med onc if:
  • grade 1 >15mm; grade 2>10mm; grade 3>5mm and/or
  • younger age
  • node positive
  • extra nodal spread
  • Her2+
  • Triple neg
  • high risk oncotype
  • chemo more likely to be strongly advocated for by oncologists if HER2 positive/triple neg, younger, node positive, greater nodal burden, larger tumour, higher grade
  • Any triple negative breast cancer >5mm
  • Any HER2 positive cancer >5mm
  • Any ER/PR positive cancer that is high risk
    • Node positive
    • Advanced primary
    • High grade
    • High risk oncotype
    • Recurrent cancer
    • Multifocal
71
Q

Who gets neoadjuvant or adjuvant treatment in pancreatic cancer?

A

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy:

  • Cases of borderline resectability (trials re type)

Adjuvant chemotherapy:

  • All patients who undergo resection

Palliative chemoradiotherapy:

  • Considered for all palliative patients; prolongs OS by around 3-6 months.
72
Q

How long is adjuvant hormone therapy given for?

A
  • standard of care is still 5 years as there is no clear survival advantage of 10 years over 5 years for the majority of women
  • 10 year extended hormone treatment is discussed with high risk patients - younger, node positive, ER+, larger tumour, LVI+, higher grade
  • compliance is an issue with longer term use
73
Q

How are patients who have had a mastectomy and sentinel node biopsy with nodal involvement managed?

A

Post mastectomy can consider radiation in place of dissection for those with low nodal burden (1-2 nodes, no extra nodal spread) – this is based on AMAROS trial (small numbers), OTOASOR trial, consensus statements (eg: American society of breast surgeons). This is contingent on the patient accepting all recommended adjuvant treatments (rad,chemo, hormones). If the patient is likely to decline any recommended adjuvant treatments then they should have an AND to give them the best chance at reducing recurrence.

74
Q

Breast cancer and the axilla - summary of evidence (excluding neoadjuvant)

A

Breast cancer and the axilla

  • Status of axillary lymph nodes is a key prognostic indicator and a critical component of the staging system
  • Multiple studies have demonstrated that lymph node involvement confers a worse prognosis but there has never been conclusive evidence that demonstrates increased overall survival with lymphadenectomy; this has led to a paradigm shift over time towards more conservative surgery to the axilla
  • The results of the NSABP trials of the 1990s, the RACS-SNAC trial of the mid 2000s and the ALMANAC trial in 2006 demonstrated that the SNB is a legitimate means of staging the axilla with less morbidity
  • The NSABP B32 trial found that patients with a clinically node negative axilla staged by SLNB had the same levels of regional control and survival as those treated by ALND at 10 years.
  • The Z0011 trial of 2010 challenged the benefit of routine ALND in pts with involved axillary nodes undergoing BCS for cancer. They found that patients who had breast conserving surgery followed by whole breast irradiation, for T1 or T2 tumours with a clinically node negative axilla and 1 or 2 diseased sentinel lymph nodes, could safely be observed rather than proceeding with ALND
  • The AMAROS trial of 2014 and OTOASAR trial of 2017 randomised patients with a positive SNB to either ALND or axillary radiotherapy found no survival difference (but in AMAROS a significantly higher lymphedema in the ALND group)
75
Q

Breast cancer and the axilla following neoadjuvant chemotherapy

A

Breast cancer and the axilla following neoadjuvant chemotherapy

  • The ACOSOG Z1071 trial investigated the use of SLNB in patients known to have axillary nodal disease at diagnosis who were then treated with neoadjuvant chemotherapy; these patients underwent initial SNB followed by ALND to ascertain the SNB false negative rate in this setting
    • They found an unacceptably high false negative rate overall, but that if dual localization was used, ≥3 SLNs examined and if a clip placed at the time of dx of involved node was retrieved at SLNB, there was an acceptable false negative rate of 7.4%
  • Further trials have confirmed the safety of limited axillary surgery following neoadjuvant chemo
    • Given overall axillary complete pathological response rates of 41% and the complications of ALND, SLNB initially is appropriate with avoidance of ALND if node negative
    • Isolated tumour cells and micrometastases are treated as a positive sentinel node in the post-neoadjuvant setting.
76
Q

BRCA risk reduction

A
  1. Lifestyle - exercise, healthy weight, avoid alcohol, limit HRT
  2. Surveillance more closely - MRI & mamm from 30 (staggered so imaging q6mo), no MRI post 50; doesn’t reduce risk but earlier identification
  3. Chemoprophylaxis (?more relevant for BRCA2). Tamoxifen decreases risk by 30%. Side effects 1 in 4000 VTE (same as pill), 1 in 4000 endometrial ca (2.5x increased risk), menopausal sx). AI if post-menopausal.
  4. Prophylactic oophorectomy should be done before 40. Reduces breast ca risk by 50% and ovarian ca risk by 90-95%. No good surveillance for ovaries.
  5. Prophylactic mastectomy. No rush. Reduces risk of breast cancer by >95% but not 100%, and no benefit on overall survival cf screening. Ok to do nipplesparing - only increases risk by <1%.
77
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the nipple? What is its aetiology?

A
  • an eczematous inflammatory lesion, particularly involving the nipple & areola, that’s typically the epidermal manifestation of an underlying Ca
  • neoplastic cells of glandular differentiation (Paget’s cells - large cells w pale cyoplasm and prominent nucleoli) interspersed between keratinocytes of nipple epidermis
  • two main theories for aetiology
    • Epidermotrophic theory (preferred)
      • Paget cells arise from underlying mammary adenocarcinoma & migrate along ductal system to enter epidermis and dermis of nipple-areola complex
      • supported by fact that 95% have an underlying intraductal or invasive malignancy & observation that Pagetoid cells and underlying carcinomas demonstrate similar IHC staining patterns
      • >80% Paget’s of breast have overexpression of HER2 - ?motility factor mediating migration of Paget cells
    • Transformation theory (out of favour)
      • Pagetoid cells = nipple keratinocytes that have undergone malignant transformation (Toker cells)
      • according to this theory, PD = in situ carcinoma of skin that’s independent of any underlying ductal carcinoma
      • this theory = supported by observation that, often, overlying skin changes & underlying malignancy = discontinuous & sometimes genetically different
78
Q

Metastatic tendencies of breast cancer of NST vs lobular

A
  • NST metastasises to liver and lung and CNS
  • Lobular metastasises preferentially to ovaries, GI tract, peritoneum/retroperitoneum and bone marrow
    • also to liver and CNS but less commonly to lung
79
Q

What is a fibroadenoma, tubular adenoma, lactating adenoma, phyllodes?

A
  • fibroadenoma = benign proliferative breast lesion consisting of both epithelial (glandular) and connective tissue (stromal) components; not technically a tumour because involves more than one cell type
  • tubular adenoma = bening purely epithelial lesion consisting of glands w v little intervening stroma (distinguished from FAs by sparse stromal elements); managed similarly to FAs
  • lactating adenoma = similar to TA but occur during pregnancy or lactation & are often multiple; tend to regress after cessation of breastfeeding
80
Q

Phyllodes

A
  • phyllodes tumour = uncommon fibro-epithelial neoplasms that are known to recur locally and are capable of a diverse range of biologic behaviours
  • much less common than FAs and age of onset 15-20yrs later
  • av size 4-7cm, can grow rapidly
  • arise from intralobular stroma; characteristic leaf-life architecture which consists of elongated cleft-like spaces that contain papillary projections of epithelial-lined stroma w varying degrees of hyperplasia and atypia
  • classified as benign, borderline and malignant based on
  • degree of stromal cellularity & atypia
  • mitotic activity
  • infiltrative or circumscribed tumour margins
  • presence/absence of stromal overgrowth (presence of pure stroma devoid of epithelium most consistently assoc w aggressive (metastatic) behaviour
  • –> local recurrence rates of 8%, 13%, 18% (but margin status also an important predictor of recurrence)
  • sarcoma-like behaviours - e.g. mets to lung not LN
  • benign = remove with clear but not wide margin; borderlie & malignant aim for 1-2cm margin; no LN dissection
  • consider post-op radiation for close/involved margins, recurrent disease, borderline/malignant phyllodes
  • chemo reserved for v large, high risk or recurrent malignant phyllodes
  • no hormone treatment used