breast Flashcards

1
Q

breast danger zones

A
  • medial/inferior (medial often seen on CC , not MLO and Infpst often on MLO/not CC)
  • retroglandular
  • where there is no dense fibroglandular tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where does nipple overlie?

A

4th IC space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

retraction vs inversion

A
  • inversion-nipple invaginate into breast
  • retraction-nipple pulled back slightly
  • both N if chronic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

terminal duct lobular unit

A

-lobules (milk makers) + duct

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

order of lobule and duct system

A

TDLU (lobule + duct) –> major duct –> lactiferous sinus (dilated portion of major duct) –> nipple
-5-10 ductal openings at nipple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

breast blood supply

A
  • internal mammary-60%
  • lateral thoracic
  • intercostal perforators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

lymphatic drainage

A
  • axilla-97%

- internal mammary nodes-3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

axillary node levels

A
  • pec minor=landmark
  • 1) lat to pec minor
    2) deep to pec minor
    3) medal & above pec minor
  • rotter node: btw pec minor and major. Considered same as level 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rotter nodes

A

-btw pec minor and maj. “level 2 nodes”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

mets to int mammary node

A
  • medial cancer

- rare in isolation, ie: already in axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sternalis m

A

UL

CC view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ectopic breast tissue

A
  • axilla-MC

- inframammary fold-2nd MC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

milk streak

A

embryologic loc of normal breast and loc of ectopic breast tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

estrogen vs progesterone effs on breast tissue during dev

A
  • estrogen: duct elongation, branching
  • prog: lobule prol
  • don’t bx a breast bud/prepubescent breast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where do most cancers start?

A
  • upper outer

- TLDU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

maximum breast tenderness during menstrual cycle

A

day 27-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

peak time for breast pain/cyst formation: premen, men, perimeno, meno

A

perimenopause (50s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when do fibroadenomas degenrate

A

menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when do secretary calcifications development?

A

10-20 yrs after menopaus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

best time for mammogram or MRI?

A
  • follicular phase
  • for MR: estrogen cause contrast enh of benign br parenchyma in premenopausal women. greatest in wks 1 and 4. ie: 2nd wk best!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

breast change during pregnancy

A
  • tubes and ducts prol

- denser (during 3rd TM)–> hypoechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

breast change during peri-menopause

A

shortening follicular phase/(-) estrogen –> (+) prog effs ==>. (+) pain, fibrocystic change, cyst formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

breast change during menopause

A
  • lobules (-)
  • ducts stay but ectatic
  • FA degen (they like estrogen)
  • secr Ca 15-20 yrs after
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

effects of antipsychotics

A

increased density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

effects of prolactin

A

increased density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

can you biopsy a lactating breast?

A

Yes=risk of milk fistula
mx=stop br feeding
-low risk of fistula superinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

galactocele

A
  • fat fluid level

- cessation of breast feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

lactating adenoma

A

Circumscribed mass; many tightly packed, small lobules with lactational change and secretory hyperplasia

  • ant, +/- multiple
  • rapidly regress after lactation
  • f/u 4-6 mos post partum, delivery or cessation of lactation (via US)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

camel nose

A

-MLO that hasn’t been pulled up and out, ie: lift the breast on repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

breast ideally convex or concave on mammo?

A

convex-pec m’s relaxed. More breast tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which view show most breast tissue?

A

MLO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

when would you get an LMO?

A

kyphosis

  • pectus pexcavatum
  • avoid medial pacemaker/central line
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Mag views

A
  • CC

- ML (for milk of Ca)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

spot compression views

A
  • leave collimator open (large FOV)
  • small paddles-focal compression
  • large paddles-good visualization of landmarks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ML vs LM

A

90˚

  • ML: lateral lesions.
  • LM: medial lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ML or LM if see lesion on MLO but not CC?

A

-ML (70% breast cancers occur laterally)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

where do motion artifact predominate and how to fix?

A
  • inferiorly (less compression)

- “sweep up and out”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what do MLO and CC maximize?

A
  • MLO: axillary and pst tissue

- CC: pst medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

next step: black adequate coverage at pstlat edge or ax tail on CC

A

XCCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what’s next best view:

  • lesion seen only in CC view
  • lesion favored in skin
  • lesion favored to be milk of Ca
  • lesion in far pst medial breast
  • br implants
  • Ca
A
  • rolled CC
  • tangental
  • true lateral
  • cleavage view
  • “eklund/implacnt displaced”
  • mag

Routine and implant-displaced (ID) views standard
Implant pushed back (Eklund maneuver) and tissue pulled forward for ID views
DBT typically only performed on ID views

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

basic mammo artifacts

A

1) motion
2) grid lines
3) chin
4) deoderant
5) hair
6) jewelry
7) VP shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

when is a grid not used in mammoth?

A

mag views

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

causes of motion artifact

A
  • breathing or inadequate compression
    1) pt moved
    2) exposure too long
    3) exposure too short
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

triangulation

A

muffins rising and lead sinking MLO –> CC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

lesion only on CC view

A

rolled CC

  • checks for sup or inf
  • sup lesions move in dir you rolle
  • inf lesions move in opp dir
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

BR score: bilateral well circumscribed, similar appearing masses

A

BR2

*don’t US unless palp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

things you can BR3

A
  • a baseline now called back
  • require 2 yr f/u
  • FA
  • focal asymm
  • grouped round Ca
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

BI-RADS divisions

A
0-incompl
1-N
2-benign
3-probably benign <2% change of CA
4-suspicious (2-95% chance of CA)
5-highly suggestive (>95% CA)
6) known biopsy proven
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

which BIRADS are allowed on screen?

A

0-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

“mass”

A

space occupying lesion seen in 2 different prj

  • shape
  • margin
  • density
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

mass shapes

A

ROI
round
oval- 2-3 gentle lobulations
irreg (lobular is considered “irreg”!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

mass margin

A

COMIS

  • circ-75%; rest “obscured”
  • obscured-margin hidden by tissue but believed to be circumscribed
  • microlobulated-short cycle undulations
  • indisctinct-ill-defined, suggesting infiltration
  • spiculated-radiating lines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

mass densities

A
  • rel to breast parenchyma
  • high
  • equal
  • low
  • fat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is most reliable feature determining benign vs mal “mass”

A

margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

asymmetry

A

-non-mass like density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

asymm vs global asymm vs focal asymm vs developing asymm

A
  • asymm-only 1 view, not clearly 3D mass
  • global-greater vol breast tissue than CL side in 1+ quadrants
  • focal-2 prjs; needs compression
  • developing asymm-new or progressed

Focal asymmetry: Small (< 1 quadrant) relatively discrete area of tissue density. Typically seen on both views.
Lacks discrete margins and conspicuity of true mass
Spot compression, US may reveal underlying mass
Normal variant usually has interspersed fat
Suspicious when new or larger (developing): 15% malignant across screening and diagnostic setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

describing mass on ultrasound

A

PEMOS

1) shape- round, oval, irreg
2) orientation-parallel, not parallel
3) margin-circus, indistinct, angular, microlobulated, spiculated (CAMIS)
4) echo-an, hypo, hyper, iso, complex
5) pst features-none, enh, shadowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

MRI focus vs mass

A

focus <5mm

mass >5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

“background parenchymal enh”

A
  • 1st post contrast sequence

- non, minimal, mild, moderate, marked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

MRI lexicon “t2 signal”

A

1) greater than parenchyma (on T2)
2) greater than or equal to fat (on T2)
3) greater than or equal to water (on T2 fat sat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Ca artifacts

A

1) on img receptor-doesn’t change position btw views
2) deoderant
3) zink oxide (collects in mold)
4) metallic- from electrocautery device; will be next to scar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Ca distribution in order of increasing suspicion

A

1) scattered/diffuse

2) regional-Scattered over area > 2 cm in diameter.
4% of Ca⁺⁺ biopsied; 30% malignant

3) grouped-≥ 5 Ca⁺⁺ in 1-cm span; more Ca⁺⁺ may be seen in area up to 2-cm span

4) linear
9% of Ca⁺⁺ biopsied; 59% malignant

5) segment
9% of Ca⁺⁺ biopsied; 48% malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

dermal Ca

A

“tattoo sign”

  • tangental view
  • in folds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

benign Ca types

A

1) dermal
2) vascular
3) popcorn
4) secretory (rod-like) Ca
5) eggshell Ca
6) dystrophic Ca
7) round
8) milk of Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

pathophysiology of secretory/rod like Ca

A

duct involution

  • 10-20 yrs s/p meno
  • “cigar shaped w/ Lucent center”
  • “dashes, no dots”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

popcorn Ca pathophys

A
  • involution FA

- per –> coalesce over mult imgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

liponecrosis macarycystica

A

massive eggshell Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

where do round Ca dev and what do they rep?

A
  • lobules

- fibrocystic change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

etiology of milk of Ca

A

fibrocystic change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

why would milk of ca not be seen on bx?

A

must be viewed with polarized light to assess birefringence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

when are “round Ca” benign vs suspicious?

A
  • BL and symm
  • clustered, new,-need w/I
  • grouped round Ca on first mammo-BR3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

suspicious Ca

A
  • amorphous
  • coarse heterogenous->5mm, dull tip
  • fine pleomoprhic-<5mm, sharp tips
  • fine linear/fine linear branching
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Ca most ass with malignancy

A

1) fine linear/fine linear branching=highest likelihood

2) fine pleomorphic-2nd highest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

ddx amorphous Ca

A
  • FC change (most likely)
  • sclerosing adenosis
  • columnar cell change
  • DCIS (low grade)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ddx coarse heterogenous Ca

A
  • FA
  • papilloma
  • FC change
  • DCIS (low-intermediate grade)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

“puff of smoke” sign or “warning shot”

A

susc Ca ass w/ density

  • incr likelihood mal
  • US next step
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

when is US useful in the setting of Ca?

A

1) ass w/ mass/asymm

2) palp finding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Mondor dx

A
  • thrombosed v
  • pres: palpable cord
  • mx: NSAIDS, warm compress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Fat containing lesions

A

1) hamartoma
2) galactocele
3) oil cyst/fat necrosis
4) lipoma
5) intramammary LN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

steatocystoma multiplex

A

hamartomas + mult oil cysts/fat necr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

when would you bx a lipoma?

A

growing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

when do you not US a palpable lesions?

A

-fat containing definite B2 on mammo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

PASH

A

-pseudoangiomatous stromal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

PASH

A
  • pseudoangiomatous stromal hyperplasia
  • myofibroblastic HP
  • pre and postmen women on exogenous hormone rx
  • f/u 12 mo (rec)
  • low-grade angiosarcoma can mimic PASH on core bx==> excision bx recommended if mass grows!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

most common palpable mass in young woman

A

fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

fibroadenoma- classic US img in young and older woman

A
  • oval, circumscribed mass
  • homog hypoechoic
  • CENTRAL hyperecho band

older: popcorn ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

fibroadenoma on MR

A

T2+

type 1 enh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

phyllodes-mal pot

A

10%

  • hematog to lung, bone. Bx of sentinel node not needed (met via lymph is SO rare!)
  • wide margin on sx (recur if <2cm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

distinguishing features of phyllodes tumor

A

Fibroepithelial neoplasm with epithelial-lined hypercellular stroma creating leaf-like projections with intervening clefts

  • rapid growth
  • hematog mets
  • middle-age to older woman
  • mimicsc fA
  • unresponsive to crx or rrx

Mammogram: High-density, oval/round or lobulated mass; coarse Ca⁺⁺ rare
US: Lobulated, heterogeneous mass, frequent fluid clefts/cystic spaces, ↑ vascularity
MR: Lobulated, heterogeneous mass with washout kinetics, cystic clefts/spaces ± hemorrhage, dark internal septations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

classic distribution NF

A

peri-areolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

classic story IDC

A

-hard, painless, non-mobile mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

classic IDC img

A
  • irreg, high density
  • indis/spic margins
  • pleo Ca

-anti-parallel shadowing mass + echogenic halo/rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

MC IDC type

A

-invasive ductal NOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

IDC subtypes

A
  • invasive ductal NOS-mc
  • tubular
  • mucinous
  • medullary
  • papillary-2nd MC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

mucinous IDC subtype

A
  • uncommon
  • round/lobulated, circumferential mass
  • T2+
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

tubular IDC subtype

A
  • small speculated slow growing mass
  • “radial scar”
  • favorable prognosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

contra laterality of tubular IDC subtype

A

-CL breast has cancer 10-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

which IDC subtypes have better prognosis than NOS

A

mucinous, medullary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

medullary IDC subtype

A

round/oval circ mass, no Ca

  • large ax nodes (w/o mets)
  • 40s-50s
  • BRCA 1, 25%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

papillary IDC subtype

A
  • 2nd MC
  • complex cystic/solid
  • older
  • no ax nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

multifocal vs multi centric breast cancer

A
  • multifocal-same quadrant, <4-5 cm apart. same duct system.

- multicentric-multiple primaries in different qudrants, discrete unrelated sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

synchronous BL breast cancer by modality and type

A
  • mammo-2-3%
  • MRI: 3-6%

-infiltrating lobular, multi-centric dx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

earliest form of breast cancer

A

DCIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

DCIS subtypes

A
  • comedo-more agg

- non-comed

105
Q

DCIS histo divisions

A
  • low (amorphous
  • intermediate
  • high (fine linear)
106
Q

Mx DCIS

A

-wide local excision, >2mm (-) margins + XRT

107
Q

DCIS change to invasiveness on bx, sx

A
  • 10% DCIS on img have invasive comp at time bx is done

- 25% DCIS on core bx have inv comp on sx excision

108
Q

how will DCIS appear

A

Clonal proliferation of malignant epithelial cells in terminal duct lobular unit without invasion of basement membrane

  • US: microlobulated mildly hypo mass w/ ductal ext, normal acoustic transmission
  • 8% mass w/o Ca

1) susp Ca
2) non mass enh
3) mult intraductal masses on galactography

109
Q

pagets disease-path, pres, bx, ass, staging

A

Adenocarcinoma (Paget) cells within epidermis of nipple; associated with local inflammatory response, pruritus and excoriation

  • CA in situ of nipple epidermis
  • 50% palpable + skin change
  • wedge bx of skin lesion
  • ass: high grade DCIS 96%
  • skin involvement does not upstage

Clinical: Erythema, flaking and ulceration of skin of nipple

Mammography: Include magnification views of suspicious Ca⁺⁺; thickening of nipple and areola may be only finding
US: Identify and biopsy any suspicious mass(es)
MR: Identify underlying malignancy and define extent for preoperative staging and treatment planning

110
Q

ILC

A

interlobular carcinoma-2nd mc cancer

111
Q

why is ILC missed on mult mambos?

A

-infiltrative pattern does not cause desmoplastic rxn

112
Q

findings of ILC

A
  • “dark star”-arch distortion w/o central mass seen on CC only
  • US: shadowing w/o discrete mass
  • “shrinking breast”
113
Q

ILC vs IDC

A

*similar prognosis (except pleomorphic ILC :( )

ILC…

  • multifocal, BL (1/3)
  • met weird places (peritoneum, less met to axilla)
  • positive margins
  • mastectomy
  • later pres
  • older pop
  • one view (CC, compresses better)
  • Ca less common
  • less w/o
114
Q

dark star ddx

A

arch distortion w/o central mass

  • lobular Ca
  • radial scar
  • surgical scar
  • IDC-NOS
115
Q

IBC mets at time of pres

A

30%

116
Q

“peau d’orange”

A

IBC

117
Q

IBC palp mass likelihood

A

no focal palpable mass

118
Q

pathology of IBC skin thickening

A

-tumor emb blocking lymphatics

119
Q

confirming dx of IBC requires:

A

1) tissue AND

2) clinical evidence

120
Q

distinguishing mastitis from IBC

A

1) US:
complex cyst-drain/abx/culture & gram
solid mass susp features- bx

2) no mass?
1) abx-see if it gets better-not RESOLVED 1-2 wks=IBC
2) punch bx, consider MRI to better target

*IBC painless usually.

121
Q

IBC resp to abx

A

-can improve but no resolve

122
Q

what is MC subtype to result in IBC?

A

IDC (although any time can)

123
Q

IBC stage

A

4

Poorly differentiated IDC > ILC, T4d (stage III); dermal lymphatic tumor emboli; lymphovascular invasion

124
Q

IBC rx

A
  • neoadjchemo or XRT –> mastectomy

* only breast cancer to do this

125
Q

IBC vs locally advanced breast cancer

A
  • IBC: rapid onset, mid 50s, 30% met at pres
  • LABC: prolonged, mid 60s, 10%

IBC: Locally advanced breast cancer with rapid-onset (≤ 6 months) inflammatory skin change and breast swelling

Top Differential Diagnoses
Secondary skin invasion by breast cancer (T4b or T4c)
Mastitis ± abscess; granulomatous mastitis; edema

126
Q

5 high risk lesions

A

*come out after bx

1) radial scar
2) atypical ductal hyperplasia
3) lobular carcinoma in situ
4) atypical lobular HP
5) papilloma

127
Q

radial scar-app/img, ass

A
  • dense fibrosis around ducts
  • ass: DCIS & IDC 10-30%; tubular carcinoma.

Radial scar (RS): Benign proliferative lesion with central fibroelastosis and spiculated appearance radiographically and histologically
Complex sclerosing lesion (CSL): RSL > 1 cm in size
Radial sclerosing lesion (RSL): Refers to both RS & CSL

128
Q

atypical ductal HP

A
  • DCIS w/o quantitative definition by histo, ie: <2 ducts involved
  • 30% upgraded at surgery
129
Q

lobular carcinoma in situ

A
  • classically occult on mammo, ie BW=incidental finding

- precursor to ILC, risk of conversion to invasive < DCIS to IDC

130
Q

which ILC and LCIS subtype is worst?

A

pleomorphic

131
Q

atypical lobular HP vs LCIS

A

atypical: lobule not distended on histo. subsequent risk CA 4-6x
- LCIS: lobule distended. CA 11x+

132
Q

papilloma MCs

A
  • intraductal mass lesion (subareolar, 1cm from nipple 90%)

- bloody discharge

133
Q

papilloma-who, img, mult

A
  • late repro/early meno yrs (50 yo)
  • subareolar
  • mammo-Ca. (often normal)
  • US: well-define, solid, hypo echo. (may be cystic + solid). ass duct dil
  • galactography-solid filling defect + dilation

-mult: per. mult mass OR no mass, just Ca

134
Q

“multiple masses”

A

BL and 3+

135
Q

1˚ lymphoma-type, img, what’s required for dx

A
  • non hodgkin (DLBC)
  • mammo: hyperdense mass, solitary, larger, usually palp
  • US: cystic
  • histo: ICH staining

*less common than 2˚

136
Q

2˚ lymphoma-img

A
  • most common 2˚/met to breast

- inflammatory thickening without mass (but can look like anything)

137
Q

when to evaluate breast pain

A

focal, UL, non-cyclical

138
Q

NPV mammo + US for focal breast pain

A

100%

if breast cancer found, it’s elsewhere

139
Q

BL breast edema

A

CHF

renal fx

140
Q

mc orgm breast abscess

A

staph aureus

141
Q

RFs mastitis

A
  • breast feeding

* incr in smokers, diabetics

142
Q

how often is nipple discharge benign?

A

90%

143
Q

when is nipple discharge suspicious

A

-spon’t, bloody discharge from single duct = mod suspicious feature combo
-serous
>60 yo

144
Q

cancers related to nipple dc

A
  • papilloma

- DCIS

145
Q

causes of milky discharge

A
  • prolactinoma
  • antidepressants, neuroleptics, reglan
  • thyroid issues
146
Q

causes of non milky discharge-benign and worrisome

A
  • B9: fibrocystic change (premenopausal), ductal ectasia (post meno)
  • mal: intraductal papilloma (90%), DCIS (10%)
147
Q

ductal ectasia

A
  • MCC benign discharge in post-meno woman

- galactography: dilated ducts + progressive attenuation more pst

148
Q

CI galactography

A
  • active inf
  • inab to express discharge at time of study
  • contrast allergy
  • prior sx to nipple areola complex
149
Q

galactography procedure

A
  • 27 or 30 g
  • inj 0.2-0.3 cc contrast
  • mammo (CC & ML)
  • filling defect?-wire localization
150
Q

architectural distortion vs summation

A
  • summation-lines con’t past each other

- AD: lines radiate to a point

151
Q

progression of surgical scar

A

-should get lighter, ~5-10yrs (lumpectomy scars > bx)

152
Q

harmonic vs compound img

A
  • harmonic-easier to see lesions (decrease reverberation)

- compound-lose pst features

153
Q

AD + Ca vs AD w/o Ca

A
  • ICD, DCIS

- ILC

154
Q

how often are abN nodes ass w/ cancer?

A

1/3

155
Q

recommending a bx on a node

A
  • loss of fatty hilum-most spec
  • cortical thickness 2.3 mm
  • irreg outer margin
156
Q

when staging LNs, which are treated the same?

A
  • level 1 and 2 (+rotter)

- 3 and supraclavicular

157
Q

v dense LNs

A

gold rx

158
Q

patterns of gyenocmastia

A

1) nodular (MC)-flamae-shaped, tender, <1 yr
2) dendritic-branching tree, chronic fibrosis, tender
3) diffuse glandular-estrogen

159
Q

“pseudogynecomastia”

A

“bitch tits”, ie: fat, no glandular tissue

160
Q

which breast diseases are not in men?

A

those involving lobules: lobular CA, FA, cysts

161
Q

male breast cancer-MC age, type, RFs

A
  • 70 yo
  • IDC-NOS
  • BRCA (1/4), Klinefelter, cirrhosis, chronic EtOH
  • eccentric, near nipple
162
Q

palpable masses in man

A

1) gynecomastia = mc

2) lipoma=2nd mc

163
Q

things that make you think male breast cancer (vs gynecomastia)

A
  • eccentric to nipple
  • UL
  • abN LN
  • Ca (25%)- less numerous, coarser and ass w/ mass
164
Q

screening mammo in men

A

only klinefelter

165
Q

working up gender reassignment breast on hormone therapy

A
  • don’t meet screening criteria

- w/u if palp finding

166
Q

implant types

A

1) silicone

2) saline

167
Q

implant location

A

1) sub glandular (retromammary)

2) sub pectoral (retropectoral)-btw pec major and minor m’s

168
Q

how often are Ca ass w/ fibrous capsule?

A

25%

169
Q

do implants increase risk of cancer?

A

lymphoma

170
Q

can you biopsy w/ implants?

A

yes but saline can burst w/ 25g FNA so be careful

171
Q

modality of choice when evaluating implant

A

MRI T2 FS

172
Q

complications associated with implants

A

1) capsular contracture-MC. sub glandular silicone
2) gel bleed-silicone. in LN
3) rupture

173
Q

silicone rupture types

A

*cannot have isolated extra capsular rupture

1) isolated intracapsular-occult on physical exam.
- stepladder on US
- linguine sign on MRI

2) intracapsular w/ extracapsular rupture
- snowstorm- v echo w/o pst shadowing
- MR: T1 and T2 (-)

174
Q

radial folds

A

-normal inholdings of esatomer shell, should always conn with periphery of implant, thicker (bc rep both layers)

175
Q

reduction mammoplasty

A

smaller breasts

176
Q

mastopexy

A

removing extra skin

  • swirled, inf breast
  • fat necrosis/oil cysts
  • isolated islands of breast tissue
177
Q

key hole incision

A

surgical approach for mammoplasty and mastopexy

-“swirled” appearance in inf asp MLO

178
Q

lumpectomy

A

surgical removal of cancer (palpable or not)

179
Q

excisional vs incisional bx

A

removing entire lesion vs portion of lesion

180
Q

when to obtain first post-op img and what to expect

A

6-12 mo

  • mammo: distortion/scarring worst on this film
  • US: thin, linear
  • if focal mass like/thickness-suspicious
181
Q

fat necrosis on MR

A

T1/T2+ w/ w/o on FS

182
Q

local recurrence-how often, when, who, where

A
  • breast conservation w/o radiation 35%
  • breast conservation w/ radiation 4-6%

-1-7 yrs after (peak ~4yrs)

  • early recur: in org tumor bed, later=diff site
  • comes from either residual breast tissue or along skin scar line
  • premeno women (highest risk), extensive inarticulate component, vascular, multi-centric, positive sx margins, not adequately treated org
  • residual Ca recurr rate 60%
183
Q

new calcs s/p rx

A
  • benign: ~2 yrs

- mal: ~4 yrs

184
Q

lymph node failures rate

A

5%

185
Q

chance of incomplete excision if mass at edge of specimen radiograph

A

80%

186
Q

residual dx on pre and post radiation mammo

A

pre: more rx options
post: mastectomy

187
Q

secondary angiosarcoma

A
  • 6 yrs after breast conservation/radiation rx
  • red plaques or skin nodules
  • T2+
188
Q

breast cancer staging

A

1) <2cm
2) 2-5 cm
3) >5 cm
4) any size + invasion (cw fixation, skin, inflammatory)

189
Q

MI predictor overall survival in breast cancer

A

axillary status

190
Q

mc tumor to met to breast

A

melanoma

191
Q

CI for breast conservation

A

1) inflammatory cancer
2) large cancer size rel to breast
3) multi centric (mult quadrants)
4) prior radiation rx
5) CI to radiation (ex: collagen-vascular dx)

192
Q

T2 bright things on MR

A
  • benign (usually)
  • cysts, LN, fat necrosis, fibroadenoma

exc:

  • colloid cancer
  • mucinous cancer
193
Q

who gets MR screening? WHo’s not rec?

A
  • lifetime risk >20-25%. Can consider for moderate (15-20%), not recommended for low (<15%)
  • don’t use Gail model. Tyrer-Cuzick is best!
  • 20 Gy radiation to chest as a child (FTC says hx radiation btw 10-30 yo.)
  • peaks 15 yrs after
  • 25 yo or 8 yrs post exposure-whichever is later!
  • known genetic mets (incl BRCA1, BRCA2, PTEN)
  • fam hx (2+ 1st degree w/ premenopausal br CA or fam hx breast or ovarian CA
not recommended:
15-20% lifetime risk
-personal hx br ca
-ADH, lobular neo
-more limited family hx.
194
Q

effect of tamoxifen on breast parenchymal enc

A

-decreases –> rebound

195
Q

in determining suspicion, kinetics or morph?

A

morph > kinetics

196
Q

are foci bad?

A

2-3% chance of mal

197
Q

breast kinetics

A
  • 2 parts:
    1) upslope (~2 mins)-slow, medium, rapid
    2) washout (2-6 mins)
  • type 1: curve 6%; fibroadenomas
  • type 2: curve: 7-28%
  • type 3: curve 29%+; high risk

type I curve: progressive or persistent enhancement pattern
typically shows a continuous increase in signal intensity throughout time
usually considered benign with only a small proportion of (~9%) of malignant lesions having this pattern

type II curve: plateau pattern
initial uptake followed by the plateau phase towards the latter part of the study
considered concerning for malignancy

type III curve: washout pattern
has a relatively rapid uptake shows reduction in enhancement towards the latter part of the study
considered strongly suggestive of malignancy

198
Q

hereditary syndromes ass w/ breast cancer risk

A

1) BRCA 1
2) BRCA 2
3) Cowden Syndrome
4) Hereditary diffuse gastric cancer syndrome
5) Li-Faumeni Syndrome

199
Q

“hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome”

A

BRCA 1: chrom 17. Br cancer 72%, ov cancer 44%.
BRCA 2: chrom 13. Br CA 69%, ov CA 17%. Male breast cancer.

-triple neg

medullary subtype

-other cancers: Fallopian tube, pancr, colon

200
Q

Cowden syndrome

A

hamartomas, facial/mouth bumps

  • Br CA 77%, other br conditions
  • thyroid (follicular) & benign thyroid dx-annula thyroid screening
  • lhermitte-duclos (dysplastic gangliocytoma of cerebellum)
201
Q

hereditary diffuse gastric cancer syndrome

A
  • diffuse gastric cancer risk-70%
  • lobular br cancer risk-40% (lobules look like poop)
  • ppx gastrectomy
202
Q

li fraumeni syndrome

A
  • bad p53
  • cancer everywhere
  • high grade breast cancer in 30-40 yo
203
Q

NF1 risk of breast cancer

A

moderate

204
Q

Bannayan-Riley Rucalcaba

A

ass w/ developmental disorders at young age

205
Q

estrogen related RFs

A
  • early menstration
  • late menopause
  • late age first pregnancy/no kids
  • obesity
  • EtOH
  • horm repl
206
Q

does breast density increase risk of br cancer?

A
  • > 75% br density have fivefold (+) risk. Not for those with dense breasts (>50%)
  • dose-dep
  • “medium risk”
207
Q

increased risk of br cancer with family members

A
  • 1st degree relative-13%

- 2+ 1st degree relative-21%

208
Q

eff of SERMs on br CA

A

-reduce incidence of ER/PR+

209
Q

sclerosis adenosis

A

Adenosis: Benign proliferation of lobular glandular elements with ↑ acini/ductules

Sclerosing adenosis (SA): Adenosis + intervening stromal fibrosis compressing and distorting acini

Microglandular adenosis (MGA): Extremely rare variant of adenosis with single epithelial cell layer infiltrative pattern

Best diagnostic clue
Microcalcifications: Grouped or scattered, amorphous ± punctate
Less common: Oval circumscribed mass ± Ca⁺⁺; architectural distortion
May be incidental finding on biopsy
Imaging findings vary among pathologic subtypes
Size
Masses usually small (average: 12-25 mm)

210
Q

cancer detection rate

A
  • number of cancers with positive initial interpretation (BI-RADS 0, 4, 5) per 1000 SCREENING mambos.
  • benchmark >2.5/1000
211
Q

definition of “False negative”

A

-tissue diagnosis of cancer w/I 1 yr negative exam

bi-rads 1, 2 for screening, 1-3 for dx

212
Q

definition “FP 1”

A

no known tissue dx of cancer w/i 1 yr of positive screening exam.

213
Q

definition “FP 2”

A

no known tissue dx of cancer w/i 1 yr after recommendation for tissue dx or surgical consultation on the basis of positive exam (bi-rads 4,5)

214
Q

definition FP 3

A

concordant benign tissue dx (or discordant benign tissue dx and no known tissue dx) w/I 1 yr after rec for tissue dx on basis of (+) exam (BR 4, 5)

215
Q

definition TP

A

tissue dx of cancer w/I 1 yr after positive exam

216
Q

definition TN

A

no known tissue dx of cancer w/I 1 yr negative exam

217
Q

compression plate and img receptor sizes, compression F, collimate to what?

A
  • 18 x 24 and 24 x 30 cm
  • 25-45 lb
  • collimate to receptor
218
Q

“abN interpretation rate” aka “recall rate” in screening mammography

A

percentage of exams interpreted as positive, ie: 0, 4, 5

219
Q

“abN interpretation rate” aka “biopsy recommendation rate”

A

percentage of exams interpreted as positive, ie: BR 4,5)

-# BR 4, 5/total # dx mambos.

220
Q

“cancer detection rate”

A
# of cancers correctly detected at mammo/1000 pts examined at mammo
-# positive bx/total number screened
221
Q

phase encoded directions axial and sag sequences

A
  • axial: L to R

- sag: sup to inf

222
Q

dose gadolinium for contrast enhanced MR

A

0.1 mmol/kg followed by saline flush

223
Q

PPV 1-3

A

PPV1: TP/#positive screening exams

PPV2 (biopsy recommended): percentage of all dx (or rarely screening) exams recommended for tissue dx or surgical consultation that result in tissue dx in 1 yr

-TP/(# screening or dx exams recommended for tissue dx)
OR
-TP/ (TP+FP2)

PPV3 (bx performed): percentage of all known biopsies done as a result of positive dx exam that resulted in tissue dx of cancer w/I 1 yr
-aka “bx yield of malignancy” or “positive bx rate (PBR)

TP/# biopsies OR TP/(TP + FP 3)

224
Q

birads US lexicon, tissue composition (Screening only)

A

1) homogenous background echotexture-fat
2) homogenous bg echotexture-fibroglandular
3) heterogenous bg echotexture

225
Q

analysis of medical audit data: acceptable ranges of screening mammo

A

1) cancer detection rate/1000 exams: 2.5+
2) abN interpretation (recall) rate: 5-12%
3) PPV1 (abN interpretation): 3-8%
4) PPV2 (recommendation for tissue dx): 20-40%
5) sensitivity: 75%+
6) specificity: 88-95%

226
Q

likelihood of Ca malignancy based on distribution

A
  • diffuse distribution: 0%
  • regional 26%
  • grouped 31%
  • linear 60%
  • segmental 62%
227
Q

suspicious Ca likelihood of malignancy based on morphology

A
  • coarse heterog 13%
  • amorphous 21%
  • fine pleo 29%
  • fine linear/fine linear branching 70%
228
Q

DIEP vs TRAM

A

TRAM flap reconstruction: absence of atrophied rectus abdominis muscle and its vascular pedicle in the reconstructed breast differentiates a DIEP from a TRAM flap

229
Q

Poland syndrome has increased incidence of which cancers?

A
  • breast
  • leukemia
  • NHL
  • lung
230
Q

mx high risk lesions

A
  • surgical excision

- 6 mo f/u’s

231
Q

appearance TRAM

A

fatty dome shaped area in center of breast

232
Q

in pts with TRAM, where do recurrences MC occur?

A

deep to TRAM

233
Q

triple negative cancers

  • resp to various management.
  • Who?
A
  • v aggressive
  • no resp to hormone manipulation but responsive to crx
  • 70% pt’s w/ BRCA-1 have triple (-)
  • premeno, black, obese
  • met to brain, lungs (not bones)
234
Q

BRCA 1 vs BRCA 2

A
  • BRCA 2= smaller, less aggressive, ER/PR (+).

- act more like sporadically detected cancers

235
Q

“specificity”

A

TN/TN + FP. Probability of normal mammogram when no cancer is present

236
Q

mammo exposure

A

~5-24 mSv

-1 Sv=200 mammos

237
Q

what is the highest acceptable percentage of node positivity in cancers detected by mammo in a screening program?

A

25%

ie: in a well-administered screening mammography program, >75% of cancers should be node negative

238
Q

risk of radiation induced cancer in screening

A

1/1000

239
Q

IBC vs LABC

A

inflamm = shorter duration of syx’s

240
Q

purpose of preoperative MRI

A
  • look for additional lesions in same or CL breast

- if additional lesions-biopsy (usually under MRI guidance since lesions weren’t seen on other img)

241
Q

portions of breast with met

A

non-glandular tissue

242
Q

medullary CA- app, mlc markers, aggressive and local recurr

A

solid circumscribed mass

  • young
  • triple (-)-doesn’t resp to horm rx
  • histo aggressive but sens to crx ==> survival :)
243
Q

N staging

A

N1: IL axillary (if discrete)
N2: IL internal mammary discrete. matted axillary (clinical)
N3: IL supraclavicular, IL infraclavicular, combo of IL internal mammary w/ other IL ax
M1: CL

244
Q

“locally advanced breast cancer” by definition

A

> 5 cm
or mass of any size that involves skin or chest wall
-skin detected via: nodules, ulcerations. *peau d’ orange alone is not enough
-chest wall: ribs, IC m, serrates ant m, ie: pec m not enough

245
Q

salad oil sign

A

rupture of inner lumen double lumen implant on MRI

246
Q

gel bleed not seen on…

A

not seen on US or mammo

247
Q

critical sequence for MR evaluation of breast implant?

A

T2WI w/ fat sat

248
Q

what complications of PM have been reported with mammo?

A
  • lead damage and breakage
  • NOT loss of pacemaker settings (which has been reported with CT chest).
  • may obscure small lesions
249
Q

benefits of compression:

A

1) (+) SR (via (-) thickness)
2) (+) CR (via spreading of tissue)
3) (-) dose

250
Q

components of phantom, thickness, composition, and how often checked

A

(clusters, masses, fbrs)

  • CMF 556 , 334 to pass
  • 4.2 cm thick
  • 50/50 fatty/glandular
  • checked weekly
251
Q

where do skin folds develop on MLO views?

A

lateral aspects

252
Q

where and how do skin folds and pec major m appear on cc mammo views?

A
  • inf/pst

- underexposed, ie: v bright/dense, sharply defined dark shadow trapped under breast

253
Q

savi scout

A
  • radar detector placed in breast lesion
  • ninitol/nickel
  • placed via 16g needle
254
Q

savi scoutman’s breast

A
  • radar detector placed in breast lesion
  • ninitol/nickel
  • placed via 16g needle
255
Q

pathophys gynecomastia

A

*non-neo enlargement of ep & stromal elements

  • physiologic in adolescents (aff 50%!)
  • path (13-65 yo)- spironolactone, psyche meds, marijuana, EtOH cirrhosis, testicular CA)
256
Q

what should make you think br CA in males (vs gynecomastia)

A
eccentric to nipple
UL 
abN LNs
Ca
looks like br CA
257
Q

Ca in males

A

rare. usually less numerous, courser and ass w/ mass

258
Q

how many male Br CA have Ca

A

25%