Brain Development Flashcards

1
Q

What does the notochordal process induce formation of? With what molecule?

A

Neural plate

Sonic Hedge Hog (SHH)

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2
Q

When does primary neurulation occur?

A

Day 22-23

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3
Q

What neuropore closes on day 25?

A

Rostral neuropore

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4
Q

When does the caudal neuropore close?

A

Day 27/28

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5
Q

What parts of the CNS form during primary neurulation?

A

Brain => Lumbar SC

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6
Q

When does secondary neurulation occur?

A

Days 20-42

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7
Q

What forms during secondary neurulation?

A

Caudal eminence => Sacrum and coccyx

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8
Q

What germ layer do microglial cells arise from?

A

Mesoderm

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9
Q

What part of the neural tube forms the brain?

A

Neural tube cranial to 4th somites

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10
Q

3 primary brain vesicles

A

Proencephalon - forebrain

Mesencephalon - midbrain

Rhombencephalon - hindbrain

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11
Q

What primary brain vesicles divide in the 5th week?

A

Forebrain - Prosencephalon

Hindbrain - Rhombencephalon

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12
Q

What does the prosencephalon divide into?

A

Telencephalon

Diencephalon

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13
Q

What does the rhombencephalon divide into?

A

Metencephalon

Myelencephalon

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14
Q

What ventricles do the divisions of the prosencephalon contain?

A

Telencephalon - Lateral ventricle

Diencephalon - 3rd ventricle

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15
Q

What does the cervical flexure divide?

A

Hindbrain and spinal cord

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16
Q

What does the pontine flexure divide?

A

Divides hindbrain into caudal myelecephalon and rostral metencephalon

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17
Q

What does the cephalic flexure divide?

A

Midbrain and forebrain

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18
Q

When does development of the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex occur?

A

Between weeks 6 and 32

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19
Q

What does the metencephalon give rise to?

A

Cerebellum and pons

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20
Q

What does the myelencephalon give rise to?

A

Medulla oblongata structures - olive, pyramid

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21
Q

Incomplete separation of cerebral hemispheres during development can result in what disorder?

A

Holoprosencephaly

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22
Q

Patient presents with epilepsy, headache, abnormal movements. Upon examination, he has a reduced frontonasal prominence and a cleft lip as well as some developmental delay. What disorder does he most likely have?

A

Holoprosencephaly

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23
Q

What embryological layer gives rise to the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A

First Arch ectoderm

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24
Q

What embryological layer gives rise to the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A

Neuroectoderm

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25
Q

What part of the pituitary gland arises from the diencephalic floor?

A

Posterior lobe

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26
Q

What gives rise to sensory neurons that remain contained within the CNS?

A

Alar plate

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27
Q

What is the division between the alar and basal plates?

A

Sulcus limitans

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28
Q

What is the embryological origin of motor neurons that leave the CNS to go out to skeletal muscle?

A

Basal plate

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29
Q

What is the embryological origin of preganglionic autonomics?

A
30
Q

What layer of the spinal cord are the ependymal and choroid plexus cells located?

A

Ventricular layer (Line the ventricles and central canal)

31
Q

What cells are contained within the intermediate layer (mantle zone)?

A

Neurons

Astrocytes

Glioblasts => glial cells

32
Q

What layer of the spinal cord are oligodendrocytes and the neuronal axons located?

A

Marginal zone

33
Q

What are the GSE CNs?

A

3, 4, 6, 12 (midline)

34
Q

What are the SVE CNs?

A

5, 7, 9, 10

35
Q

What nuclei are located within the motor region of the upper myelencephalon?

A

Hypoglossal nucleus (most medial)

Dorsal motor vagal nucleus

Nucleus ambiguus

36
Q

What nuclei are located in the sensory region of the upper myelencephalon?

A

Vestibular nucleus

Cochlear nucleus (most lateral)

Solitary nucleus

Spinal trigeminal tract and nucleus

37
Q

What nuclei are located in the sensory region of the lower myelencephalon?

A

Cuneate and gracile nuclei

38
Q

What nuclei arise from the alar plate in the metencephalon?

A

Cochlear nuclei

Vestibular nuclei

Solitary nuclei

Pontine nuclei

39
Q

What nuclei arise from the basal plate in the metencephalon?

A

Abducens nuclei (most medial)

Facial motor nucleus

Trigeminal motor nucleus

Superior salivatory nucleus

40
Q

What part of the mesencephalon does the alar plate give rise to?

A

Superior and inferior colliculi

41
Q

What nuclei arise from the basal plates of the mesencephalon?

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus

Red nucleus

Oculomotor nucleus

Trochlear nucleus

42
Q

Spastic cerebral palsy is caused by damage to what?

A

Corticospinal tract adjacent to ventricles

43
Q

Athetoid cerebral palsy is caused by damage to what?

A

Basal ganglion

44
Q

Damage to the basal ganglion and VL thalamus can cause what disorder?

A

Dyskinetic cerebral palsy

45
Q

Damage to the cerebellum can cause what kind of cerebral palsy?

A

Ataxic

46
Q

What major structure is the caudate nucleus located adjacent to?

A

Lateral ventricle

47
Q

What disorder is found here?

A

Syringomyelia/Arnold-Chiari Type 1

48
Q

What disorder is syringomyelia highly associated with?

A

Chiari Type I

49
Q

What levels are syrinx formations generally found?

A

C2-T9

50
Q

Pt with a neurological disorder is seen walking on her toes with her knees and hips flexed. What disorder does she most likely have?

A

Spastic cerebral palsy

51
Q

What is the difference between hemiplegia and diplegia?

A

Hemiplegia - affects both limbs on one side of body

Diplegia - affects lower limbs more than upper limbs

52
Q

How would a patient with athetoid cerebral palsy present?

A

Slow, writhing movements of extremities and/or trunk

53
Q

A patient with cerebral palsy shows incoordination, weakness, and shaking during voluntary movement. What kind is this?

A

Ataxic

54
Q

20 y/o patient presents with headache, difficulty moving his tongue, and dizziness with decreased hearing. What disorder does he most likely have?

A

Arnold-Chiari Type 1

55
Q

What disorder is found here?

A

Hydranencephaly

56
Q

What structures are still intact in hydraencephaly?

A

Brainstem

57
Q

During development, when does the cortex begin folding in on itself?

A

6th and 7th months gestation

58
Q

What lamina appears largest in sensory areas?

A

Lamina IV (input from thalamus)

59
Q

What lamina appears largest in motor areas?

A

Lamina V (output to subcortical structures: brainstem, spinal cord, basal ganglia)

60
Q

Development of which laminae occurs first?

A

VI and V (deep layers from the cortical plate)

61
Q

Which lamina is formed last?

A

Lamina II (from subplate)

62
Q

Failure of neuronal migration during weeks 12-24 can result in what brain disorder?

A

Lissencephaly (agyria, smooth brain)

63
Q

What is Lissencephaly characterized by?

A

Microcephaly

Ventriculomegaly

Minimal operculum of insula

Complete/partial agenesis of corpus collosum

64
Q

Fetal brain injury by what microorganisms can cause microcephaly?

A

Cytomegalovirus

Rubella

Toxoplasma gondii

65
Q

What are the layers of the cerebellum?

A

Pia mater

Cerebellar cortex

Molecular layer

Purkinje cell layer

Granular layer

White matter

Cerebellar nucleus

66
Q

What is the embryological origin of the spinal ganglion cells and sensory neurons in the periphery?

A

Neural Crest Cells

67
Q

What is the embryological origin of the motor neurons in the PNS?

A

Neuroectoderm

68
Q

When does CNS myelination occur?

A

6th month gestation through puberty

69
Q

When does PNS myelination occur?

A

4th month (motor before sensory)

70
Q

What vitamin can prevent spina bifida?

A

Folic Acid