Bowlby's theory of maternal deprivation Flashcards
Define separation:
Where a child is away from their attached caregiver for a short period of time, (hours or days).
Define deprivation:
The loss of something that is needed such as emotional care.
What is maternal deprivation?
The loss of emotional care from the mother or PCG, used for long term or permanent distance.
When did Bowlby develop the theory of maternal development?
1951.
What is the basis of the maternal deprivation theory?
The idea that the continual presence of a mother or substitute is essential for normal psychological development of babies and toddlers, both emotionally and intellectually.
What famous quote from Bowlby summarised the basis of the theory?
“Mother-love in infancy and childhood is as important for mental health as vitamins and proteins for physical health.”
What is the difference between separation and deprivation?
Separation is the child being away from the attached caregiver for a short period of time and deprivation is essentially the prolonged separation.
What is privation?
The child having never experienced emotional support from a mother or PCG ever.
What is the critical period for psychological development?
The first 30 months of life is the critical period, if the child is separated from the mother in the absence of suitable substitute care for a prolonged period during this time then psychological damage was inevitable.
How long did Bowlby believe the critical period was?
30 months.
What affect did maternal deprivation have on intellectual development?
The individuals intellectual development is stunted, they may suffer from intellectual retardation. Goldfarb (1947) found that children from an orphanage who remained there had an average IQ of 67, which was in the mentally retarded range.
What affect did maternal deprivation have on emotional development?
The individuals emotional development is stunted, they may develop into an affectionless psychopath. This prevents them developing normal relationships and is associated with criminality.
What are affectionless psychopaths?
They have the inability to experience guilt or strong emotion for others, this prevents normal relationships and is associated with crime as they cannot appreciate the feelings of others.
Why is affectionless psychopathy associated with crime?
Because they lack the ability to appreciate the feelings of the victims and lack remorse for their actions.
Why is affectionless psychopathy associated with poor relationships?
Because they lack the ability to appreciate feelings of their partners and therefore cannot consider how their actions affect others.