Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Networking > Boson Test 2 > Flashcards

Boson Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MAC address for VRRP for IPv4?

A

0000.5E00.01xx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the MAC address for VRRP for IPv6?

A

0000.5E00.02xx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the MAC address for HSRP v4?

A

0000.0C07.ACxx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MAC address for HSRP v2?

A

0000.0C9F.Fxxx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the MAC address for HSRP for IPv6?

A

0005.73A0.0xxx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the MAC address for GLBP?

A

0007.B400.xxyy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What FHRPs are Cisco proprietary? (two answers)

A

HSRP and GLBP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which three encryption algorithms are asymmetric? (three answers)

A

ECDH, RSA, DH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the order of the Ethernet II frame? (seven answers)

A

preamble, SOF, destination address, source address, type, payload, FCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the order of the 802.11 MAC frame? (nine answers)

A

FC, DUR, Address 1, Address 2, Address 3, SEQ, Address 4, DATA, FCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe GLBP?

A

Has one active virtual gateway and multiple active virtual forwarders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe HSRP?

A

Has one active router and one standby router

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe VRRP?

A

Has one master router and multiple backup routers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does C mean in the acronym CIA?

A

Confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does I mean in the acronym CIA?

A

Integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does A mean in the acronym CIA?

A

Availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the name for Syslog level 0

A

Emergencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the name for Syslog level 1

A

Alerts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the name for Syslog level 2

A

Critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the name for Syslog level 3

A

Errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the name for Syslog level 4

A

Warnings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the name for Syslog level 6

A

Informational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the name for Syslog level 5

A

Notifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the name for Syslog level 7

A

Debugging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What metric does EIGRP use? (two answers)

A

Bandwidth and delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an initialism to remember the levels?

A

Din we care (with a silent R)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What metric does IS-IS use?

A

Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What metric does OSPF use?

A

Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What metric does RIP use?

A

Hop count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the PAgP modes? (two answers)

A

Desirable and auto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the LACP modes? (two answers)

A

Active and passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the VTP server mode? (four answers)

A

creates/modifies/deletes VLANs, synchronizes information, originates and forwards advertisements, and stores VLAN information in the NVRAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the VTP client mode? (two answers)

A

Synchronizes information, originates and forwards advertisements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the VTP transparent mode? (three answers)

A

creates/modifies/deletes VLANs, forward advertisements and stores VLAN information in NVRAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the FF01::/16 address used for?

A

node-local

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the FF02::/16 address used for?

A

link-local

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the FF05::/16 address used for?

A

unique-local

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the FF08::/16 address used for?

A

organization-local

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the FF0E::/16 address used for?

A

global

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What API type uses XLM exclusively?

A

SOAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What HTTP verb does the CRUD operation CREATE correspond to? (two answers)

A

PUT/POST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What HTTP verb does the CRUD operation READ correspond to?

A

GET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What HTTP verb does the CRUD operation UPDATE correspond to? (three answers)

A

PUT/POST/PATCH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What HTTP verb does the CRUD operation DELTETE correspond to?

A

DELETE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the command “switchport port-security” do?

A

Prevents the port from hosting a hub or switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does Cisco DMVPN do?

A

Enables you to create a single mGRE tunnels interface in the main office with a single IPsec profile to manage all spoke routers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What encryption method does WPA use?

A

TKIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What encryption method does WPA2 and WPA3 Personal use?

A

CCMP (AES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What encryption method does WPA3 Enterprise use?

A

GCMP-256 encryption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do you mitigate DDoS attacks? (six answers)

A
  • ACLs
  • Rate Limiting
  • Traffic-flow Reporting
  • Using a Firewall
  • Moving critical systems to another location or more secure LAN
  • IDS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does C mean in the routing table?

A

Connected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does L mean in the routing table?

A

Local

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does S mean in the routing table?

A

Static Route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does D mean in the routing table?

A

EIGRP Route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does D EX mean in the routing table?

A

EIGRP External Route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does O mean in the routing table?

A

OSPF Intra Area Route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does O IA mean in the routing table?

A

Inter Area Route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does O E1 mean in the routing table?

A

External Type 1 Route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does OE2 mean in the routing table?

A

External Type 2 Route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does R mean in the routing table?

A

RIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does B mean in the routing table?

A

BGP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does * mean in the routing table?

A

Candidate for default route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What describes the split horizon?

A

A router will not send route information back out the same interface over which it was learned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What of the following statements are true when discussing link-state? (this one is a ton of words)

A

Packets are routed based upon the shortest path calculated by an algorithm with link-state protocols. They require a hierarchal IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality. The use hello packets and LSAs from other routers to build and maintain the topological database. They place a high demand on the router resources running the algorithm.

64
Q

How many address filed are in an 802.11 data frame?

65
Q

What are the four address filed in the 802.11 data frame for? (four answers)

A

Receiver address, transmitter address, destination address, and source address

66
Q

When is the fourth address used in the 802.11 data frame?

A

It is only present for frames passing between devices in the DS, such as from one access point to another.

67
Q

How many address fields can be expected in an 802.11 data frame that is sent from a wireless station and destined to a host on the wired network.

68
Q

What does “flip the 7th bit” mean?

A

In EUI-64 addresses, the bit can be 0 for assigned EUI-64 address, or 1 for self-administered

69
Q

What does the FC field in the 802.11 MAC frame mean? What is it used for?

A

It stands for frame control. It identifies a lot of information about the frame, but mostly if the frame is control, data, or management.

70
Q

What does the customer not have control over in an IaSS server model?

A

The customer does not have control over the physical infrastructure in the cloud.

71
Q

What is the common multicast address for all hosts?

A

224.0.0.1 or FF02::1

72
Q

What is the common multicast address for all routers?

A

224.0.0.2 or FF02::2

73
Q

What is the common multicast address for all OSPF routers?

A

224.0.0.5 or FF02::5

74
Q

What is the common multicast address for all OSPF DRs?

A

224.0.0.6 or FF02::6

75
Q

What is the common multicast address for all RIP routers (except RIPv1)?

A

224.0.0.9 or FF02::9

76
Q

What is the common multicast address for all EIGRP routers?

A

224.0.0.10 or FF02::A

77
Q

What is a giant?

A

An ethernet frame that exceeds 1,518 bytes and has a bad FCS value.

78
Q

What is a baby giant?

A

An ethernet frame that is up to 1,600 bytes in lenght.

79
Q

When are baby giants likely to occur?

A

When using Q-in-Q encapsulation, MPLS, or any other features that adds top the size of an Ethernet frame.

80
Q

What is a jumbo frame?

A

A frame that is up to 9,216 bytes in length.

81
Q

What is an autonomous AP?

A

An AP that connects a wireless client to a wired network without requiring a separate wireless controller.

82
Q

In a Split-MAC deployment, what functions are performed by a WLC?

A

Authentication and resource reservation

83
Q

How are tasks distributed between an AP and WLC in a Split-MAC deployment?

A

The WLC handles non-time-sensitive tasks, such as security management, lightweight AP configuration management, and client load balancing, along with client association requests, data encapsulation, client authentication, key exchange, security policy enforcement and RF management.

84
Q

What makes a root bridge?

A

The switch with the lowest priority, the the lowest MAC address

85
Q

What is root guard?

A

Preventing a new switch from being elected root switch

86
Q

What deployment is needed for Cisco Meraki to automatically configure an AP?

A

cloud-based AP deployment

87
Q

What is different between traditional ACLs and FlexConnect ACLs?

A

FlexConnect ACLs are applied to Lightweight APs

88
Q

Can FlexConnect ACLs be applied on the native VLAN?

89
Q

What type of 802.11 frame is a Power Save Poll?

A

A control frame

90
Q

Will auto and auto make an Etherchannel?

91
Q

Will passive and passive make an Etherchannel?

92
Q

Will on and on make an Etherchannel?

93
Q

What does active/desirable do?

A

Will attempt to negotiate

94
Q

What does passive/auto do?

A

Will not negotiate

95
Q

How do you identify if STP will block a port?

A

To identify which port will be blocked, you must first identify which switch will become the root bridge. then identify root ports (shortest path to root bridge), identify the designated ports, then all other ports will be in a blocking state.

96
Q

How do you identify the root ports?

A

The root port is the link connected to the root bridge or the shortest path to the root bridge.

97
Q

How do you identify designated ports?

A

The designated port is a port that does not face the root but forwards traffic form another segment at the lowest possible cost.

98
Q

What is the default update frequency for CDP?

A

60 seconds

99
Q

What is the default hold timer for CDP?

A

180 seconds

100
Q

What is the default update frequency for LLDP?

A

30 seconds

101
Q

What is the default hold timer for LLDP?

A

120 seconds

102
Q

Which neighbor discovery protocol sends VTP information?

103
Q

What is the AP-manager interface on a WLC?

A

It controls all Layer 3 communication between the WLC and lightweight access point. It is a dedicated management interface for control and management traffic.

104
Q

What is the virtual interface?

A

Used to manage the WLC itself.

105
Q

What is the service port interface on a WLC?

A

Used for out-of-band management and troubleshooting purposes, is used for inaccessible or misconfigured devices, or for initial config, troubleshooting or firmware updates.

106
Q

What is MST?

A

It allows for a single spanning tree instance to be used for multiple VLANs.

107
Q

What does IPsec in tunnel mode encrypt?

A

It encrypts the entire packet

108
Q

When looking at a NAT translation, where would you find the destination IP address for an outside computer?

A

Outside local

109
Q

What network functions are most likely moved to a centralized controller?

A

Routing, switching, traffic engineering, security, QoS, network monitoring and analytics, virtual network management

110
Q

What components used to calculate the EIGRP composite metric?

A

Delay and bandwidth

111
Q

If there are multiple routes to the same network, how are they picked?

A

The most specific route, then the lowest AD

112
Q

What are the three port security violation modes? (three answers)

A
  • Shutdown, which shuts down the port on violation
  • Restrict, which logs, drops the traffic from the violating device, and shows a message
  • Protect, which logs the violation and drops the devices packets but there are no visible messages
113
Q

Which configuration management tool is written in Ruby?

A

Chef and Puppet

114
Q

What MAC address represents an IP multicast address

A

01-00-5E-0F-0F-0F

115
Q

What MAC address represents STP?

A

01-80-C2-00-00-00

116
Q

What MAC address represens LLDP?

A

01-80-C2-00-00-0E

117
Q

What MAC address represents CDP?

A

01-00-0c-cc-cc-cc

118
Q

Where are REST APIs used?

A

They are typically used to communicate with an SDN application plane?

119
Q

What APIs are used for northbound communication?

A

OSGi and REST

120
Q

What APIs are used for southbound communication?

A

OnePK, OpFlex, OpenFlow, NETCONF

121
Q

What encryption method is used for WEP?

122
Q

Why would you use the switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q command on a switch?

A

To specify the encapsulation method for trunk links.

123
Q

What is the command aaa new-model used for?

A

Used prior to enabling AAA accounting on a router

124
Q

What command should you use to move the trust boundary to an IP phone?

A

mls qos trust cos

125
Q

What would cause a RSTP topology change notification?

A

A non-edge port that transitions to the forwarding state

126
Q

What IP protocol number is GRE?

127
Q

What IP protocol number is ICMP?

128
Q

What IP protocol number is TCP?

129
Q

What IP protocol number is ESP?

130
Q

What IP protocol number is AH?

131
Q

What IP protocol number is ICMP for IPv6?

132
Q

What IP protocol number is EIGRP?

133
Q

What IP protocol number is OSPF?

134
Q

What IP protocol number is VRRP?

135
Q

What encryption protocol is symmetric?

A

DH and ECDH; AES, RC4, 3DES

136
Q

What DTP mode will result in misconfigs?

A

access and trunk

137
Q

What DTP mode will access trunk?

A

none, except for access and trunk, they will result in access ports

138
Q

What happens if a port is dynamic auto and another port is dynamic auto?

A

They cause an access link

139
Q

What metric does RIP use?

140
Q

What metric does IS-IS use?

141
Q

What of the following statements are true when discussing distance vector protocols?

A

Send the entire routing table to a neighbor

142
Q

What does password 7 do?

A

Configures and encrypted VTY login password

143
Q

What does enable secret 5 do?

A

Configures a previously encrypted password for gaining access to enable mode

144
Q

What has the AD of 0?

A

Connected interfaces, static routes to a connected interface

145
Q

What has the AD of 1?

A

Static route directed toward an IP address

146
Q

What has the AD of 5?

A

EIGRP summary route

147
Q

What has the AD of 20?

A

External BGP route

148
Q

What has the AD of 90?

A

Internal EIGRP route

149
Q

What has the AD of 100?

A

IGRP route

150
Q

What has the AD of 110?

A

OSPF route

151
Q

What has the AD of 115?

A

IS-IS route

152
Q

What has the AD of 120

153
Q

What has the AD of 140?

154
Q

What has the AD of 160?

A

On Demand Routing (ODR)

155
Q

What has the AD of 170?

A

External EIGRP route

156
Q

What has the AD of 200?

A

Internal BGP route

157
Q

What has the AD of 255?

A

Unknown origin routes

Networking (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions