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Networking > 3 Qtr Final > Flashcards

3 Qtr Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the OSPF Loading state?

A

LSRs and LSUs are used to gain more information about route information, then are processed using the SPF formula.

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2
Q

What is the OSPF Full state?

A

The link-state database is fully synchronized.

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3
Q

In ExStart, who sends the DBD packets first?

A

The router with the higher router ID.

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4
Q

What is the initialism to remember the OSPF Adjacency States?

A

FLEETID

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5
Q

What is the multicast address used by the DR?

A

224.0.0.5 (this is the address used to send packets to all OSPF participating routers)

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6
Q

What is the multicast address used by DROTHER routers?

A

224.0.0.6 (this is the address the routers will use to send packets to the DR and BDR)

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7
Q

What is the default priority for OSPF?

A

1

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8
Q

When is it normal for a router to be stuck in a 2-WAY/DROTHER state? (two answers)

A

When a non-DR or BDR router has a neighbor relationship with another non-DR or BDR router or when it is a point-to-point network.

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9
Q

What is the range for the interface priority? Which one is highest?

A

0-255; 255 is the highest, 0 is permanently a DROTHER

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10
Q

What is the criteria for the election process?

A
  1. Interface Priority
  2. Router ID
  3. Highest Loopback Address
  4. Highest Active Interface Address
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11
Q

What is the formula to calculate cost?

A

cost = reference bandwidth / interface bandwidth

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12
Q

What is the default reference bandwidth? (2 answers)

A

100,000,000 bps (100mbps)

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13
Q

What is the cost for FastEthernet, Gigabit, 10 Gig? (considering the default reference values)

A

1
.1
.01
(anything less than 1 is rounded)

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14
Q

How can you change the cost? (2 answers)

A

auto-cost reference-bandwidth (on the router)
ip ospf cost (on the interface)

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15
Q

What is the default hello and dead timer for multicast networks?

A

30 and 120 (nonbroadcast, multipoint broadcast, multipoint nonbroadcast)

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16
Q

What is the default hello and dead timers for Point-to-Point networks?

A

10 and 40 (broadcast and point-to-point)

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17
Q

How would you verify the hello and dead timers?

A

show ip ospf interface

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18
Q

What is adware?

A

Displays unsolicited advertising.

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19
Q

What is ransomeware?

A

Denies access to files, requiring payment

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20
Q

What is a rootkit?

A

Used to gain administrative access to a computer.

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21
Q

What is spyware?

A

Used to gather user information and send it to threat actors

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22
Q

What is a worm?

A

Self-replicating that propagates automatically.

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23
Q

Where should you ideally place a standard ACL?

A

Near the destination

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24
Q

Where should you ideally place an extended ACL?

A

Near their source

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25
Q

What is a clientless VPN?

A

Uses a web browser SSL connection.

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25
Q

How is a site-to-site VPN created?

A

It is created with VPN terminating devices, such as a router or ASA.

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26
Q

How is a remote access VPN create?

A

It is created with VPN terminating devices, such as a router or ASA

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27
Q

Does GRE include encryption?

A

No

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28
Q

What is a client-based VPN?

A

Uses software that is installed on the remote user’s end device.

29
Q

What is IPsec VTI?

A

The IPsec Virtual Tunnel Interface simplifies the configuration process required to support multiple sites and remote access.

30
Q

What do Site-to-Site VPNs do?

A

They connect networks across another untrusted network.

31
Q

What is DMVPN and what does it stand for?

A

Dynamic Multipoint VPN is a solution to build multiple VPNS in an easy, dynamic, and scalable manner.

32
Q

What does the Layer 3 MPLS VPN do?

A

It establishes peering between the customers routers and the providers routers. The customers routes are received by the providers router and redistributed through the MPLS network to the customers remote location.

33
Q

What does the Layer 2 MPLS VPN do?

A

The providers deploys a Virtual Private LAN service to emulate an ethernet multiaccess LAN segment over the MPLS network.

34
Q

What does the Access tier do?

A

It represents the networks edge, and provides network access to the user.

35
Q

What does the Distribution tier do?

A

Aggregating L2 broadcast domains, aggregating L3 boundaries, aggregating wiring closets, intelligent switching, redundancy, differentiated service.

35
Q

What does the Core tier do?

A

It is the networks backbone, provides fault isolation, and high-speed backbone connectivity

36
Q

What does the northbound API connect?

A

It connects the Control Plane to the Application Layer

37
Q

What does the southbound API connect?

A

It connects the Control Plane to the Data Plane

38
Q

What is the ANP and what does it stand for?

A

The Application Network Profile is a collection of end-point groups, their connections and the polices the define those connection.

39
Q

What is Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

A

A network architecture that virtualizes the network, offering a new approach to network administration and management that seeks to simplify and streamline the administration process.

40
Q

What is the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure (ACI)

A

A purpose-built hardware solution for integrating cloud computing and data center management

41
Q

What are some characteristic of the control plane?

A

Information sent to this plane is processed by the CPU, this plane makes forwarding decisions, This plane contains route protocol neighbor and topology tables.

42
Q

What are some characteristics of the data plane?

A

This plane is used to forward traffic flows Information in this plane is typically processed by a special processer, This plane is typically made up of a switch fabric connecting the various ports on a device.

43
Q

True or False? A network administrator access the control plane to configure a device?

A

False, they access the management plane.

44
Q

This network architecture offers a new approach to network administration and management that seeks to simplify and streamline the administration process.

A

SDN

45
Q

This is a logical entity that enables network administrators to manage and dictated how the data plane of switches and routers should handle network traffic.

A

SDN controller

46
Q

This is a standardized request from the SDN controller to define the behavior of the data plane.

A

Southbound API

47
Q

What is the Cisco ACI and what does it stand for?

A

The Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure is a software-defined networking solution offered by Cisco.

48
Q

What is the APIC and what does it stand for?

A

The Application Policy Infrastructure controller is the centralized management and automation controller for the CI fabric. It provides a single point of control for defined policies, managing network device and monitoring the network environment.

49
Q

What is the ACI fabric?

A

It consists of Nexus switches that form the network infrastructure.

50
Q

What is the ANP and what does it mean?

A

The Application Network Profiles are used to define the requirements of specific applications, including their connectivity, security, and performance characteristics. These profiles encapsulate application requirement into policies that can applied consistently across the network.

51
Q

What are EPGs and what does it mean?

A

Endpoint Groups are logical groups of endpoints that share common network and security policies. EPGs simplify policy management by allow administrators to apply policies to groups of endpoints rather than individual devices.

52
Q

What is Policy Enforcement?

A

ACI enforces polices at the network infrastructure level, using the capabilities of the ACI fabric switches to implement access controls, QoS and other network policies dynamically.

53
Q

What is a Device-based SDN?

A

The devices are programmable by application running on the device itself or on a server in the network.

54
Q

What is a Controller-based SDN?

A

Uses a centralized controller that has knowledge of all devices in the network. The applications can interface with controller responsible for managing devices and manipulating traffic flows throughout the network.

55
Q

What is a Policy-based SDN?

A

This type of SDN is similar to controller-based SDN where a centralized controller has a view of all devices n the network. It uses built-in applications that automate advanced configuration tasks via a guided workflow and GUI.

56
Q

What are the characteristics of Voice traffic?

A

It is smooth, benign, drop sensitive, delay sensitive, and UDP priority.

57
Q

What are the one-way requirements for Voice taffic?

A

Needs a latency of less than or equal to 150ms, Jitter less than or equal to 30 ms, and less than or equal to 1% bandwidth (30-128 Kbps)

58
Q

What are the characteristic of Video traffic?

A

It is bursty, greedy, drop sensitive, delay sensitive, and UDP priority.

59
Q

What are the one-way requirements for Video traffic?

A

Latency less than or qual to 200-400 ms, jitter less than or equal to 30-50 ms, loss less than or equal to 0.1-1%, bandwidth 384 Kbps - more than 20 Mbps

60
Q

Which type of traffic tends to consume a large portion of network traffic?

A

Data

61
Q

What type of traffic requires at least 384 Kbits of bandwidth?

A

Voice

62
Q

Describe the function of FIFO and what does it mean?

A

First-In, First-Out queues traffic to go out in the same order it came in.

63
Q

Describe WFQ and what does it mean?

A

Weighted Fair Queuing provides fair bandwidth allocation to all network traffic, it does not allow classification options to be configured. It sorts traffic by using packet header addressing.

64
Q

Describe CBWFQ and what does it mean?

A

Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing extends WFQ to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. You define traffic classes based on match criteria including protocol, access control lists, and input interfaces.

65
Q

Describe LLQ and what does it mean?

A

Low Latency Queuing brings strict priority queuing. This allows delay-sensitive packets to be sent before packets in other queues. Cisco recommends that only voice traffic be directed to the priority queue.

66
Q

What is IntServe and what does it mean?

A

Integrated Services delivers end-to-end QoS that real-time applications require. It explicitly manages network resources to provide QoS to individual flows or streams.

67
Q

What is DiffServe and what does it mean?

A

Differentiated Services specifies a simple and scalable mechanism for classifying and managing network traffic. It can provide low-latency guaranteed service to critical network traffic while providing simple best-effort traffic guarantees to non-critical services.

68
Q

What is the QoS sequence?

A

Classifying, Marking, Policing and Selective Dropping, Queuing, and Scheduling and Shaping

Networking (8 decks)

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