Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology Unit 3 > Book Notes Regulating Gene Expression > Flashcards

Book Notes Regulating Gene Expression Flashcards

1
Q

What is the major control point for gene expression?

A

Promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sequence of DNA adjacent to the coding region of a gene where proteins bind and control the rate of transcription

A

Promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Study of heritable changes in gene expression that do not involve changes in DNA sequence

A

Epigenetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Prokaryotic cell can (blank) supply of unneeded protein

A

Shut off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5 steps for gene expression regulation in prokaryotes in relation to shutting off the supply of an unneeded protein

A

1) downregulate the transcription of mRNA doe that protein
2) hydrolyze the mRNA after it is made, thereby preventing translation
3) prevent translation of mRNA at ribosome
4) hydrolyze protein after it is made
5) inhibit function of protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most important step in the process of regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes?

A

Downregulate the transcription of mRNA for the unneeded protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bind to promoter region and determine which genes are activated

A

Repressor proteins and activator proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Binding of a repressor protein prevents transcription

A

Negative regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Activator protein binds DNA to stimulate transcription

A

Positive regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Regulating gene transcription (blank)

A

Conserves energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 proteins that are involved in the initial uptake and metabolism of lactose by E. coli?

A
  • B-Galactoside permease
  • B-Galactosidase
  • B-Galactoside-transacetylase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Carrier protein in the bacterial plasma membrane that moves sugar into cell

A

B-Galactoside permease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Enzyme that hydrolyses lactose to glucose and galactose

A

B-Galactosidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Transfers acetyl groups from acetyl CoA to certain B-galactosides

A

B-galactoside transacetylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Addition of lactose increase or decreases?

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MRNA levels dramatically (blank) during lag period after lactose added to medium

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Stimulate synthesis of a protein

A

Inducers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Proteins produced

A

Inducible proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Proteins made all the time at constant rate

A

Constitutive proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Encode 3 enzymes for processing lactose in E. coli and specify the amino acid sequences of protein molecules

A

Structural genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cluster of genes with single promoter

A

Operan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Encodes 3 lactose- metabolizing enzymes in E. coli

A

Lac operon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Short stretch of DNA that lies between promoter and structural genes

A

Operator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What binds with regulatory proteins?

A

Operator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Operator-repressor interactions control transcription in the (blank)

A

Lac and trp operons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When repressor is bound, transcription of (blank) blocked

A

Operon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Repressor protein has 2 binding sites -

A

operator/inducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Prevents binding of RNA poly to promoter and operon not transcribed

A

Absense of inducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Change in 3D structure prevents repressor from binding to operator and RNA polymerase binds

A

Presence of inducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Binds to the repressor, the repressor changes shape and binds to the operator, inhibiting transcription

A

Co-repressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Inducible systems control (blank)

A

Catabolic pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Repressible systems control (blank)

A

Anabolic pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Catabolic pathways

A

Turned on only when substrate available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Anabolic pathways

A

Turned on until excessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Protein synthesis can be controlled by (blank)

A

Increasing promoter efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Positive control to increase transcription through presence of (blank)

A

Activator protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Efficient transcription of the lac operon requires (blank)

A

Binding of an activator protein to its promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cyclic cAMP binds to activator protein called cAMP receptor protein producing what

A

A conformational change in CRP that allows it to bind to lac promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Efficiency reduced with abundant glucose because cAMP levels (blank) and (blank occurs)

A

Decrease

CRP does not bind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

System of gene regulation in which the presence of the preferred energy source represses other catabolic pathways

A

Catabolite repression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Promoters share blank that allow them to be recognized by the RNA polymerase and other proteins

A

Consensus sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Short stretch of DNA that appears, with little variation, in many different genes

A

Consensus sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

All the genes that are normally expressed in actively growing cells

A

Housekeeping genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Proteins in prokaryotic cells that bind to RNA poly and direct it to specific classes of promoters

A

Sigma factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

(Blank) is active most of the time and binds to consensus sequences of housekeeping genes

A

Sigma-70 factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes are similar in regulation of gene transcription in that:

A

Both use DNA protein interactions and negative/positive control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Promoter contains

A

TATA box and regulatory sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Regulatory proteins that help control transcription

A

Transcription factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Help with initiating transcription by assembling on chromosome

A

General transcription factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the general transcription factors?

A

TFIID- TFIIB- TFIIF- TFIIE- TFIIH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Specific transcription factors play and important role in (blank)

A

Cell differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Binds to TATA box and changes both its own shape and DNA creating a new surface that attracts the binding of other GtF to form an initiation complex

A

TFIID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Binds both DNA polymerase and TFIID and helps identify the transcription initiation site

A

TFIIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Prevents nonspecific binding of the complex to DNA and helps recruit RNA polymerase to the complex

A

TFIIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Similar to sigma factor

A

TFIIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Binds to the promoter and stabilizes the denaturation of DNA

A

TFIIE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Opens up DNA for transcription

A

TFIIH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Steps of initiation of transcription in eukaryotes

A

1) TFIID binds to promoter at TATA
2) another transcription factor joins
3) RNA polymerase II binds after several tfs
4) more tfs
5) RNA polymerase ready to transcribe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Bind transcription factors that either activate transcription or increase the rate

A

Enhancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Bind factors that repress transcription

A

Silencers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When transcription factors bind to enhancers or silencers, they interact with RNA polymerase complex, causing the DNA to

A

Bend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Consist of different combinations of structural elements (protein conformations)

A

Structural motifs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

An intact DNA double helix can be recognized by a protein motif whose structure:

A
  • fits into major/minor groove
  • has amino acid that can project into the interior of double helix
  • has amino acids that can form hydrogen bonds with the interior bases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Repressors can inhibit transcription by

A
  • prevention of binding of transcriptional activators to DNA
  • interaction with other DNA-binding proteins to decrease rate of transcription
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The expression of transcription factors underlies (blank)

A

Cell differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

All differentiation cells contain (blank) and their specific characteristics arise from (blank)

A

Entire genome

Differential gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Providing new, functional cells to patients who have disease that involve the degeneration of certain cell types

A

Cellular therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Manipulated expression of transcription factors in cells to change them into neurons

A

Fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Expressin of genes can be coordinated if they share (blank) that bind the same (blank)

A

Regulatory sequences

Transcription factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

To coordinate expression, each gene has a specific regulatory sequence near its promoter called the (blank)

A

Stress response element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Transcription factor binds to stress response element and stimulates

A

MRNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Actively dividing, unspecialized cells that have the potential to produce different cell types depending on the signals they receive from the body

A

Stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Inject stem cells into damaged tissues, where they will (blank)

A

differentiate and form new, healthy tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

process by which a multicellular organism, beginning with a single cell, goes through a series of changes, taking on the successive forms that characterize its life cycle

A

Development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

development involves distinct but (blank) processes

A

overlapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

sets the developmental fate of the cell

A

determination

77
Q

different types of cells arise, leading to cells with specific structures and functions

A

differentiation

78
Q

organization and spatial distribution of differentiated cells into the multicellular body and its organs

A

morphogenesis

79
Q

increase in size of the body and its organs by cell division and cell enlargement

80
Q

involves differential gene expression and the interplay of signals between cells

A

morphogenesis

81
Q

4 things involved in morphogenesis

A
  • cell division
  • cell expansion
  • cell movements
  • apoptosis
82
Q

growth

A

cell enlargement

83
Q

cell fates become progressively more (blank) during development

A

restricted

84
Q

each undifferentiated cell will become part of a particular type of tissue

85
Q

amphibians- donor tissue = early embryo

A

adopts fate from surroundings/extracellular environ

86
Q

amphibians- donor tissue = older embryo

A

continues on original path

87
Q

determination is a (blank), the final realization of that is (blank)

A

commitment/ differentiation

88
Q

cell’s potential to differentiate into other cell types

89
Q

any cell type including embryonic

A

totipotent

90
Q

most cell types not embryonic

A

pluripotent

91
Q

several different, related cell types

A

multipotent

92
Q

produce only own cell type

93
Q

What 2 things determine cell fate?

A
  • cytoplasmic segregation

- induction

94
Q

cytoplasmic segregation

A

unequal cytokinesis

95
Q

induction

A

cell to cell communication

96
Q

a factor within an egg, zygote, or precurser cell may be unequally distributed in the cytoplasm. After cell division, the factor ends up in some daughter cells or regions of cells, but not others

A

cytoplasmic segregation

97
Q

a factor is actively produced and secreted by certain cells to induce other cells to become determined

98
Q

Cytoplasmic segregation can determine (blank) and (blank)

A

polarity and cell fate

99
Q

distinct “top” and “bottom” ends of an organism/structure

100
Q

sea urchin polarity example- horizontal cut

A

bottom small sea urchin and top none

101
Q

sea urchin polarity example- vertical cut

A

2 small sea urchins from both halves

102
Q

Distributed unequally in the egg cytoplasm and include specific proteins, small regulatory RNAs, and mRNAs, and they play roles in directing the embryonic development of many organisms

A

cytoplasmic determinants

103
Q

microtubules and microfilaments have (blank) and cytoskeleton can bind (blank)

A

polarity/ motor proteins

104
Q

inducers passing from one cell to another can determine (blank)

A

cell fates

105
Q

signaling events by which cells in a developing organism communicate and influence one another’s developmental fate

106
Q

example of inducer

A

development of lens in the vertebrate eye

107
Q

How does an inducer work in the vertebrate eye?

A

surface tissue begins to develop into a lens when it receives a signal from the optic vesicle

108
Q

inducers trigger sequences of (blank) in the responding cells

A

gene expression

109
Q

induction leads to

A

the activation or inactivation of specific sets of genes through signal transduction cascades

110
Q

simplify- differential gene expression

A

induction leads to the activation or inactivation of specific sets of genes through signal transduction cascades

111
Q

What is the role of gene expression in development?

A

each cell expresses only selected genes

112
Q

Cell fate determination involves signal transduction pathways that lead to (blank)

A

differentiatial gene expression

113
Q

How do signal transduction pathways lead to differential gene expression?

A

inducer molecule binds to its specific receptor on the surface of a cell, stp leads to activation

114
Q

lower concentraton of inducer =

A

no gene expression activated

115
Q

Differential gene transcription is a (blank) of cell differentiation

116
Q

Example of differential gene transcription involving blood cells

A

B-globin expressed in red blood cells and present, not expressed in neurons shown through nucleic acid hybridization- probe for B-globin gene can be applied to DNA from brain cells and immature red blood cells, mRNA only finds in red blood cells

117
Q

Example of differential gene transcription involving muscle precursor cells

A
  • cells stop dividing and cell signaling activates the gene for a transcription factor called MyoD
  • gene for p21 activated (inhibits CDKs) and cell cycle stops
118
Q

MyoD role as transcription factor in relation to muscle tissue

A

MyoD activated in stem cells that repair muscle tissue as it gets damaged

119
Q

MyoD stands for

A

myoblast determining gene

120
Q

the process that results in the spatial organization of a tissue or organism

A

pattern formation

121
Q

What is pattern formation linked to?

A

morphogenesis

-creation of body form involving apoptosis

122
Q

Multiple proteins interact to determine (blank)

A

developmental programmed cell death

123
Q

Example of apoptosis used for development

A

human hands and feet

124
Q

Namatode worm programmed cell death example

A
  • sequential activation of 2 proteins called CED-4 and CED-3 appear to control programmed cell death
  • CED-9 binds CED-4 and prevents II from activating CED-3; if cell receives signal for apoptosis, CED-9 releases CED-4 which activates CED-3 protease
125
Q

Human development example of proteins interacting to determine developmental programmed cell death

A

proteaseases called caspases and Bcl2 and Apafl binding

126
Q

undifferentiated, rapidly dividing cells in plants

127
Q

Encode proteins that act in combination to produce specific whorl features

A

organ identity genes

128
Q

encode transcription factors that are active as dimers

A

organ identity genes

129
Q

proteins with 2 polypeptide subunits

130
Q

replacement of one organ for another

A

homeotic mutation

131
Q

transcription of the floral organ identity genes controlled by (blank)

A

LEAFY protein

132
Q

Morphogen gradients provide (blank)

A

positional information

133
Q

diffuses from one cell or group of cells to surrounding cells, setting up a concentration gradient

134
Q

2 requirements of morphogen

A
  • signal must directly affect target cells

- different concentrations of signal must cause different effects

135
Q

Vertebrate limb positioning example

A
  • group of cells at posterior base of limb bud at cell wall = 2PA
  • cells of 2PA secrete a protein morphogen called sonic hedgehog (SHH)
  • SHH forms a gradient that determines the posterior/anterior axis
136
Q

High SHH means

A

little finger

137
Q

Low SHH means

138
Q

A cascade of transcription factors establishes (blank) in the fruit fly

A

body segmentation

139
Q

When are the fates determined in fruit flies?

A

by time larva appears

140
Q

the first 12 cycles of nuclear division are not accompanied by cytokinesis and therefore a

A

multinucleate embryo forms

141
Q

events leading to cell fate determination

A
  • developmental mutations identified
  • mutant compared with wild time flies
  • experiments confirming roles
142
Q

Cascade of gene expression occurs with what 3 types of genes?

A
  • maternal effect genes
  • segmentation genes
  • hox genes
143
Q

Maternal effect genes

A

set up the major axes of egg

144
Q

Segmentation genes

A

determine the boundaries and polarity of each segment

145
Q

Hox genes

A

determine which organ will be made at a given location

146
Q

set up the major axes

A

maternal effect genes

147
Q

determine the boundaries and polarity of each segment

A

segmentation genes

148
Q

determine which organ will be made at a given location

149
Q

unevenly distirbuted cytoplasmic determinants = products of

A

specific maternal effect genes

150
Q

2 genes called (blank) and (blank) determine anterior-posterior axis

A

Bicoid and Nanos

151
Q

actions of Bicoid and Nanos establish a gradient of another protein called

152
Q

The # and polarity of the Drosophilia larval segments are determined by the (blank)

A

segmentation genes

153
Q

3 types of segmentation genes

A
  • gap
  • pair rule
  • segment polarity
154
Q

organize broad areas along the anterior-posterior axis

155
Q

divide the embryo into units of 2 segments each

A

pair rule genes

156
Q

determine the boundaries of anterior-posterior organization of the individual segments

A

segment polarity genes

157
Q

mutations in gap genes =

A

gaps are mutations

158
Q

mutations in pair rule genes =

A

embryos miss every other

159
Q

mutations in segment polarity genes =

A

segments in which posterior structures are replaced by reversed anterior structures

160
Q

encode a family of transcription factors that are expressed in different combinations along the length of the embryo, and help determine cell fate within each segment

161
Q

where are Hox genes located?

A

2 clusters on chromosome 3

162
Q

a mutation in a Hox gene can result in one organ being replaced by another

A

homeotic genes

163
Q

common 180 base pair sequence

164
Q

60 amino acid sequence

A

homeodomain

165
Q

recognizes and binds to a specific DNA sequence in the promoters of its target genes

A

homeodomain

166
Q

Determined cells differentiate into (blank)

A

specialized cells

167
Q

Plant cells can be totipotent shown by

A

carrot cloning

168
Q

Nuclear transfer allows

A

cloning of animals

169
Q

humans totipotency permits (blank) and (blank)

A

genetic screening and certain assisted reproductive technologies

170
Q

frog experiment leads to what 2 important conclusions

A
  • genomic equivalence- no info lost from nuclei of cells

- cytoplasmic environ around cell nucleus can modify its fate

171
Q

Wilmut did what

A

cloned 1st mammal by somatic cell nuclear transfer

172
Q

Dolly showed that

A

fully differentiated cell from a mature organism can revert to a totipotent state, and that this cell can be used to create a new animal

173
Q

reasons to clone animals

A
  • expansion of the #s of valuable animals
  • preservation of endangered species
  • preservation of pets
174
Q

multipotent stem cells differentiate in response to (blank)

A

environmental signals

175
Q

rapidly dividing, undifferentiated cells that can differentiate into diverse cell tyeps

A

stem cells

176
Q

in plants, stem cells are in (blank)

177
Q

2 types of multipotent stem cells

A

Hematopoietic (red and white blood)

Mesenchymal (produce bone and connective tissues)

178
Q

hematopoietic stem cells proliferate in the bone marrow in response to (blank)

A

growth factors

179
Q

hematoipoietic stem cell transplantation

A

stem cells harvested and injected back into patient after cancer treatment

180
Q

hollow sphere of cells

A

blastocyst

181
Q

differentiate into most cell types but cannot give rise to complete organisms

A

pluripotent

182
Q

can be removed from the blastocyst and grown in laboratory culture almost indefinitely

A

embryonic stem cells (ESC)

183
Q

What does ESC stand for?

A

embryonic stem cells

184
Q

mouse experiments done with ESC show

A

cells’ developmental potential and the roles of environmental signals

185
Q

problems with embryos grown in lab and used to tissue damage

A
  • objection to destruction of human embryos

- stem cells/tissues provoke immune response

186
Q

Where did they make pluripotent stem cells from skin cells?

187
Q

Explain how to make pluripotent stem cells from skin cells

A
  • isolated genes and inserted into skin cells

- altered skin cells

188
Q

induced pluripotent stem cells (IPS cells) means

A

immune response avoided

Biology Unit 3 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions