Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Praxis II Elementary Education 5001 > book > Flashcards

book Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Praxis (5004) - Elem. Ed: Social Studies flashcards Praxis (5005) - Elem. Ed: Science flashcards Praxis (5236) - Biology flashcards Praxis (5081) - Social Studies (Content Knowledge) flashcards Praxis (5905) - Elem. Ed: Three Subject Bundle Science flashcards Praxis (5904) - Elem. Ed: Three Subject Bundle - Social Studies flashcards Praxis (7005) - Elem. Ed: Science flashcards Praxis (7004) - Elem. Ed: Social Studies flashcards
1
Q

how many phonemes are in the english language?

A

44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

onset

A

the beginning consonant or consonant blend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

rime

A

includes the syllable’s vowel and it’s remaining consonants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

phonics

A

the study of the relationship between the spoken sounds in words and the printed letters that correspond to those sounds

aka letter sound correspondence ^

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

a teacher says “hat” and instructs the students to produce the sounds that they hear in the word. Which strategy is the teacher using to build phoneme awareness?

a. phoneme blending
b. phoneme deletion
c. phoneme segmentation
d. phoneme substitution

A

c. phoneme segmentation

the strategy of phoneme segmentation requires students to separate the phonemes in a word

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

root

A

typically derived from latin or greek and establish the bases of new words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

affix

A

added to words or roots to change their meanings

consist of prefixes, added to the beginning of a word or root, and suffixes, added to the end of the word or root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

use roots and affixes to determine the meaning of the underlined word: monograph most nearly means

a. a mathematical concept
b. a written study of a single subject
c. an illness caused by a virus
d. a boring piece of art

A

b. a written study of a single subject

the prefix mono means one, and the root word graph means written

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

use roots and affixes to determine the meaning of the underlined word: my sister is a polyglot, and comfortably travels all over the world

a. a person who speaks many languages
b. a person who loves to travel
c. a person who is extremely intelligent
d. a person who is unafraid of new places

A

a. the prefix poly means many and the suffix -glot means in a language or tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

reading fluency is composed of what three factors?

A

rate, accuracy, and prosody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

reading rate

A

the speed and fluidity with which a student can read

determined by the number of words read correctly per minute or the length of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

reading accuracy

A

refers to a student’s reading ability to recognize or decode words correctly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

prosody

A

encompasses the range of vocal expressions a reader uses when reading aloud

it includes rhythm, intonation, and stress patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which of the following is an example of prosody?

a. using appropriate vocal clues when reading aloud
b. decoding words correctly when reading aloud
c. reading at an appropriate speed when reading aloud
d. reading smoothly and steadily when reading aloud

A

a. using appropriate vocal clues when reading aloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is an inference based on?

a. facts and specific examples in the text
b. details of the text and the reader’s knowledge of the topic of the text
c. understanding the author’s purpose
d. understanding the author’s tone

A

b. details of the text and the reader’s knowledge of the topic of the text

in order to read between the lines, readers must use their own knowledge as well as draw on the information provided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is one way students could determine the central idea of a text?

a. by summarizing the passage
b. by crossing out all irrelevant detail
c. by highlighting all sentences that mention the main topic
d. by identifying the main points and deciding which one is supported by all of the points and details

A

d. by identifying the main points and deciding which one is supported by all of the points and details

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

text leveling (complexity) is determined by what three factors?

A

quantitative measures

qualitative measures

reader and task considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

quantitative measures

A

include readability scores determined by computer algorithms that evaluate text elements such as word frequency and sentence length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

qualitative measures

A

include analysis of text elements such as structure, language clarity, and knowledge demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

reader and task considerations

A

determined by the professional judgement of educators who match texts to particular students, classes, and/or tasks on their inherent needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which of the following is true of quantitative measures of text complexity?

a. they are task considerations determined by professional judgement
b. they are analytical measurements determined by knowledge demands
c. they are statistical measurements determined by computer algorithms
d. they are leveling measurements determined by text structure

A

c. they are statistical measurements determined by computer algorithms

quantitative measures are objective and based on statistics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which of the following can be classified as persuasive writing?

a. an advertisement for a new product
b. a research paper on the effects of climate on ecosystems
c. a poem about the ocean on a foggy day
d. a short story with a suspenseful plot

A

a. an advertisement for a new product

persuasive writing aims to influence to the reader to agree with what is state and to act accordingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which of the following elements shapes each paragraph in the writing task?

a. the thesis
b. the topic sentence
c. the drafting stage
d. the outline

A

b. the topic sentence

the topic sentence for each paragraph introduces the ideas that the paragraph will discuss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

primary sources

A

original materials that are representative of an even, experience, place, or time period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

secondary sources

A

inform about events, experiences, places, or time period, but the information is provided by someone who was not directly involved and who used primary sources to discuss the material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which of the following is considered a reliable source for research about california?

a. a personal blog about living in california
b. a research paper published by the state of california
c. an advertisement for california real estate
d. a letter to the editor about california roadways

A

b. a research paper published by the state of california

a published study by a government institution is a reliable research source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

choose the correct verb

yesterday, I (laid/lay) on the couch for hours

A

lay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

choose the correct verb

we (sat/set) the ladder upright

A

set

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

choose the correct verb

the egg was (rising/raising) in the water as it boiled

A

rising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

list all of the adjectives used in the following sentence

“Her camera fell into the turbulent water, so her frantic friend quickly grabbed the damp item”

a. turbulent, frantic, damp
b. turbulent, frantic, quickly, damp
c. her, turbulent, her, frantic, damp
d. her, the, turbulent, her, frantic, the, damp

A

d. her, the, turbulent, her, frantic, the, damp
d. turbulent, frantic, and damp are adjectives; her is modifying first camera and then friend; and the is always a limiting adjective- the definite article

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

list all of the pronouns used in the following sentence

“Several of the administrators who had spoken clearly on the budget increase gave both of the opposing committee members a list of their ideas”

a. several, of, their
b. several, who, both
c. several, who, both, their
d. several, both

A

b. several, who, both

several is an indefinite plural pronoun; who is a relative pronoun introducing the adjectival clause who had spoken clearly on the budget increase; both is an indefinite plural pronoun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

prepositional phrase

A

begins with a preposition and ends with an object of the preposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

verb phrase

A

is composed of the main verb along with its helping verbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

noun phrase

A

consists of a noun and its modifiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

appositive phrase

A

a particular type of noun phrase that renames the word or group of words that precedes it

usually follow the noun they describe and are set apart by commas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

verbal phrases

A

begin with a word that would normally act as a verb but is instead filling another role within the sentence

can act as nouns, adjectives, or adverbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

complex sentence

A

has two or more independent clause and one or more dependent clauses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

compound-complex sentence

A

has two or more independent clauses and one or more dependent clauses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the LCM of the numbers 10 and 12?

a. 2
b. 24
c. 60
D. 120

A

c. 60

write out the multiples for each number

10: 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60
20: 12, 24, 36, 48, 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

cardinal directions

A

north, east, south, and west

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

intermediate directions

A

between each point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

middle latitudes

A

from latitudes 23.5 to 55.5 north and south

have a greater variety of climates, determined more by proximity to water than by the exact latitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

high latitudes

A

from latitudes 66.5 north and south of the poles

are home to two climates: tundra and taiga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

low latitudes

A

from the equator to latitudes 23.5 north and south, have three distinct climates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

tundra

A

features extremely cold and long winters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

which of the following are major physical regions in the continental United States?

a. humid continental, humid subtropical, Mediterranean, marine, desert
b. humid continental, humid subtropical, taiga, tundra, Mediterranean
c. humid continental, Mediterranean, marine, taiga, tropical rainforest
d. the sun belt, the bible belt, the coasts

A

a. humid continental, humid subtropical, mediterranean, marine, desert

these are all major physical regions in North America

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

which of the following is not an example of human geography?

a. studying the importance of trade among Central American countries
b. examining regional differences in cuisine around the world
c. studying the distribution of fauna and flora in North America
d. deciding whether to build retail outlets based on local population

A

c. studying the distribution of fauna and flora in North America

studying only fauna and flora is physical geography; the geographer is not studying human interactions with or impact on the Earth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

socialization

A

the process where individuals learn skills, beliefs, values, and behavior patterns of society and how these can influence their own norms and customs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

primary socialization

A

occurs when children learn the values, actions, and attitudes that are appropriate for members of their particular culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

secondary socialization

A

occurs when an individual learns the appropriate values, actions, attitudes, and behaviors as a member of a smaller group within a larger society

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are three major forms of social interactions?

a. culture, counterculture, and subculture
b. celebrations, language, and belief systems
c. government, schools, and businesses
d. cooperation, exchange, and conflict

A

d. cooperation, exchange, and conflict

these are the three primary forms of social interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Sumerians

A

emerged in the near East (eventually expanding into parts of Mesopotamia)

developed cuneiform, the earliest known example of writing to use characters as words

cuneiform allowed advanced government and administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

the Code of Hammurabi

A

in the 18th century BCE, king Hammurabi developed courts and this early codified rule of law

meted out justice on an equal basis- “an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Mandate of Heaven

A

under the Zhou dynasty, China developed this concept

states that the emperor had a divine mandate to rule, based on an understanding that the land was divinely inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

according to Confucianism, an ideal society

a. is based on respect for authority and wisdom, making harmonious interaction a priority
b. allows respectful debate and discussion to encourage learning and the development of wisdom
c. encompasses a diverse group of people, to gather wisdom from different cultures
d. values hierarchy and enforces a caste system

A

a. is based on respect for authority and wisdom, making harmonious interaction a priority

confucious taught others to respect authority (filial piety) and encouraged group harmony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

During the pax romana, the mediterranean region was all of the following except:

a. experiencing a period of relative stability under roman rule
b. a center of commercial activity
c. ruled by augustus caesar
d. under the control of a powerful Senate

A

d. under the control of a powerful Senate

after julius caesar took power from the Senate, Rome was ruled by a powerful emperor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pax Romana

A

period of stability in the Mediterranean region

rome reached the height of its power

rome controlled the entire mediterranean region, europe, and much of the middle east and northern africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

in feudal Europe, the serfs were

a. enslaved by the lords and the knights
b. bonded to the land and under the protection of the lords
c. forced to fight for the lords
d. able to eventually purchase their freedom from the knights in exchange for support fighting

A

b. bonded to the land and under the protection of the lords

serfs were bonded to the land- they had to work it for the lord- however, the lord was obligated to protect them

peasants, not slaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

while the crusade enriched Europe in many ways, it did not

a. bring new knowledge to the West
b. result in lasting land gains
c. provide religious indulgences for crusaders
d. offer the opportunity to gain personal wealth

A

b. result in lasting land gains

european powers controlled some areas in the Levant but only temporarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

the kingdom of mali developed due to its

a. control of the trans-Saharan trade routes
b. ability to repel Islamic influences from the North
c. control over gold and salt resources
d. control all of the trans-Saharan slave trade

A

c. control over gold and salt resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

russia built its empire by

a. strengthening its navy to colonize overseas
b. overland expansion, moving eastward into Asia and Siberia, and westward into Europe
c. remaining isolated, avoiding expansion, and focusing on industrialization instead
d. converting Asian peoples from Islam to Russian Orthodox Christianity

A

b. overland expansion, moving eastward into Asia and Siberia and westward into Europe

Russia expanded to the East, taking control of Siberia. Russia also moved westward, controlling parts of Eastern Europe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

which of the following was a result of the rise of the Ottoman Turks?

a. Christian Byzantines left Constantinople for Western Europe, bringing classical learning with them
b. The ottomans were able to conquer large areas, establishing a vast Islamic empire
c. the Ottomans represented an Islamic threat to European Christendom
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

major influences on the European Renaissance included

a. cultural discoveries in North America
b. African music and culture
c. the ideas of the Greek Orthodox Church
d. scientific knowledge from the Islamic empires

A

d. scientific knowledge from the Islamic empires

science and technology from the middle east during the crusades helped inspire the Renaissance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

slaves were originally brought to the americas as part of the triangular trade in order to do all of the following except

a. work on cotton plantations
b. work on sugar plantations
c. work in colonists’ homes
d. work in textile factories

A

d. work in textile factories

factories developed during the industrial revolution, and so were not present in the colonies while the slave trade was active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

in south america, how was the inca empire able to consolidate its power?

a. they used military tech to conquer neighboring peoples
b. they converted people to their own religion, gaining followers and loyal subjects
c. they used their mastery of high altitude transportation to expand their empire
d. they grew their empire of bringing in migrants from other parts of south america

A

c. they used their mastery of high altitude transportation to expand their empire

advanced transportation in high altitude terrain enabled the inca military to range widely throughout the Andes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

the power of the catholic church was diminished during the Reformation due to

a. its unwillingness to protect the indigenous people of the americas
b. the discoveries of the scientific revolution
c. the growth of islam in western europe
d. its failure to capture the holy land during the crusades

A

b. the discoveries of the scientific revolution

the scientific revolution, humanism, and logic brought into question church teachings long regarded as fact, undermining church power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

which of the following best describes the motivation for the reformer martin luther?

a. he originally sough to develop a new form of christianity separate from the catholic church
b. he tried to reform the catholic church because he was unhappy with its teachings and its corruption
c. he was influenced by european political leaders, who used him to limit the power of the church
d. he used to topple the catholic church, but believing it to have become too corrupt

A

b. he tried to reform the catholic church because he was unhappy with its teaching and its corruption

martin luther and his followers opposed corruption in the church and wanted changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

which of the following led to the french revolution?

a. food shortages, heavy taxation of the peasants and bourgeoisie, and Enlightenment thought
b. the rise of Napoleon and militarization of French culture
c. the congress of vienna and shifting diplomatic alliances in Europe
d. the concentration of power under the monarchy that resulted from the reign of Louis XIV

A

a. food shortages, heavy taxation of the peasants and bourgeoisie, and Enlightenment thought

the peasants and bourgeoisie were dissatisfied with bearing the brunt of a heavy tax burden; meanwhile, poor harvests led to food shortages and panic in rural areas. these factors, along with englightenment thought and recent revolutions elsewhere, spurred the French revolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

during the 1884 Berlin Conference, European imperial powers

a. negotiated trade agreements with important Chinese cities
b. established Apartheid in south africa
c. determined which parts of africa would be controlled by which european powers
d. formed the triple alliance

A

c. determined which parts of africa would be controlled by which european powers

the 1884 berlin conference determined the division of africa among the European imperial powers. this was done without regard for or consultation with Africans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

the Meiji Restoration was

a. a Japanese attempt to restore traditional Japanse cultural practices
b. a period of modernization and westernization in Japan
c. the early stage of Japanese imperialism in Asia, where it invaded Korea
d. a cultural movement in Japan to restore Shintoism and traditional poetry

A

b. a period of modernization and westernization in Japan

the meiji restoration was a period of industrialization and westernization in Japan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

according to adam smith, in a free market

a. the government does not interfere with the economy
b. workers own the means of production
c. wages and private property have been abolished
d. a dictatorship is necessary to maintain a strong economy

A

a. the government does not interfere with the economy

in laissez-faire (or free market) theory, the government lets the invisible hand of the market correct problems in the economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

while the beginning of the second world war is usually understood to be hitler’s invasion of poland, some scholars date it to even earlier. which of the following events do some scholars identify as the beginning of WWII?

a. the rape of nanjing
b. the japanese takeover of korea
c. the japanese invasion of manchuria
d. the chinese civil war

A

c. the japanese invasion of machuria

given japan’s role as an axis power and the conflict in East asia, some historians believe that WWII began with Japan’s invasion of manchuria in 1931

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

which of the following happened to jewish people under the nazi regime?

a. their homes and businesses were attacked and destroyed
b. they were forced to live in ghettoes, overcrowded neighborhoods with poor living conditions
c. they were sent to concentration camps and murdered
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what was going on in Egypt around 2500 BCE

A

their civil institutions, administrative structure, written language art, and architecture were all becoming well developed

the religious framework of ancient egypt had become established, with a complex mythology of various gods

also developed astronomy and the twenty-four hour system of measuring time

the famous pyramids were erected at Giza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

the burial tombs in egypt were for who?

A

hatsheptsut

thutmose III

akhenaten

ramesses II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

____ architecture influenced many civilizations in the Western world

A

egyptian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

shang dynasty

A

first known dynasty in china

emerged around the second millenium BCE

developed the earliest known chinese writing- helped unite chinese-speaking people all throughout the region

featured the use of bronze technology, horses, wheeled technology, walled cities, and more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

zhou dynasty

A

after the shang

china developed the mandate of heaven under this dynasty

confucious lived toward the end of this dynasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

qin dynasty

A

(221-206 BCE)

after zhou?

characterized by central administration, expanded infrastructure, standardization in weights and measures, writing, currency, and strict imperial control

established by the first emperor Qin Shihuangdi

foundation of Chinese administration in the 20th century

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Qin Shihuangdi

A

the administrative bureaucracy was established by him and it was the foundation of Chinese administration until the 20th century

constructed the Great Wall of China

tomb is guarded by famous terracotta figurines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Golden Age

A

athens was the strongest of many political bodies, and much of greece was unified under athens following the peloponnesian war between athens and sparta

much of hellenic art, architecture, and philosophy emerged- including the parthenon

socrates began teaching philosophy and later influenced plato and aristotle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Julius Caesar

A

popular military leader widely supported by the Populare (the people)

the roman people wanted a more democratic republic

the senate weakened due to its own corruption and JC, forced them to give him control

began to transition rome from a republic to what would become an empire

consolidated and centralized imperial control

was assassinated in 44 BCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Augustus Caesar

A

JC nephew, previously known as Octavian

eventually gained control in 27 BCE

became the first roman emperor

rome reached the height of its power and the mediterranean region enjoyed a period of stability known as the Pax Romana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Pax Romana

A

period of stability in the Mediterranean

rome controlled the entire Mediterranean region, Europe, and much of the Middle East and North Africa

Latin literature flourished, as did art, architecture, philosophy, mathematics, science, international trade, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Middle Ages

A

aka Dark Ages

fall of Rome to about the 10th century

unstable, chaotic, and unsafe

any protection and stability was represented and maintained by the Catholic church and feudal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

feudalism

A

a hierarchy where land and protection were offered in exchange for loyalty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

which of the following is an example of cross-cultural comparison?

a. a chef studies variations in a recipe that are based on the diner’s preference for sweets
b. a thai husband learns different holiday traditions from his wife, who is chinese
c. students compare the prices of groceries in different cities
d. a career coach helps clients determine their goals

A

b. a thai husband learns different holiday traditions from his wife, who is Chinese

reviewing different holiday celebrations exemplifies studying different cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

all of the following contributed to the destruction of Native American populations in North America except:

a. colonists overuse of natural resources such as bison and timber
b. transfer of small pox from Europeans to Native Americans
c. violent conflict over land and resources between Europeans and Native Americans
d. geographical displacement by colonists

A

a. colonists overuse of natural resources such as bison and timber

colonists use of natural resources had little impact on the size of the Native American population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

the intolerable acts included all of the following except:

a. the boston port act
b. the quartering act
c. the alien and sedition acts
d. the massachusetts government act

A

c. the alien and sedition acts

the alien and sedition acts were implemented through john adam’s administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what advantage did the colonists have over the british in the american revolution?

a. vast financial wealth
b. superior weaponry
c. strong leadership and knowledge of the terrain
d. a professional military and access to mercenaries

A

c. strong leadership and knowledge of the terrain

the colonial military did have strong leaders, and an intimate knowledge of the terrain, having been born there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what did the missouri compromise accomplish?

a. it admitted missouri as a free state
b. it admitted california as a free state
c. it allowed slavery in new mexico and utah to be decided by popular soverignty
d. it banned slavery north of the thirty-sixth parallel

A

d. it banned slavery north of the thirty-sixth parallel

the missouri compromise prohibited slavery north of the thirty-sixth parallel in the new US territories, permitting slavery in missouri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

which of the following effectively repealed the missouri compromise?

a. the dred scott decision
b. the compromise of 1850
c. the kansas-nebraska act
d. the fugitive slave act

A

c. the kansas-nebraska act

this act allowed slavery north of the thirty-sixth parallel throughout the plains and the western territories which the missouri compromise had previously forbidden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what assets did the confederacy have during the civil war?

a. the confederacy had superior weaponry and production resources
b. the confederacy maintained brisk trade with Europe, enabling it to fund the war
c. the confederacy benefited from strong military leadership and high moral among the population
d. the confederacy’s strong infrastructure allowed it to transport supplies and people efficiently throughout the south

A

c. the confederacy benefited from strong military leadership and high moral among the population

the confederacy had excellent miltary leaders, and much of the population strongly believed in the right of the states to make decisions without federal interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

in the emancipation proclamation, president lincoln declared an end to slavery….

a. in kentucky and missouri
b. in the union only
c. in slave states that had not seceded from the union
d. in the rebel states

A

d. in the rebel states

the emancipation proclamation feed the slaves in the confederacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

the reconstruction acts..

a. immediately improved conditions for African Americans in the south
b. immediately benefitted the Southern economy
c. were widely considered fair in congress and by the southerners
d. imposed northern military control over the south

A

d. imposed northern military control over the south

the reconstruction acts effectively placed the south under martial law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

even after the end of slavery, african americans in the rural south still suffered due to..

a. sharecropping, which kept them in heavy debt, often to their former “masters”
b. the colored farmer’s alliance, which was organized to limit their efforts to become independent farmers
c. the reconstruction acts, which specifically punished southern blacks who did not join the Union army
d. labor unions, which advocated for the white workers’ rights in factories in urban areas and ignored rural issues

A

a. sharecropping, which kept them in heavy debt, often to their former “masters”

sharecropping perpetuated racial inequality in the south

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

the US entered WWI largely because of which of the following?

a. the Zimmerman telegram
b. the rise of the Nazi Germany
c. the assassination of Franz Ferdinand
d. the attack on Lusitania

A

a. the Zimmerman telegram

the ZT, a German offer to assist Mexico in attacking the US, forced the US to enter WWI, following a series of other German provocations

98
Q

during FDR’s terms in office, which of the following was created?

a. medicare
b. social security
c. the federal reserve
d. all of the above

A

b. social security

the social security act was part of the new deal

99
Q

segregation was found unconstitutional by which of the following supreme court decisions?

a. brown vs. board of education
b. plessy vs. ferguson
c. scott vs. sanford
d. korematsu vs. US

A

a. brown vs. board of education

this found that keeping races separate (in this case, in segregated schools) could not ensure that all people would receive equal treatment, and that segregation was therefore unconstitutional

100
Q

how did martin luther king and other activists achieve civil rights for black Americans?

a. through violet uprisings
b. using nonviolence
c. with the help of the Soviet Union
d. by lobbying Congress only

A

b. using nonviolence

nonviolence was a defining characteristic of the mainstream civil rights movement

101
Q

which of the following is an example of social liberal policy enacted during the presidency of barack obama?

a. the passage of an equal rights amendment to the constitution
b. the legalization of same-sex marriage throughout the US
c. reduction in rates of imprisonment
d. a more equitable, progressive income tax

A

b. the legalization of same sex marriage throughout the US

same-sex marriage became legal in the US in 2015

102
Q

which of the following is NOT one of the amendments in the bill of rights?

a. citizens have the right to bear arms
b. the senate must have equal representation
c. citizens have the power of eminent domain
d. the government cannot quarter troops in private homes

A

b. the senate must have equal representation

the bill of rights does not determine representation in congress

103
Q

implied powers are powers that

a. are specifically listed in the constitution
b. belong to the states
c. are not specifically listed but are needed to perform other listed duties
d. exist because the United States is a sovereign nation

A

c. are not specifically listed but are needed to perform other listed duties

powers that are not listed but are necessary for the functioning of the government are called implied powers. they are made possible by the elastic cause

104
Q

which of the following terms best describes a situation in which the federal government prevents the only internet service company in a local community from raising its prices?

a. economic regulation
b. social regulation
c. opportunity cost
d. scarcity

A

a. economic regulation

in this instance of economic regulation, the gov. is controlling the prices by preventing a monopoly

105
Q

which of the following cannot shift a demand curve?

a. changes in income
b. price of related goods
c. production costs
d. consumer tastes

A

c. production costs can impact the supply curve, but not the demand curve

106
Q

which of the following best descibes an independent variable?

a. the amount of paint a painter needs to paint a room
b. the number of errors a student gets on a test
c. the dosage and timing of an anti-inflammatory drug to test its impact
d. how much time it will take to drive between Houston and San Antonio

A

c. the dosage and timing of an anti-inflammatory drug to test its impact

the doctor or scientist who carries out the experiment controls the timing and dose

107
Q

which of the following are examples of primary sources?

a. original photographs, first-hand newspaper reports, textbooks, and interviews
b. memoirs, original photographs, first-hand newspaper reports, and diary entries
c. speeches, newspaper reports, essays, and reviews
d. essays, reviews, textbooks, and analytical papers

A

b. memoirs, original photographs, first-hand newspaper reports, and diary entries

108
Q

which of the following events contributed to the US’ entry into WWII?

a. germany’s unrestricted submarine warfare
b. the attack on pearl harbor
c. the battle of britain
c. the battle of the bulge

A

b. the attack on pearl harbor

on dec 7, 1941, japan bombed pearl harbor, hoping to prevent the US from interfering with its intent to invade southeast Asia and other territories such as Guam and Hong Kong

109
Q

which of the following factors might contribute to inflation?

a. high interest rates and a low amount of printed currency
b. high unemployment rates
c. a decrease in supply and a low amount of printed currency
d. a decrease in supply and a large amount of printed currency

A

d. a decrease in supply and a large amount of printed currency

inflation occurs when prices increase. both of these factors contribute to inflation

110
Q

luther and barbara wanted to start a business in the engineering field. they were trying to decide between hiring one staff member and using the leftover money to purchase new inventory, or hiring two staff members to increase their marketing research. these choices would be an example of

a. needs
b. scarcity
c. opportunity cost
d. supply and demand

A

c. opportunity cost

OC refers to the cost of the loss of one option when it is rejected for another (in this case, if Luther and Barbara choose to hire one staff member, they lose the marketing potential another employee would make possible, whereas if they choose to hire two, they lose the leftover money)

111
Q

which of the following continents is located in both the Eastern and Western hemispheres?

a. europe
b. africa
c. north america
d. a and b

A

d. a and b

112
Q

which of the following events is recognized as the beginning of the american civil war?

a. the battle of palmito ranch
b. the battle of fort sumter
c. the missouri compromise
d. the battle of yorktown

A

b. the battle of fort sumter

on april 12, 1861, the confederate army attacked the union-controlled fort sumter in charleston, south carolina, triggering the US civil war

113
Q

which of the following most contributed to the fall of the ancient egyptians?

a. the death of cleopatra
b. alexander the great conquering the land
c. severe droughts
d. canaanite settlers entering egypt

A

a. the death of cleopatra

after the death of cleopatra, ancient Egypt became part of the roman empire

114
Q

which of the following is most likely a lasting influence ancient romans had on modern society?

a. the development of direct democracy
b. the usage of columns in architecture
c. the development of republican democracy
d. literacy

A

c. the development of republican democracy

before it was an empire, rome was a republic led by senators elected to the senate

115
Q

which of the following is not a true statement about the ancient greek civilization?

a. men and women lived in different parts of a house
b. they built aqueducts to carry water to public toilets
c. greek cities had an agora
d. socrates was a famous greek philosopher

A

b. they built aqueducts to carry water to public toilets

the ancient romans, not the ancient greeks, built aqueducts and developed public toilets

116
Q

which of the following terms describes the economic principle of allowing industry to grow without any government intervention?

a. interdependence
b. free-market economy
c. communism
d. monopoly

A

b. free-market economy

in a free-market economy, the price of goods and services are determined by sellers and consumers

117
Q

which of the following does not describe gender roles?

a. gender roles feature behaviors considered appropriate by each sex by society, which generally acknowledges only male and female
b. there is a consensus that gender roles are socially constructed
c. gender roles center on the ideas of masculinity and feminity
d. prevailing gender roles have been challenged

A

b. there is a consensus that gender roles are socially constructed

there is a debate over the degree to which gender is defined by physical features, social and cultural expectations, or both

118
Q

which of the following would be the most useful for studying population patterns within the state of texas over a period of time?

a. a bar graph detailing population numbers over a period of thirty years
b. a map with the number of people living in different parts of texas in the year 2000
c. a photograph showing how many people were at a state fair
d. a bar graph detailing population percentages compared with other states

A

a. a bar graph detailing population numbers over a period of thirty years

a bar graph that features the population over a number of years would help researchers analyze population patterns

119
Q

which of the following presidents were responsible for the new deal?

a. herbert hoover
b. rutherford hayes
c. franklin d. roosevelt
d. jimmy carter

A

c. franklin d. roosevelt

FDR supported laws that helped those unemployed and impoverished due to the Great Depression

120
Q

which of the following is not a responsibility of the executive branch?

a. approving laws
b. making laws
c. implementing laws
d. enforcing laws

A

b. making laws

while the executive branch can approve them, only congress can make laws

121
Q

which of the following describes a significant effect on the depletion of the ozone layer?

a. people get darker skin
b. more UV rays enter the earth
c. increased skin cancer rates, build up of greenhouse gases, and increased UV levels
d. increased build-up of greenhouse gases

A

c. increased skin cancer rates, build up of greenhouse gases, and increased UV levels

122
Q

which of the following constitutional amendments is NOT considered part of the bill of rights?

a. the right to bear arms
b. the right to address witnesses arranged by the government when on trial
c. the right to equal protection under the law
d. freedom of speech

A

c. the right to equal protection under the law

the bill of rights is composed of the first ten amendments. the 14th guarantees equal protection under the law

123
Q

antitrust law strengthens market forces to prevent monopolies. Which of the following terms best describes the implementation of the antitrust law?

a. social regulation
b. economic regulation
c. health regulation
d. social security

A

b. economic regulation

antitrust law breaks up monopolies to allow fair competition within the economy

124
Q

which of the following is an example of human geography?

a. studying climate
b. studying the spread of christianity across the world
c. studying the effect of land features on animals and plants
d. studying continental movement over a period of time

A

b. studying the spread of christianity across the world

human geography studies the relationship between humans and the physical world; studying how christianity spread worldwide would need to address this relationship

125
Q

which of the following is a positive effect of urbanization?

a. increased tenement housing
b. sanitary conditions
c. political machines
d. increased employment opportunities

A

d. increased employment opportunities

urbanization itself is the development of urban areas due to the arrival of job seekers; employment opportunities are themselves pull factors

126
Q

asking citizens to be civil minded and independent and making people as a whole sovereign is characteristic of..

a. republicanism
b. government
c. economics
d. communism

A

a. republicanism

republicanism also stresses natural rights as central values

127
Q

a map of france shows a small box around the Nice. Nice is portrayed in greater detail in a box at the bottom. which of the following terms describes this box?

a. legend
b. inset
c. compass
d. insert

A

b. inset

an inset features details tat are considered important on a map

128
Q

which of the following did NOT contribute to the outbreak of the american revolution?

a. the boston tea party, in which colonists threw 298 chests of tea into the sea
b. Britain banning further westward expansion with the proclamation of 1763
c. general thomas gage ordering troops to capture thomas jefferson and samuel adams
d. charles townshend taxing glass, oil, lead, and paint

A

c. general thomas gage ordering troops to capture thomas jefferson and samuel adams

while troops were ordered to capture samuel adams, they were not asked to capture thomas jefferson

129
Q

which of the following is an event that successfully ended the cold war?

a. the august coup
b. the fall of the berlin wall
c. the cuban missle crisis
d. the success of the sputnik program

A

a. the august coup

this 1991 event in which members of the Soviet government attempted to take control from Mikhail Gorbachev contributed to the dissolution of the USSR, effectively ending the Cold War

130
Q

which of the following established the concept of judicial review?

a. the john peter zenger trial
b. marbury v. madison
c. the dred scott case
d. the scopes monkey trail

A

b. marbury v. madison

131
Q

which of the following is an example of the separation of powers?

a. no members of congress can serve in another branch of gov
b. the president cannot vote on legislation
c. checks and balances
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

132
Q

which of the following is a significant contribution of ancient china?

a. mahjong
b. toothbrushes
c. gunpowder
d. the animal zodiac

A

c. gunpowder

gunpowder is one of the most important inventions of ancient china

133
Q

which of the following best exemplifies a global marketplace?

a. a US freelancer goes on vacation in paris and does remote work for a US client
b. a business in the united states orders parts from taiwan, india, and mexico and then assembles the final product in germany
c. a commercial website purchases inventory from china
d. appliances share a standardized electrical system

A

b. a business in the united states orders parts from taiwan, india, and mexico and then assembles the final product in germany

a global marketplace involves the exchange of good and labor around the world

134
Q

which of the following periods contributed to advancements of mathematics in ancient greece?

a. the classical period (500-336 BC)
b. the early bronze age (2900-2000 BC)
c. the hellenistic period (336-146 BC)
d. the archaic period (750-500 BC)

A

c. the hellenistic period (336-146 BC)

this period in time saw advancements such as the pythagorean theorem and the calculation of the circumference of the earth

135
Q

Fred wants to write a paper on benjamin franklin and his influence on science. He wants to include franklin’s theories about electricity. Which of the following resources should he use?

a. a chart depiciting what devices used electricity after the invention of the lightbulb
b. an essay about the effects of lightning
c. a newspaper report on Franklin’s many inventions
d. a draft specific report Frank wrote on electricity

A

d. a draft specific report Frank wrote on electricity

this is a primary resource that delves into the thought process behind franklin’s theories on electricity

136
Q

which of the following lands was acquired during the louisiana purchase?

a. the land roughly bordered by the rocky mountains, the mississippi river, and the rio grande river
b. the land roughly bordered by the rocky mountains, the mississippi river, and the northern border of modern-day Texas
c. the land between the rocky mountains and the missisippi river and modern-day georgia
d. the land roughly bordered by the rocky mountains and the missisippi river, and including modern-day new mexico

A

b. the land roughly bordered by the rocky mountains, the mississippi river, and the northern border of modern-day Texas

napolean sold this section of land in 1803 to finance his european wars

137
Q

which of the following major events in US history led to a decline in immigration?

a. the immigration act of 1965
b. the immigration act of 1924 and the Great Depression
c. WWI, the great depression, and the immigration act of 1924
d. the great depression only

A

b. the immigration act of 1924 and the Great Depression

138
Q

which of the following was NOT a consequence of the scarcity of oil that led to the energy crisis in the 1970’s?

a. the president urged US citizens to heat only one room in their homes in the winter
b. the automotive industry suffered as japan created more fuel-efficient vehicles
c. political leaders asked gas stations to close for one day a week
d. oil prices were high for most of the decade

A

a. the president urged US citizens to heat only one room in their homes in the winter

the british prime minister recommended limiting heat usage in winter; the US president did not

139
Q

which of the following is not a responsibility of the president of the US?

a. setting foreign policy
b. writing legislations
c. delivering the State of the Union address
d. pardoning felons

A

b. writing legislations

the president is responsible for enforcing law, not creating it

140
Q

a sign on the freeway indicated that you are 150 miles from the city of pittsburg. this shows your

a. absolute location
b. physical geography
c. geographic feature
d. relative location

A

d. relative location

the purpose of the neutrality acts was to prevent direct and indirect US interference in armed conflict overseas

141
Q

why did congress pass the neutrality acts?

a. only to prevent the United states from loaning any money to nations at war
b. to help the united states have the best chance of winning a foreign war
c. to prevent the united states from engaging in civil war
d. to prevent direct and indirect US involvement from foreign conflict

A

d. to prevent direct and indirect US involvement from foreign conflict

the purpose of the NA was to prevent direct and indirect US interference in armed conflict overseas

142
Q

which of the following emerged during WWI?

a. penicillin
b. aircraft carriers
c. radar
d. nuclear power

A

b. aircraft carriers

the first time an airplane flew from a ship was in 1912

143
Q

which of the following was a method people used to prevent risk of discovery when helping slaves escape through the underground railroad?

a. escape routes were usually indirect in order to confuse pursuers
b. escape routes were usually direct to get slaves to freedom more quickly
c. children stayed with their mothers
d. information about routes was passed along by small notes

A

a. escape routes were usually indirect in order to confuse pursuers

routes were indirect to thwart pursuers chasing escapees and their allies

144
Q

which of the following historical figures was a major architect of the US constitution?

a. thomas jefferson
b. george washington
c. james madison
d. patrick henry

A

c. james madison

madison not only advocated the ratification of the Constitution; he had also helped to write the Federalist Papers

145
Q

which of the following protects freedom of religion in the US?

a. separation of powers
b. the first amendment
c. power of eminent domain
d. popular soverignty

A

b. the first amendment

the first amendment protects freedom of religion, as well as freedom of speech, assembly, the press, and the right of the people to petition the government

146
Q

which of the following amendents prevents the government from quartering troops in private homes?

a. 7th
b. 4th
c. 3rd
d. 9th

A

c. 3rd

the third forbids quartering troops in homes, an abuse suffered by Americans under British rule

147
Q

a project in which students research and explore significant contributions made by their community is an example of

a. questioning only
b. collaboration
c. data interpretation only
d. inquiry-based learning

A

d. inquiry-based learning

in inquiry-based learning, students gather relevant sources and interpret them in order to develop their own conclusion

148
Q

a student completes a research project on significant events of the american revolution. which of the following is an appropriate method to determine the credibility of the resources that he or she has used to conduct research?

a. checking the author and date of research
b. reviewing website design and writing style
c. assuming all online resources are not credible
d. reviewing website design and domain name

A

a. checking the author and date of research

this helps to determine if the information is credible and up-to-date

149
Q

which of the following were part of the New England colonies?

a. New York, Connecticut, and Massachusetts
b. Connecticut, Massachusetts, and New Hampshire
c. New Hampshire, Massachusetts, and New Jersey
d. New York, New Jersey, Pennsylvania, and Delaware

A

b. Connecticut, Massachusetts, and New Hampshire

150
Q

which of the following are considered geographical features on a map?

a. plains, plateaus, valleys, and mountains
b. continents, plateaus, cardinal directions, and mountains
c. bodies of water, plains, plateaus, and contries
d. plains, plateaus, areas depicting agricultural products, and mountains

A

a. plains, plateaus, valleys, and mountains

geographical features depict the physical aspects of a plane on a map

151
Q

which of the following ideas from Thomas Hobbes influenced the US Constitution?

a. individual rights should take priority over collective rights
b. people should give up some of their rights and form a government to ensure order in society
c. communism is the only way to govern people
d. people should create a utopia to avoid the evils of government

A

b. people should give up some of their rights and form a government to ensure order in society

hobbes advocated governments creating and ensuring social order

152
Q

which of the following examples could be used to describe the theme of respect to elementary school students?

a. defending ones beliefs even when they are unpopular
b. paying a parking ticket
c. returning a library book on time
d. foregoing an opportunity to cut a line

A

d. foregoing an opportunity to cut a line

153
Q

which of the following is considered a negative consequence of the civil war?

a. sharecropping in the south
b, the south was forgiven for leaving the union
c. adding amendments to the constitution to address equal protection for people under the law
d. the Union helped the South rebuild roads and farms

A

a. sharecropping in the south

sharecropping enabled landowners in the south to maintain control of former slaves

154
Q

which of the following statements best describes reconstruction in the US after the civil war?

a. debates over legalizing slavery in the US were ongoing
b. during its military occupation of the South, the Union developed Black Codes to appease disaffected Southern aristocrats who had lost slaves
c. Northern troops occupied the south to ensure that laws were being followed and to help reunite the country after the civil war
d. President Lincoln led reconstruction efforts

A

c. Northern troops occupied the south to ensure that laws were being followed and to help reunite the country after the civil war

during reconstruction, there were efforts to rebuild the devastated South, which was under Union military occupation following the civil war

155
Q

the framers instituted a system of checks and balances because they were concerned about

a. one branch of government gaining too much power
b. mob rule
c. the military taking over the government
d. the states overpowering the national government

A

a. one branch of government gaining too much power

the purpose of checks and balances was to prevent tyranny in any branch of the government

156
Q

which of the following is true about the Trail of Tears?

a. the trail of tears drove native americans to indian territory (later, Oklahoma) because white settlers no longer required their assistance in agricultural production
b. removal treaties were enacted fairly and peacefully
c. the indian removal act of 1831 began the forced relocation of native americans that year
d. the cherokee nation was forced to give up land east of the mississippi river during andrew jackson’s presidency

A

d. the cherokee nation was forced to give up land east of the mississippi river during andrew jackson’s presidency

this series of events happened in 1838 and 1839

157
Q

which of these is a biome?

a. desert
b. cornfield
c. herd of bison
d. beehive

A

a. desert

a biome is a large ecological community that includes specific plants and animals.

158
Q

what is the name of the phenomenon when a star suddenly increases in brightness and then disappears from view?

a. aurora
b. galaxy
c. black hole
d. supernova

A

d. supernova

before a star collapses, the star burns brighter for a period of time and then fades from view. this is a supernova

159
Q

what term describes the resistance to motion caused by one object rubbing against another object?

a. inertia
b. friction
c. velocity
d. gravity

A

b. friction

friction occurs when motion is impeded because one object is rubbing against another object

160
Q

which plant orbits closest to earth?

a. mercury
b. venus
c. jupiter
d. saturn

A

b. venus

venus’s orbit is closest to Earth. Venus is the second planet from the Sun and Earth is the third planet from the Sun

161
Q

which tool is used to measure the mass of an object?

a. a thermometer
b. a graduated cylinder
c. a balance
d. an abacus

A

c. a balance

162
Q

which organism has cells that contain mitochondria?

a. whale
b. mushroom
c. tulip
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

163
Q

which condition can be diagnosed by an electrocardiogram (EKG)?

a. diabetes
b. torn ligaments
c. cancer
d. tachycardia

A

d. tachycardia

tachycardia is an abnormally fast heartrate, and electrocardiograms show the electrical activity of the heart

164
Q

what is an example of mechanical weathering?

a. calcium carbonate reacts with water to form a cave
b. an iron gate rusts
c. tree roots grow under the foundation of a house and cause cracks
d. bananas turn brown after they are peeled

A

c. tree roots grow under the foundation of a house and cause cracks

mechanical weathering includes breaking a substance down without changing the composition of the substance

165
Q

what are the negatively charged particles inside an atom?

a. protons
b. neutrons
c. electrons
d. ions

A

c. electrons

electrons are negatively charges particles in an atom; electrons orbit the nucleus

166
Q

organisms in the same class are also in the same ____

a. phylum
b. order
c. genus
d. species

A

a. phylum

a kingdom is the largest group of living things. a kingdom is then subdivided into progressively smaller groups in the following order: kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species (KPCOFGS: Keep Pots Clean or Family Gets Sick)

167
Q

which type of rock forms when lava cools and solidifies?

a. igneous
b. sedimentary
c. metamorphic
d. sandstone

A

a. igneous

igneous rock form when liquid rock cools and solidifies

168
Q

which unit measures pressure?

a. kilometers
b. grams
c. grams per second
d. pounds per square foot

A

d. pounds per square foot

169
Q

which organism regulates its body temperature externally?

a. lobster
b. dolphin
c. whale
d. pelican

A

a. lobster

the metabolic rate of crustaceans is too low to regular their temperature. crustaceans use behavioral techniques, such as moving to shallow water, to maintain body temperature.

170
Q

which organism is a decomposer?

a. apple trees
b. mushrooms
c. goats
d. lions

A

b. mushrooms

mushrooms are fungi. fungi break down organic material left by dead animals and plants, making them decomposers

171
Q

which pH level is classified as a base?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

A

d. 8

bases have a pH between 7 and 14

172
Q

which body system is responsible for the release of growth hormones?

a. digestive system
b. endocrine system
c. nervous system
d. circulatory system

A

c. endocrine system

173
Q

which example illustrates physical change?

a. water becomes ice
b. batter is baked into a cake
c. an iron fence rusts
d. a firecracker explodes

A

a. water becomes ice

when water changes form, it does not change the chemical composition of the substance. once water becomes ice, the ice can easily turn back into water

174
Q

which energy source is nonrenewable?

a. water
b. wind
c. coal
d. sunlight

A

c. coal

coal is nonrenewable because once coal is burned, it cannot be quickly replaced

175
Q

how long does it take the earth to rotate on its axis

a. one hour
b. one day
c. one month
d. one year

A

d. one day

earth takes approx. 24 hours to rotate on its axis

176
Q

which organism is a reptile?

a. crocodile
b. frog
c. salamander
d. salmon

A

a. crocodile

reptiles like crocodiles have scaly skin, are hatched from eggs on land, and are cold-blooded. amphibians are frogs (or salamanders) that are hatched from eggs in water, have gills but develop lungs, and become land animals as they mature

177
Q

by what process do producers make sugars and release oxygen?

a. digestion
b. chloroplast
c. decomposition
d. photosynthesis

A

d. photosynthesis

describes the process by which plants convert the energy of the sun into stored chemical energy (glucose)

178
Q

which type of wave is a longitudinal wave?

a. surface wave
b. light wave
c. sound wave
d. electromagnetic wave

A

c. sound waves

sound waves are longitudinal because the vibrations travel in the same direction as the energy

179
Q

which example demonstrates refraction?

a. rainbow
b. echo
c. mirror
d. radio

A

a. rainbow

the light of the sun hits rain droplets and bends into a band of colors. the bending of waves is refraction

180
Q

which factor is an abiotic part of an ecosystem?

a. producers
b. consumers
c. water
d. decomposers

A

c. water

nonliving things in an ecosystem, like air and water, are abiotic factors

181
Q

what term describes a relationship between two organisms where one organism benefits to the detriment of the other organism?

a. mutualism
b. parasitism
c. commensalism
d. predation

A

b. parasitism

182
Q

which organelle makes proteins?

a. mitochondria
b. cytoplasm
c. vacuole
d. ribosomes

A

d. ribosomes

mitochondria: release chemical energy from glucose to be used by the cell
cytoplasm: provides support to the cell
vacuole: stores water

183
Q

which statement is true?

a. earth is much closer to the sun than it is to the other stars
b. the moon is closer to venus than it is to Earth
c. a certain times of the year, Jupiter is closer to the sun than Earth is
d. mercury is the closest planet to earth

A

a. earth is much closer to the sun than it is to the other stars

the sun is the only star in our solar system. the sun is about 93 million miles away from Earth; the next closest star is about 25 trillion miles away

184
Q

which metal attracts magnets?

a. iron
b. copper
c. silver
d. gold

A

a. iron

185
Q

which example demonstrates electrostatic attraction?

a. items in a car continue to move forward when the car stops suddenly
b. tides are affected by the moon
c. the moon revolves around Earth
d. plastic wrap sticks to a person’s hand

A

d. plastic wrap sticks to a person’s hand

electrostatic force is an attraction between charged surfaces

186
Q

in which part of a plant does photosynthesis take place?

a. the roots
b. the stem
c. the leaves
d. the flower

A

c. the leaves

through photosynthesis, leaves use the sun’s energy to convert carbon dioxide into glucose (food)

187
Q

which example has the least amount of kinetic energy?

a. a plane flying through the sky
b. a plane sitting on the runway
c. a ladybug flying toward a flower
d. a meteorite falling to Earth

A

b. a plane sitting on a runway

something that is not moving has zero velocity; therefore it has no kinetic energy.

188
Q

which of the following is caused by geothermal heat?

a. geysers
b. glaciers
c. tsunamis
d. tornadoes

A

a. geysers

geysers are caused by geothermal heating of water underground

189
Q

which term describes space weather?

a. supernova
b. black hole
c. volcanic lightening
d. solar flares

A

d. solar flares

solar flares are huge explosions on the sun. space weather refers to conditions in the solar system that could potentially affect the work of astronauts in space and cause auroras on earth

190
Q

which gas is found in large quantities in Earth’s atmosphere?

a. carbon monoxide
b. bromine
c. nitrogen
d. flourine

A

c. nitrogen

nitrogen makes up 78% of the earth’s atmosphere

191
Q

which term describes an element?

a. atom
b. molecule
c. proton
d. ion

A

a. atom

192
Q

which statement is true?

a. mass and weight are the same thing
b. mass is affected by gravitational pull
c. weight is affected by gravitational pull
d. mass is related to the surface area of an object

A

c. weight is affected by gravitational pull

193
Q

when earth moves between the moon and the sun, it is called a

a. solar eclipse
b. lunar eclipse
c. black hole
d. supernova

A

c. lunar eclipse

194
Q

which element is most common in the universe?

a. carbon
b. lithium
c. potassium
d. titanium

A

a. carbon

common element found in every organic compound and in the atmosphere of some planets

195
Q

which storm is least likely to form over ocean water?

a. hurricane
b. typhoon
c. cyclone
d. tornado

A

c. tornadoes

tornadoes form when warm air masses collide with cold air masses over land

196
Q

which substance can be used to neutralize an acid spill?

a. sodium bicarbonate
b. citric acid
c. cat litter
d. water

A

a. sodium bicarbonate

197
Q

which gas is produced by burning fossil fuels?

a. helium
b. oxygen
c. nitrogen
d. carbon dioxide

A

d. carbon dioxide

CD is formed when fossil fuels containing carbon are burned. Excess carbon dioxide is responsible for global warming

198
Q

a warm air mass moving into a cold air mass is called a

a. warm front
b. cold front
c. isobar
d. tornado

A

a. warm front

199
Q

which of the following is NOT a cause of extinction?

a. poor reproduction
b. climate change
c. habitat conservation
d. over-exploitation by humans

A

c. habitat conservation

HC restores the natural habitat of organisms, protecting a species

200
Q

which term describes the top layer of the Earth’s surface?

a. stratosphere
b. lithosphere
c. atmosphere
d. biosphere

A

b. lithosphere

201
Q

what term describes the speed and direction of a moving soccer ball?

a. velocity
b. momentum
c. mass
d. energy

A

a. velocity

velocity is the speed of an object in a certain direction

202
Q

which substance is a good thermal conductor?

a. plastic
b. rubber
c. porcelain
d. aluminum

A

d. aluminum

aluminum is a good thermal conductor because heat energy can easily move through it

203
Q

which example demonstrates body systems working together to maintain homeostasis?

a. Jessica’s tracheotomy opened a breathing obstruction
b. Max’s muscles, tendons, and ligaments allow his joints to bend
c. Kevin’s bones thicken from an excessive production of growth hormones
d. Stacy shivers from the cold

A

d. stacy shivers from the cold

homeostasis refers to the body systems working together to ensure that temperature, pH, and oxygen levels are optimal for survival. Sensors in Stacy’s nervous system trigger her muscular system to shiver in an attempt to warm her body

204
Q

what is the primary role of amino acids in cells?

a. break down carbohydrates
b. break down fats
c. build proteins
d. filter waste

A

c. build proteins

ribosomes make proteins by building amino acid chains

205
Q

what part of the atom flows through a circuit to power a lightbulb?

a. protons
b. neutrons
c. electrons
d. nucleus

A

c. electrons

electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles that exist outside the nucleus of an atom. a power source forces moving electrons through a circuit

206
Q

what term is used when the moon moves between the earth and the sun?

a. aurora
b. lunar eclipse
c. black hole
d. solar eclipse

A

d. solar eclipse

when the moon moves between the earth and the sun, a solar eclipse occurs, blocking sunlight from the planet

207
Q

which process within the rock cycle creates metamorphic rock?

a. compaction
b. heat and pressure
c. crystallization
d. weathering

A

b. heat and pressure

H&P change the composition of sedimentary rock to create metamorphic rocks

208
Q

what is NOT a characteristic of a mineral?

a. naturally occurring
b. organic
c. solids
d. crystalline structure

A

b. organic

a mineral is inorganic; only a rock may be composed of organic material

209
Q

the magnitude of an earthquake refers to its

a. power
b. energy release
c. destructive ability
d. depth

A

b. energy release

the magnitude of an earthquake refers to the energy released during the earthquake

210
Q

the rhythmic movements of water caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sun are called

a. tides
b. currents
c. glaciers
d. waves

A

a. tides

tides, the rise and fall of the ocean level at shorelines, are caused by the moon and sun

211
Q

which characteristic generally increases as altitude increases in the troposphere?

a. temperature
b. pressure
c. density
d. none of the above

A

d. none of the above

temperature, pressure, and density all decrease as altitude increases

212
Q

which layer of the atmosphere absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun

a. the mesosphere
b. the stratosphere
c. the troposhere
d. the thermosphere

A

b. the stratosphere

it contains a sublayer called the ozone layer, which absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun

213
Q

enzymes are an example of which type of macromolecule?

a. lipids
b. nucleic acids
c. carbohydrates
d. proteins

A

d. proteins

an enzyme is protein that catalyzes a reaction

lipids: fats
nucleic acid: contain DNA and RNA
carbohydrates: sugars

214
Q

the chromosomes of a eukaryotic organism are found in the

a. chloroplast
b. nucleus
c. ribosome
d. cytoplasm

A

b. nucleus

the nucleus is the organelle that carries the DNA of eukaryotic organisms

215
Q

a distinct difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is the presence of

a. ribosomes
b. mitochondria
c. cell wall
d. nucleus

A

c. cell wall

a plant cell is enveloped by a cell wall, but animal cells do not have cell walls

216
Q

mitosis produces two daughter cells that each have ____ number of chromosomes in the parent cell

a. a quarter of the
b. half of the
c. the same
d. double the

A

c. the same

mitosis creates daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell

217
Q

which of the following is true of cellular respiration?

a. two molecules of ATP are produced during electron transport
b. thirty-four molecules of ATP are produced during glycolysis
c. thirty-four molecules of ATP are produced during the Krebs cycle
d. thirty-eight molecules of ATP are produces during the entire process of cellular respiration

A

d. thirty-eight molecules of ATP are produces during the entire process of cellular respiration

a total of 38 are produced: two molecules from glycolysis, two molecules from the Krebs cycle, and thirty-four from electron transport

218
Q

photosynthesis takes place in which organelle of a photosynthetic, eukaryotic organism

a. nucleus
b. chloroplast
c. ribosome
d. endoplasmic reticulum

A

b. chloroplast

the chloroplast houses the photosynthetic machinery

219
Q

the process of organisms with advantageous traits surviving more often and producing more offspring than organisms without these advantageous traits describe which basic mechanism of evolution?

a. gene flow
b. genetic drift
c. mutation
d. natural selection

A

c. natural selection

the mechanism of NS is rooted in the idea that there is variation in inherited traits among the population of organisms that there is differential reproduction as a result

220
Q

which of the following is NOT a form of reproductive isolation that could lead to sympatric speciation?

a. behavioral isolation
c. mechanical isolation
c. temporal isolation
d. habitat isolation

A

d. habitat isolation

sympatric speciation occurs to populations within the same habitat

221
Q

which of the following taxonomic ranks is the most specific, consisting of organisms that only interbreed with one another?

a. phylum
b. species
c. genus
d. population

A

b. species

species is a principal taxionomic rank

222
Q

what is the primary function of the respiratory system?

a. to create sound and speech
b. to take oxygen into the body while removing carbon dioxide
c. to transport nutrients to the cells and tissue of the body
d. to act as a barrier between the body’s organ and foreign pathogens

A

b. to take oxygen into the body while removing carbon dioxide

oxygen intake and carbon dioxide disposal are the primary functions of the respiratory system

223
Q

which muscular organ processes food material into smaller pieces and helps mix it with saliva?

a. pharynx
b. tongue
c. diaphragm
d. stomach

A

b. tongue

224
Q

the primary function of the root system is to

a. anchor the plant
b. prevent water loss
c. deliver nutrients to all parts of the plant
d. absorb water and nutrients from the soil

A

d. absorb nutrients from the soil

the roots primarily exist to continually grow towards water ad absorb it and other nutrients

225
Q

which of the following is an evolutionary advantage of the angiosperms, giving them the competitive edge over other groups of plants?

a. broad leaves that absorb more sunlight for photosynthesis
b. the ability to be perennial, living and growing year after year
c. fruit that nourishes the developing seed
d. flowers that attract pollinators, ensuring more successful plant fertilization

A

d. flowers that attract pollinators, ensuring more successful plant fertilization

the attractive nature of the flower encourages animals to pollinate the plant

226
Q

which organism is a primary consumer?

a. mushroom
b. corn
c. cow
d. lion

A

c. cow

cows eat plants but do not eat other animals; therefore, cows are primary consumers.

lions eat other consumers, which makes them a secondary or tertiary consumer

227
Q

which of the following terrestrial biomes is tropical, dominated by grasses, and has poor soil?

a. taiga
b. estuary
c. chaparral
d. savanna

A

d. savanna

a savanna is a tropical grassland with nutrient-poor soil

228
Q

an atom has 5 electrons and 12 protons. what is the total charge of the atom?

a. -17
b. -7
c. +7
d. +17

A

c. +7

this atom has a total charge of -5e+ 12e= 7e

229
Q

which type of chemical reaction takes place when kerosene reacts with oxygen to light a lamp?

a. oxidation
b. neutralization
c. combustion
d. convection

A

c. combustion

combustion is a chemical reaction that produces carbon dioxide and water. burning lamp oil (fuel) is combustion

230
Q

the state of matter at which particles are most loosely packed is

a. liquid
b. gas
c. solid
d. plasma

A

b. gas

gas is the state of matter in which atomic particles are most loosely packed, and the greatest amount of space exists among atoms

231
Q

the rate at which velocity changes is

a. power
b. force
c. displacement
d. acceleration

A

d. acceleration

232
Q

a box sliding down a ramp experiences all of the following forces EXCEPT

a. tension
b. friction
c. gravitational
d. normal

A

a. tension

tension is the force that results from objects being pulled or hung

233
Q

which type of potential energy is stored in a compressed spring?

a. chemical potential energy
b. electric potential energy
c. gravitational potential energy
d. elastic potential energy

A

d. elastic potential energy

234
Q

which process allows the transfer of heat to occur from the contact between two substances?

a. conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. sublimation

A

a. conduction

conduction is the transfer of heat from the contact of a solid or liquid to another solid or liquid

235
Q

which measurement describes the distance between crests in a wave?

a. amplitude
b. wavelength
c. frequency
d. period

A

b. wavelength

wavelength is the length of each cycle of the wave, which can be found by measuring between crests

236
Q

two negative charges are held t a distance of 1 m from each other. When the charges are released, they will

a. remain at rest
b. move closer together
c. move farther apart
d. move together in the same direction

A

c. move farther apart

the two charges are both negative, so they will repel each other and move apart

237
Q

which medical technology can be used to detect cancerous tumors?

a. MRI
b. defibrillator
c. EKG
d. patient monitor

A

a. MRI

MRI stands for magnetic resonance imagine and is used to observe organs and internal structures

238
Q

which is a nonrenewable natural resource?

a. water
b. wind
c. coal
d. sun

A

c. coal

coal is a nonrenewable resource that comes from the remains of plants that lived in swamps millions of years ago

239
Q

which step should students take before making a hypothesis in a scientific experiment?

a. interpret data
b. make a graph
c. research
d. do the experiment

A

c. research

they need to do research before making a reasonable and testable hypothesis

240
Q

evolution is an example of which of the following?

a. theory
b. law
c. hypothesis
d. fact

A

a. theory

evolution is a scientific theory, which is a set of explanatory ideas sustained by evidence through repeated experiments and observations

241
Q

which of the following is the variable in a scientific investigation that is manipulated by the researcher in order to test the hypothesis?

a. control
b. experimental
c. dependent
d. hypothetical

A

b. experimental

experimental variables, aka independent variables, are the variables that are changed by the scientist

242
Q

which tool measures the volume of an object?

a. thermometer
b. graduated cylinder
c. balance
d. barometer

A

b. graduated cylinder

Praxis II Elementary Education 5001 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions