ALL Flashcards

1
Q

assonance

A

repetition of identical or similar vowel sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

meter

A

a recurring pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables that created a rhythm when spoken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

lambic meter

A

an unstressed syllable followed by a stressed syllable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

blank verse

A

unrhymed verse that consists of lines of iambic pentameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

free verse

A

lacks regular patterns of poetic feet

BUT has more controlled rhythm than prose in terms of pace and pauses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

phonological awareness

A

the ability to perceive sound structures in spoken word, such as syllables and the individual phonemes within syllables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

phonemes

A

the sounds represented by the letters in the alphabet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

teaching phonological awareness

A

language play

an exposure to a variety of sounds and contexts of sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

alphabetic principle

A

the use of letters and combinations of letters to represent speech sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

developing language skills

A

interacting with others

experiencing language in daily life

understanding that speaking and listening are necessary for effective communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does KWL stand for

A

know

wonder

learn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does KUD stand for

A

know

understand

do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

decoding

A

method used to make sense of printed words and figure out how to correctly pronounce them

students must know the relationships between letters and sounds, including:

  • letter patterns
  • words are constructed from phonemes
  • printed word represents a word that can be spoken
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

phonics

A

the process of learning to read by learning how spoken language is represented by letters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

whole language approach

A

method of teaching children to read by recognizing words as whole pieces of language

believes that language should not be broken down into letters, combinations of letters, or decoded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

fluency

A

the goal of literacy development

the ability to read and write accurately and quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

affixes

A

syllables attached to the beginning or end of a word to make a derivative or inflectional form of a word

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

noun suffixes

A

type of suffix
has two types:

argument: denotes the act of, state of, or quality of
auctioneer: denotes the doer, or one who does

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

verb suffixes

A

type of suffix

denote “to make” or “to perform the act of” (soften)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

adjectival suffixes

A

type of suffix

include suffixes such as “ful” which means “full of”
ish, less, able

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

literal comprehension

A

the skills a reader uses to deal with the actual words in a text

involves skills such as
-identifying the topic sentence, main idea, important facts, and supporting details

  • using context clues to determine the meaning ofa word
  • sequencing events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

critical comprehension

A

involves the prior knowledge and an understanding that written material (especially nonfiction) is the authors version and not necessarily anyone else’s

involves analysis of meaning, evaluation, validation, questioning, and the reasoning skills a reader uses to recognize inferences and conclusions, purpose, tone, POV, themes, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

metacognitive skills

A

awareness
planning
self-monitoring
reflection

taking an active role in reading
recognizing reading behaviors
relating info to prior knowledge
being aware of text structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

synecdoche

A

use of a part of something to signify the whole

“boots on the ground”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

metonymy

A

use of one term that is closely associated with another to mean the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

critical thinking tools while reading

A

summarization

question generation

textual marking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

learning approach

A

a language development theory

assumes that language is first learned by imitating the speech of adults- then solidified in school through drills about the rules of language structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

linguistic approach

A

a language development theory

proposes that the ability to use a language is innate

biological approach- not baed on cognition or social patterning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

cognitive approach

A

a language development theory

children must develop appropriate cognitive skills before they can acquire language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

sociocognitive approach

A

a language development theory

language development is a complex interaction of linguistic, social, and cognitive influences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ad hominem

A

“against the person”

attacks the character or behavior of a person taking a stand on the issue instead of the issue itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

hasty generalizations

A

condemnations of a group based on the behavior of one person or part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

faulty causation

A

assigning the wrong cause to an event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

bandwagon effect

A

if everyone else is doing it, it must be a good thing to do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

inductive reasoning

A

using PARTICULAR FACTS to draw a general conclusion

if every apple take out of the top of a barrel is rotten, the rest of the barrel is probably rotten too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

deductive reasoning

A

using GENERAL FACTS or premises to come to a SPECIFIC conclusion

if Susan is a sophomore and all sophomore take geometry, Susan takes geometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

gerund

A

verb form used as a noun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

illustrative essay

A

explains a general statement through the use of examples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

descriptive essay

A

appeals to the give senses to describe a person, place, or thing so that the readers can see the subject in their imaginations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

process essays

A

“how-to”: gives step-by-step instructions

“explanation”: tells how an event occurred or how something works

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

classification essay

A

type of essay that sorts information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

imperative sentence

A

gives direction or command and may be punctuated by an exclamation point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

bathos

A

an attempt to evoke pity, sorrow, or nobility that goes overboard and becomes ridiculous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

malapropism

A

confusing one word with another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

the five reasons for writing

A
  1. to tell a story
  2. to express oneself
  3. to convey information
  4. to make an argument
  5. to explore ideas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

coordinating conjunction

A

a conjunction that can join two independent clauses by placing a comma and a coordinating conjunction between them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

subordinating conjunction

A

a conjunction that joins a subordinate clause with an independent clause and establishes a relationship between them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

top-down processing

A

listener refers to a background and a global knowledge to figure out the meaning of a message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

bottom-up processing

A

listener figures out the meaning of a message by using “data” obtained from what is said

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

base maps

A

maps created from aerial and field surveys

serve as the starting point for topographic and thematic maps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

topographic maps

A

maps that show the natural and human-made surface features of the earth

including:
mountain elevations
river courses
roads
names of lakes and towns
country/state lines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

thematic maps

A

maps that use a base of topographic maps as the foundation for showing data based on a them

ex. population, wildlife distribution, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

15 degrees

A

each hour of time in the time zones is equivalent to this many degrees of longitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

prime meridian

A

greenwich, england is the location of this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

international date line

A

the halfway point, at the 180th meridian

the place where each day begins and ends on Earth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

cartography

A

the art and science of mapmaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

absolute location

A

the exact point where coordinates meet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Tropic of Cancer

A

the latitude that is 23.5 degrees north of the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Tropic of Capricorn

A

the latitude that is 23.5 degrees south of the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

the tropics

A

the region between the tropic of cancer and capricorn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

subtropics

A

the areas located between 23.5 and 40 degrees north/south of the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

arctic circle

A

the latitude 66.5 degrees north of the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

antarctic circle

A

the latitude 66.5 degrees south of the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

the four main biomes

A

forests

grasslands

deserts

tundra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the five main climate zones

A

tropical

dry

temperate

continental

polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

climate

A

the long term average weather conditions of a place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

orogeny

A

the process in which tectonic plates push up the crust to form mountains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

carrying capacity

A

the maximum, sustained level of use an environment can incur without sustaining significant environmental deterioration that would eventually lead to environmental destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

three different points of view that can be used to study history

A

space

environment

chronology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

the five themes of geography

A

location

place

human-environment interaction

movement

regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

geomorphology

A

the study of landforms

a science that considers the relationships between geological structures and surface landscape features

processes that change features: erosion, deposition, plate tectonics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

landforms

A

landscape features

the highest order are continents and oceans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

foothills

A

low series of hills found between a plain and a mountain range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

mesas

A

flat areas of upland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

deltas

A

accumulation of silt deposited at the river mouths into the seabed

eventually converted into very fertile, stable ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

basins

A

low areas that catch water from rivers

large hollows that dip to a central point and are surrounded by higher ground

areas of inland drainage in a desert where water can’t reach the sea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

marshes

A

wet lowlands with no trees are always wet because of frequent floods and poor drainage that leave shallow water;

ex. grasses, rushes, reeds, typhas, sedges, herbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

swamps

A

wet lowlands with trees and dry periods

the water is very slow-moving and is usually associated with adjacent rivers or lakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

taiga

A

world’s largest forest region

location of huge mineral resources and fur-bearing animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

tundra

A

marshy plain in an area that has very cold climate and receives little snow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

humid continental climate

A

has four seasons, including a cold winter and a hot summer, and sufficient rainfall for raising crops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

prairie climates

A

found in the interiors of asia and north america where there are dry flatlands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

subtropical climates

A

very humid areas in tropical areas

the moisture, carried by winds traveling over warm ocean currents, produces long summers and mild winters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

marine climates

A

climates surrounded by water; warm ocean winds bring moisture, mild temperatures year round, and plentiful rain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

physical geography

A

study of climate, water, and land and their relationship with each other and humans

locates and identifies the earth’s surface features and explores how humans thrive in various locations according to crop and goods production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

cultural geography

A

study of the influence of the environment on human behaviors as well as the effect of human activities such as farming, building settlements, and grazing livestock on the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

physical location

A

placement of the hemispheres and continents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

political location

A

divisions within continents that designate various countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

natural resources

A

things provided by nature that have commercial value to humans

ex. minerals, timber, fish, wildlife, and landscape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

renewable resources

A

resources that can be replenished

ex. wind, solar radiation, tides, and water (with proper conservation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

nonrenewable resources

A

resources that cannot be replenished

cannot be replaced or reused once they are burned

ex. fossil fuels such as oil and metal ores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

commodities

A

natural resources that have to be extracted and purified rather than created

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

map projections

A

a system for representing the Earth’s curvatures on a flat surface through the use of a grid that corresponds to the lines of latitude and longitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

conical projections

A

type of map projection that superimposes a cone over the sphere of the earth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

cylindrical projection

A

type of map projection in which meridians are mapped using equally spaced vertical lines and circles of latitude (parallels) are mapped using horizontal lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

azimuthal

A

stereographic projection onto a plane so centered at any given point that a straight line radiating from the center to any other point represents the shortest difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

sumer

A

established the first known writing system

advanced the development of the wheel and irrigation

urbanized their culture with cluster of cities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

egypt

A

united by the nile river

settled in villages on the banks

national religion that held pharaohs as gods

central government

writing, libraries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

indus valley

A

unified culture of luxury and refinement

no known national government

advanced civic system

prosperous trade routes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

common traits of early empires

A

strong military

centralized government

control and standardization of commerce

money

taxes

weight system

official language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

greece

A

started as a group of city states that were united by Alexander the Great and joined to create an empire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

middle ages

A

period that ran from approx. 500-1500 A.D.

during this time, centers of European civilization moved from Mediterranean countries to France, Germany, and England

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

the crusades

A

recurring wars between european Christians and middle east muslims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

charlemagne

A

created an empire across france and germany around 800 AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

protestant reformation

A

began as an attempt to reform the catholic church, but eventually led to the separation of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

martin luther

A

posted 95 Theses on the door of a church in Saxony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

95 Theses

A

document posted by Martin Luther that criticized unethical practices, various doctrines, and the authority of the pope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Renaissance

A

renewal of interest in ancient Greek and Latin art, literature and philosophy

14th-16th centuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Jacques Cartier

A

French explorer that explored the St. Lawrence seaway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Samuel de Champlain

A

founded Quebec

set up a fur empire on the St. Lawrence Seaway

also explored the coasts of MA and RI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Fr. Jacques Marquette and Louis Joilet

A

the first Europeans to travel down the Mississippi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Rene-Robert de la Salle

A

Explored the Great Lakes and Illinois and Mississippi Rivers

claimed all of the land from the Great Lakes to the Gulf of Mexico and from the Appalachians to the Rockies for France

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Juan Ponce de Leon

A

first European in Florida

discovered the Gulf Stream

searched for the fountain of youth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Alonso Alvarez de Pineda

A

charted the gulf coast from Florida to Mexico

claimed TX for Spain

115
Q

Panfilo de Narvaez

A

claimed Florida for Spain, then sailed the Gulf Coast

116
Q

Hernando de Soto

A

first European to explore the southeastern US from Tallahassee to Natchez

117
Q

Sir Walter Raleigh

A

landed on Roanoke Island in 1585

118
Q

Jamestown

A

first permanent English colony founded by Captain John Smith in 1607

119
Q

pilgrims

A

name for the 24 puritan families sent by the virginia company to virginia on the mayflower

120
Q

sons of liberty

A

protest group led by Sam Adams that incited the Revolution

121
Q

Boston Massacre

A

march 1770

soldiers fired on a crowd and killed people

122
Q

committees of correspondence

A

set up throughout the colonies to transmit revolutionary ideas and create a unified response

123
Q

first continental congress

A

held in 1774 to list grievances and develop a response; attached by all the colonies except Georgia

124
Q

shot heard round the world

A

1775, Lexington and Concord

English soldiers on their way to confiscate arms in Concord passed through Lexington

125
Q

second continental congress

A

established the continental army and chose George Washington as its commanding general

also allowed printing of money and created government offices

126
Q

treaty of paris

A

1782

signaled the official end of the revolutionary war

127
Q

articles of confederation

A

had two major elements that proved unworkable

  • no centralized national government
  • no centralized power to tax or regulate trade with other nations or between states

designed to protect states’ rights over those of the national government

128
Q

the federalist papers

A

written by James Madison

129
Q

Louisiana Purchase

A

1803, purchased by Thomas Jefferson for $15 million

to gain NOLA

remove threat of french interference along MS river

double the territory of the US

130
Q

war of 1812

A

causes of the war included

  • british attempts to restrict U.S. trade
  • the royal navy’s impressment of American seamen
  • America’s desire to expand its territory

though washington DC was captured and burned, American troops were able to repulse British invasions in NY, Baltimore, NOLA—- boasting national confidence and fostering a new spirit of patriotism

131
Q

treaty of ghent

A

ended the war of 1812

when the british ended the war with France, they negotiate for peace with the US as well

132
Q

monroe doctrine

A

1823
warned European power to cease colonization of Central and South America or face military intervention by the US

in return, the US would not meddle in the political affairs of standing colonies in Europe

133
Q

missouri compromise

A

an effort by congress to defuse the sectional and political rivalries triggered by the request of Missouri late in 1819 for admission as a state in which slavery would be permitted

at the time, the US contained twenty-two states, evenly divided between 11 slave and 11 free

  • maine was bought on as a free state and the southern border of missouri was set as the northernmost line of any slave territory
  • western states could come in as free states
  • arkansas and floida could be slave states
134
Q

manifest destint

A

popular belief during the 1840’s that it was the right and duty of the US to expand westward to the pacific

135
Q

Andrew Jackson

A

the election of this president is seen as the beginning of the modern political party system as well as the start of the democratic party

136
Q

Indian Removal Act of 1830

A

took natives out of territories that whites wanted to settle

137
Q

trail of tears

A

removed cherokees from georgia and relocated them to oklahoma

138
Q

nullification

A

the right of states to nullify any federal laws that they thought unconstitutional

139
Q

whig party

A

party that started as an opposition to Jackson’s authoritarian policies

particularly concerned with defending the supremacy of Congress over the executive branch, states rights, economic protectionism, and modernization

140
Q

Susan B. Anthony

A

women’s rights and abolition activist

she lectured across the nation for suffrage, property and wage rights, and labor organizations for women

141
Q

Dorothea Dix

A

created the first American asylums

142
Q

Frederick Douglass

A

escaped slave who became an abolitionist leader, government official, and writer

143
Q

william lloyd garrison

A

abolitionist and the editor of the Liberator, a leading anti-slavery newspaper

144
Q

joseph smith

A

founded the latter day saints and wrote the book of mormon

145
Q

horace mann

A

leader of the common school movement that made public education a right for all americans

146
Q

elizabeth cady stanton

A

held the seneca falls convention in 1848

demanding women’s suffrage and other reforms

147
Q

compromise of 1850

A

calling upon the principle of popular sovereignty, allowed those who lived in Mexican cession to decide for themselves whether to be a slave or a free territory

148
Q

fugitive slave law of 1850

A

allowed slave owners to go into free states to retrieve their escaped slaves

149
Q

kansas-nebraska act of 1854

A

repealed the missouri compromise of 1820 and allowed the lands from the LA Purchase to settle the slavery issue by popular soverignty

150
Q

dred scott vs. sanford

A

ruled that congress had no authority to exclude slavery from territories, which in effect, meant that the MO Compromise had been unconsitutional

upheld property rights over human rights in the case of a slave who had been transported to a free state by his master, but was still considered a slave

151
Q

jefferson davis

A

the former US senator who was the president of the confederacy

152
Q

robert e lee

A

led the army of northern virginia and the central confederate force

153
Q

ulysses s. grant

A

received lee’s surrender at the appomattox court house in VA in april of 1865

154
Q

reconstruction

A

period from 1865 to 1877 during which the South was under strict control of the U.S. government

all state governments from the former confederacy were terminated and military occupation began

155
Q

13th ammendment

A

declared slavery illegal

156
Q

14th ammendment

A

made all persons born or naturalized in the U.S. citizens and forbade any state to interfere with their fundamental rights

157
Q

15th ammendment

A

made it illegal to deny individuals the right to vote on the grounds of race

158
Q

gilded age

A

period of enormous wealth and grossly opulent lifestyle enjoyed by a handful of powerful families

159
Q

two dates between which the US population doubled due to immigration

A

1860-1890

160
Q

progressive era

A

1890s-1920s

reform-minded political leaders who wanted to export a just and rational social order (democracy, humanity, cleaning up city govs, improve housing, healthy, edu) to the rest of the world while increasing trade with foreign markets

-national gov. strengthened, created lots of programs

161
Q

spanish-american wars

A

resulted because america sided with cuba for its independence struggle against Spain; resulted with Cuba, Puerto Rico, Philippines, and Guam becoming American territories + Hawaii

162
Q

open door

A

policy that the US had with China in 1900

163
Q

federal reserve system

A

1913

established to supervise banking and commerce

164
Q

fair trade commition

A

1914

established to ensure fair competition in banking and commerce

165
Q

19th ammendment

A

voting rights for women

166
Q

18th ammendment

A

prohibition

167
Q

decade of optimism

A

after WWI

life improved due to Henry Ford’s mass production, better roads, electric lights, airplanes, communications, etc

168
Q

reasons for the stock market crash

A

increased credit buying

bank war debts

huge gap between the rich/poor

belief that the stock market would always go up

169
Q

allies in WWI

A
britan
france
russia
greece
italy
romania
serbia
later the US
170
Q

central powers of WWI

A

germany

austria-hungary

bulgaria

turkey

171
Q

span of WWI

A

1914-1918

172
Q

the year that wilson declared war and the US entered WWI

A

1917

173
Q

axis powers WWI

A

germany
japan
italy
(until it changed to allied)

174
Q

allied powers WWI

A

US (in 1941); britain, free

France/colonies, Russia

175
Q

the truman doctrine

A

1947 policy designed to protect free peoples everywhere against oppression

176
Q

marshall plan

A

1948 policy that devoted $12 billion to rebuild western europe and strengthen its defenses

177
Q

the organization of the american states

A

established to bolster democratic relations in the Americas

178
Q

the berlin blockade

A

soviets tried to starve out west berlin, so the US provided massive supply drops by air

179
Q

north atlantic treaty organization

A

formed to militarily link the US and western Europe so that an attack on one was an attack on both

180
Q

the cuban missile crisis

A

stand-off between the US and the Soviet Union over a build-up of missiles in Cuba

eventually, soviets stopped their shipments and a nuclear war was averted

181
Q

year president kennedy was assassinated

A

1963

182
Q

year robert kennedy and MLK Jr were assassinated

A

1968

183
Q

spiro t. agnew

A

vice president who resigned in october 1973

184
Q

president appoints, senate ratification

A

process that is used to appoint a new VP

185
Q

separation of powers

A

power is divided among the three government branches: legislative, executive, judicial

186
Q

checks and balances

A

system that enforces the separation of powers and ensures that each branch has the authority and ability to restrain the powers of the other two branches

187
Q

judicial review

A

judges in the federal courts ensure that no act of government is in violation of the Constitution

if an act is unconstitutional, the judicial branch has the power to nullify it

188
Q

federalism

A

division of power between the central government and local governments, which limits the power of the federal government and allows states to deal with local problems

189
Q

classical republic

A

representative democracy

small groups of elected leaders represent the interests of the electorate

190
Q

oligarchy

A

small, usually self-appointed elite rules a region

191
Q

liberal democracy

A

government based on the consent of the people that protects individual rights and freedoms from any intolerance by the majority

192
Q

2nd amendment

A

right to bear arms

193
Q

3rd amendment

A

no quartering of soldiers

194
Q

4th amendment

A

search and seizure

195
Q

5th amendment

A

provisions regarding prosecution

196
Q

6th amendment

A

right to a speedy/public trial, calling of witnesses

197
Q

7th amendment

A

right to trail by jury

198
Q

8th amendment

A

freedom from excessive bail or cruel punishment

199
Q

9th amendment

A

these rights are not necessarily the only rights

200
Q

10th ammendment

A

powers not prohibited by the constitution are reserved to the states

201
Q

national powers

A

can coin money

regulate interstate and foreign trade

raise and maintain armed forces

declare war

govern US territories

admit new states

conduct foreign relations

202
Q

concurrent powers

A

can levy and collect taxes

borrow money

establish courts

define crimes

set punishments

claim private property for public use

203
Q

state powers

A

can regulate trade/business within the state

establish public schools

pass license requirements

regulate alcohol

conduct elections

establish local governments

204
Q

delegated powers

A

powers granted by the constitution

205
Q

enumerated powers

A

powers specifically spelled out in the constitution

206
Q

implied powers

A

powers not expressly stated in the constitution,but are reasonably suggested by the enumerated powers

207
Q

inherent

A

powers not expressed by the constitution but ones that the national govs have historically possessed, such as granting diplomatic recognition

208
Q

23 amendment

A

gave washington dc the power to vote

209
Q

21 amedment

A

ended prohibition

210
Q

26th amendment

A

set the minimum voting age at 18 years

211
Q

marbury v. madison

A

established judicial review as a power of the supreme court

212
Q

brown vs. board of education

A

1954
the court ruled that segregation was a violation of the Equal Protection Clause

“separate but equal” was unconstitutional

213
Q

plessy v. furguson

A

ruled that segregation was permitted as long as the facilities were equal; “separate but equal”

214
Q

miranda vs. arizona

A

1966

made the reading of miranda rights to those arrested for crimes the law–

215
Q

year of the gettysburg address

A

1863

216
Q

the fourteen points

A

made by woodrow wilson on january 18, 1918

outlined the plans for peach and the league of nations

217
Q

brandenburg gate speech

A

made by ronald reagan in 1987

contained the famous line “tear down this wall”

218
Q

northwest ordinance of 1787

A

established a government for the Northwest Territory

outlines the process for admitting a new state to the union

guaranteed that newly created states would be equal to the original thirteen states

219
Q

washington’s farewell address

A

emphasized neutrality

set precedent for two terms

warned against political parties

220
Q

the alien and sedition acts

A
  • made it harder for an immigrant to become a citizen (naturalization act)
  • allowed the president to imprison and deport non-citizens who were deemed dangerous (alien friends act) or who were from a hostile nation (alien enemies act)
  • criminalized making false statements that were critical of the federal government (sedition act)
221
Q

homestead act

A

encouraged western migration by providing settlers 160 acres of public land

in exchange, homesteaders paid a small filing fee and were required to complete five years continuous residence before receiving ownership of the land

222
Q

emancipation proclomation

A

delivered by Lincoln, declared that “all persons held as slaves” within the rebellious states “are, and henceforward shall be free”

223
Q

supply

A

the amount of product or serve available to customers

224
Q

demand

A

how much consumers are willing to pay for the product or service

225
Q

command economy

A

the type of economy where the government controls what and how much is produced, the methods for production, and the distribution of goods and services

226
Q

market economy

A

where producers make decisions about methods and distribution on their own

choices are made based on what will sell and bring in a profit in the marketplace

consumers ultimately affect these decisions by choosing whether or not to buy certain goods and services. US.

227
Q

factor market

A

consists of people who exchange their services for wages

people are sellers and companies are buyers

228
Q

product market

A

selling of products to the people who want to buy them

the people are buyers and the companies are sellers

creates a circular economic flow in which money goes from producers to work as wages, then flows back to producer in the form of payment for products

229
Q

information seeking behavior theory

A

students progress through levels of question specificity, from vague notions of the information needed to clearly defined needs or questions.
students are more successful in the search process if they have a realistic understanding of the information system and problem

230
Q

empirical research

A

original data gathering and analysis through direct observation or analysis

231
Q

reflex angle

A

angle with a degree measure greater than 180 but less than 360

232
Q

full angle

A

an angle with a degree measure of exactly 360 degrees

233
Q

triangle inequality theorem

A

the sum of the measures of any two sides of a triangle is always greater than the measure of the third side

234
Q

compound event

A

event that involved two or more independent events

235
Q

permutation

A

an arrangement of a specific number of a set of objects in a specific order

236
Q

combination

A

an arrangement of a specific number of a set of objects WITHOUT a specific order

237
Q

complement of an event

A

the probability that something will NOT happen

238
Q

conditional probability

A

the probability of an event once another event has already occurred

239
Q

expected value

A

method of determining expected outcome in a random situation

240
Q

empirical probability

A

number of times an outcome occurs in a particular experiment or a certain number of observed events

241
Q

theoretical probablility

A

based on what should happen

242
Q

discrete data

A

information that can only be expressed by a specific value (people can only be counted in whole numbers)

243
Q

continuous data

A

information that can be expressed by any value within a given range

244
Q

primary data

A

information that has been collected directly from a survey, investigation, or experiment

245
Q

secondary data

A

data that has been collected, sorted, and processed by the researcher

246
Q

standard deviation

A

expressed how spread out the values of a distribution are from the mean
high= values are spread out
low= values are close together

247
Q

the five essential elements of literacy

A

phonological awareness

phonics

fluency

vocabulary

comprehension

248
Q

fluency

A

the ability to read a text quickly, accurately, and with proper expression

249
Q

vocabulary

A

the knowledge of words and word meanings

250
Q

comprehension

A

alll of phonological awaress, phonics, fluency, and vocab

251
Q

graphemes

A

a small unit of written language that represents a speech sound (ex. a letter or a cluster of letters)

252
Q

phonemes

A

the smallest unit of speech, which makes a distinction between different words

253
Q

onset

A

the consonant/s preceding the vowel in a syllable; in a spoken syllable, the beginning consonant sound

254
Q

rime

A

in a spoken syllable, the vowel the consonant that comes after that vowel

255
Q

phonogram

A

rime written down

sounds written down

256
Q

morphemes

A

the smallest meaningful part of a language

257
Q

unvoiced consonants

A

do not cause a vibration of the vocal chords when you say them

ex. “f” in fat and “c” in come

258
Q

long vowel

A

say their names

ex. paint, bean

259
Q

short vowel

A

dont say their name

ex. cap, beg

260
Q

vowel digraph

A

there are two vowel letters, but you only hear one sound

261
Q

vowel dipthong

A

there are two vowel sounds, but you hear a blend of the two sounds

262
Q

schwa sound

A

when a vowel does not make its usual sound

263
Q

r-controlled vowels

A

whenever it follows a vowel, it makes the “r” sound

264
Q

consonant digraph

A

when there are 2-3 consonants, but you do not hear both of the sounds

ex. “ch” in chair

265
Q

consonant blend

A

when there are 2-3 consonants but they blend together so that you are able to hear each sound

ex. “bl” in blend

266
Q

word recognition skills

A
  1. sight vocabulary (high frequency words and decodable words)
  2. decoding ability
  3. words from context
267
Q

voiced consonants

A

does cause a vibration of the vocal chords when you say them

ex. “v” in vat/voice; “g” in gum

268
Q

receptive vocabulary

A

words one can identify when heard or read

269
Q

expressive vocabulary

A

words one can use in speaking or writing

270
Q

denotation

A

the literal meaning of a word

271
Q

connotation

A

the associations or feelings that a word communicates in addition to its literal meaning, and that can be positive or negative

272
Q

general academic vocabulary

A

words that are encountered in a variety of academic contexts

273
Q

domain-specific vocabulary

A

words that occur almost exclusively in a specific academic context (mathematical processes, scientific terms, geographic labels, etc)

274
Q

reading comprehension

A

a multifaceted thinking process; making meaning

275
Q

literal comprehension

A

basic, picks out main ideas, sequence, note similarities and differences, and states reasons

276
Q

inferential comprehension

A

use clues in the text, imply information, use personal background knowledge, make predictions, determine authors purpose

277
Q

critical comprehension

A

analyze symbolic meaning, distinguish fact from opinion, draw conclusions

278
Q

evaluative comprehension

A

most sophisticated, judge the value of a text against criteria, detect bias, faulty reasoning, determine effectiveness

279
Q

informational texts

A

also called nonfiction

a text presenting accurate information that was written to instruct readers

280
Q

literacy textss

A

use language that appeals to the senses far more than informational texts

differ from informational texts in many ways

come in genres; have settings, characters, plots, and themes; and use language in unique ways

281
Q

close reading

A

attending carefully to and analyzing a text; this process involves several readings of the same text and is usually guided by a teacher to build greater understanding of how an author has structured ideas and developed arguments or a point of view

282
Q

tier 1 vocabulary

A

basic words

common words, usually socially low frequency words, domain specific

283
Q

tier 2 vocabulary

A

school words, used more frequently in written language

high frequency words, found in many content areas