Bonus Flashcards

1
Q

Determining a client’s retirement objectives requires the following information:

A
  • The age at which the client wants to retire
  • The amount of income they hope to have in retirement
  • Whether they hope to travel during retirement
  • Where they want to live in retirement
  • How they will occupy their free time during retirement, such as with part-time work, hobbies, or looking after grandchildren
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2
Q

How is a guaranteed minimum withdrawal benefit product different from an annuity?

A

A GMWB resembles an annuity in that it provides a predictable, steady stream of income for a specified term or for the life of the annuitant. However, the two products differ in that, with an annuity, the investor gives a lump-sum premium to the insurance company in exchange for a guaranteed income that is calculated based on the premium amount, age of the annuitant, and interest rates at the time of purchase. With a GMWB, the investor retains control of the investment and has the option to cash out the market value at any time, forfeit all guarantees, and terminate the contract.

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3
Q

What is the guaranteed withdrawal balance under a guaranteed minimum withdrawal benefit product?

A

The guaranteed withdrawal balance under a GMWB product is 100% of the initial deposit amount, which represents the base on which income and bonuses are calculated.

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4
Q

What is correct regarding segregated funds and guarantees?

A

Guarantees do not apply to amounts that are withdrawn or redeemed from a segregated fund contract prior to the maturity date. The value of the guarantees is reduced by the withdrawal amounts, and the insurance company tracks the ongoing value of the guarantees.

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5
Q

Mutual funds vs segregated funds

A

Like mutual funds, segregated funds offer investors professional investment management, diversification, and the ability to invest small amounts. Segregated funds, however, also have unique features that enable them to meet special client needs, such as maturity guarantees, death benefits, and creditor protection.

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6
Q

Which organization is responsible for ensuring that federally regulated insurance companies are adequately capitalized?

A

Under the requirements of the federal Insurance Companies Act, OSFI (Office of the Superintendent of Financial Institutions) is responsible for ensuring that federally regulated insurance companies are adequately capitalized.

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7
Q

What impact does the reset provision have on the cost of operating and managing a segregated fund?

A

It raises the cost because resetting the guaranteed amount at a higher level increases the maturity and death benefit guarantees the issuer is liable for.

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8
Q

What are the tax considerations specific to a deferred annuity?

A

A deferred annuity can be surrendered at any time, and income tax is payable only on accumulated interest that has not been included in income. Contributions to an unregistered deferred annuity are not tax-deductible. Accrued investment income must be included in taxable income either annually or every three years, depending on the date the annuity was bought.

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9
Q

The real return is equal to?

A

(1 + the nominal return) ➗ (1 + the inflation rate) - 1

Example: Tammy’s portfolio had a nominal return of 7% last year. If the inflation rate last year was 1.5%, what was the real return on Tammy’s portfolio?

In this case, the real return is 5.42%, calculated as: [(1.07) / (1.015)] - 1 = 0.0542 = 5.42

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10
Q

If contested, which optional clause in a will is likely to be set aside by a court?

A

Although all clauses could be contested, the one of special interest to the court and most likely to be set aside is the guardian appointment clause. It is viewed by the court only as an expression of the testator’s wishes, but it is not binding on the court; the court will look out for the best interests of a minor child.

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11
Q

Which clause of a will would give the executor or liquidator discretion to use assets for the benefit of beneficiaries who are minors?

A

Under normal circumstances, beneficiaries who are minors are not entitled to estate assets until they become adults. A discretionary encroachment clause allows the executor to decide otherwise.

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12
Q

How can a beneficiary for an RRSP be normally designated in Quebec?

A

In Quebec, designating beneficiaries for an RRSP or a RRIF is generally allowed only in a will or marriage contract.

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13
Q

What is the main objective of an estate freeze?

A

To freeze the value of growth assets so that future growth occurs in the hands of the taxpayer’s children or spouse.

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14
Q

Identify the assumptions of mean-variance optimization.

A
  • All investors are risk-averse;
  • Investors have access to information on expected returns, standard deviations, and correlation of all assets;
  • Investors build their portfolios using only the expected returns, standard deviations, and correlation of assets;
  • There are no transaction costs or taxes.
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15
Q

What does the portfolio opportunity set represent?

A

The portfolio opportunity set represents the risk return trade-off between stocks and bonds, given their expected returns, standard deviations, and correlation.

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16
Q

What is the beta of a risk-free asset?

A

The risk-free asset, by definition, has no risk and therefore has a beta of 0.

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17
Q

Calculate the expected rates of return for Portfolio A and Portfolio B.

A

The expected rates of return are calculated as follows: Portfolio A:
E(RP) = RF + βP × [E(RM) - RF]
E(RP) = 2.5% + 0.62 × (7.6% - 2.5%)
E(RP) = 5.66%
Portfolio B:
E(RP) = 2.5% + 1.25 × (7.6% - 2.5%) E(RP) = 8.88%

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18
Q

The asset mix of Simero’s portfolio is 25% real estate, 35% bond and 40% equities. The expected returns are 10% for real estate, 4% for bonds and 7.5% for equities. Calculate the expected return of Simero’s portfolio.

A

Expected return = (0.25 x 10%) + (0.35 x 4%) + (0.40 x 7.5%) = 6.9%

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19
Q

Identify the correct relationship between the asset class’s correlation to the remainder of the portfolio and the relative width of the asset class’s tolerance band.

A

In a portfolio of highly correlated asset classes, the relative weights of each class are not likely to stray far from their targets, and tolerance bands can be wider. When correlation between a portfolio’s asset classes is low, it is possible for one asset class to move quite a distance from its target allocation. A narrow tolerance band is needed to control that class’s relative weight in the portfolio.

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20
Q

Identify the cost of rebalancing that is not as visible to clients.

A

Market impact.
Feedback: Trading involves other, less visible costs that many investors do not fully understand. Market cost, for example, is the effect of a buy or sell order on the market price of a security. It is rarely a factor for liquid stocks of large Canadian companies. But for most Canadian small-cap stocks, and for infrequently traded large-cap stocks, a large market order to buy or sell can affect the market price.

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21
Q

Identify the term that refers to strategic asset allocation.

A

Several terms are used in the investment industry to describe the steps in the asset allocation process. Strategic asset allocation is also called policy, passive, or benchmark asset allocation.

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22
Q

Identify a current valuation measure used by analysts to calculate expected risk premiums.

A

Price-earnings ratio and yield to maturity for debt.

Some analysts calculate expected risk premiums based on current valuation measures, such as the price-earnings (P/E) ratio for stocks and the yield to maturity for debt securities. For example, the stocks/bonds risk premium can be measured as the earnings yield on stocks (the inverse of the P/E ratio) minus the yield to maturity on long-term bonds.

Simplified Example:

Think of the P/E ratio like the price tag on a T-shirt relative to its quality, and YTM like the interest rate your bank gives you for a savings account. If the quality-to-price ratio for the T-shirt is a lot higher than the interest rate for saving your money, the difference is like the extra value you get for buying the T-shirt instead of saving the money.

Visual Tip for a Visual Learner:

Imagine a balance scale. On one side, there’s the earnings yield of stocks (like a pile of coins representing the earnings per share you buy). On the other side, there’s the YTM of bonds (like a different pile of coins representing the return on bonds). The side that tips lower shows you where the higher return is, and the difference in height between the two sides is the risk premium.

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23
Q

Identify a characteristic of preferred shares.

A

Because of their fixed claim on company assets and their fixed dividend rate, preferred shares are sensitive to interest rates. They tend to fall in value when interest rates go up and rise in value when interest rates go down

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24
Q

What is the key to successful sector rotation timing?

A

Identifying the industry leaders at each stage of the market cycle.

Feedback: Most industries move in the same direction at the same time, but the amount of movement is often quite different for different industries. The key to industry timing is to identify the industry leaders at each stage of the market cycle. Advisors can select industry groups on the basis of factors such as type of business, degree of economic sensitivity and exposure to international markets.

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25
Q

What is the name of a short research report on a company?

A

Flash

Feedback: Shorter, more frequently released research reports are often called comments, notes, or flashes. Analysts produce these brief reports in response to new information about a company. They may be released to publish an announcement made by the company or a rumour in the market, or to update investors during a quiet period.

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26
Q

Identify the type of valuation model that makes use of the dividend discount model.

A

Absolute valuation models determine a precise value (called a point estimate) for the intrinsic value of a stock based on a set of forecast company fundamentals. In the securities industry, the two most widely used absolute valuation models are the dividend discount model and discounted cash flow model.

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27
Q

Identify a characteristic of an option-free bond’s convexity.

A

For an option-free bond, the change in value resulting from the convexity term is always positive.

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28
Q

Identify the type of bond that has a Macaulay duration equal to its term to maturity.

A

The Macaulay duration of a zero-coupon bond (including strip bonds) is equal to the bond’s term to maturity (in years).

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29
Q

Identify the correct statement(s) regarding a bond’s interest rate risk.

A
  • It decreases with a higher coupon payment.
  • It increases with a longer term to maturity.

Feedback: The amount of the price change of a debt security due to a change in interest rates is related both to the term to maturity and to the coupon rate. In general, the longer the term to maturity and the lower the coupon rate, the higher the interest rate risk.

30
Q

Calculate the price change in a $5,000 bond with a 4% coupon and a modified duration of 3.4 if yields rise by 0.75%.

A

A. -$150.00.
The correct answer is: B. -$127.50.
:C. -$112.50.
D. -$161.25.

Feedback: (-3.4) (0.0075) ($5,000) = -$127.50.
Reference | Chapter 21: Debt Securities: Pricing, Volatility, and Strategies

31
Q

A firm’s retail trading desk is buying bond inventory and offering it out to retail investors. Identify the function that the trading desk is performing.

A

This retail trading desk is operating as a profit centre: the retail desk buys inventory and offers it out with the intent of earning a profit. The profit on the trades cover its operating costs.

32
Q

Identify the type of yield curve shift that occurs when one end of the yield curve moves up or down while yields at the other end move in the opposite direction.

A

A twist occurs when yields toward one end of the yield curve move up or down by more than yields at the other end. It also occurs when yields at one end move up or down while yields at the other end move in the opposite direction. Twists cause the yield curve to either steepen or flatten.

33
Q

Identify the theory which states that credit spreads are affected by the economic cycle.

A

The quality spread theory attempts to explain the behaviour of credit spreads. This theory is based on the view that credit spreads are affected by the economic cycle. During an economic recovery, the perception of the quality and safety of non-Government of Canada issues improves. Investors are more comfortable shifting funds to riskier assets to generate higher returns. As more money moves into non-Government of Canada issues, the price relative to Canada bonds rises and spreads begin to tighten. Conversely, during an economic downturn, the perception of the quality and safety of non-Government of Canada issues falls. Investors shift funds back into government debt, a phenomenon known as a flight to quality.

34
Q

Identify the correct statement regarding price and yield of an option-free bond.

A

A fundamental property of all option-free bonds is that bond yields are inversely related to bond prices. That is, all else being equal, when the yield of a bond increases, the price falls, and when the yield falls, the price increases.

35
Q

Identify the bond trading strategy that involves swapping largely similar bonds where the investor has identified mispriced securities.

A

Intramarket spread strategies, also known as substitution swaps, involve swapping bonds that are largely similar. The reason for the swap may be that the investor has identified mispriced securities. Alternatively, they may see relative value differences between two bonds from two different issuers in the same business sector.

36
Q

Why might an advisor suggest a managed product for a client?

A

The client wants to invest in an Asian country where information about securities is unreliable.

Clients who want to invest in individual securities outside of Canada and the United States may have difficulty finding a broker who can carry out trades in a foreign country. It can also be difficult to get adequate information about foreign securities. For these clients, managed products consisting of foreign securities may offer a solution.

37
Q

What organization classifies mutual funds in Canada?

A

The classification of mutual funds in Canada is carried out by the Canadian Investment Funds Standards Committee (CIFSC) which comprises Canada’s major mutual fund database and research firms. Because there are no industry-standardized categories for mutual funds in Canada, the CIFSC has a self-imposed mandate to standardize the classifications of Canadian-domiciled mutual funds.

38
Q

What is an advantage to an ETF of using swaps instead of futures contracts?

A

Swaps are much more flexible than exchange-traded derivatives. The swap maturity can be tailored to exactly what the ETF needs, especially for time horizons several years out.

39
Q

A Canadian investor must file form T1135 if they own certain foreign property with a total cost over what amount?

A

$100,000

40
Q

When conducting due diligence for hedge funds, what does assessing operational risk involve?

A

Advisors should identify the fund’s service providers and determine whether they are reputable.

Feedback: When conducting due diligence relating to operational risk, find out how big the fund management firm is and whether there is adequate segregation of duties. There should also be sufficient checks and balances in operational controls to limit the chance of fraudulent activity. Finally, you should identify the fund’s service providers and determine whether they are reputable.

41
Q

Why is the question of investor suitability more important for hedge funds than traditional managed products?

A

The question of investor suitability is important for hedge funds because they are less regulated than traditional investments.

42
Q

Which service provider performs scenario analysis and stress testing to hedge fund managers?

A

The prime broker.

Many prime brokers also provide risk measures directly to managers or large institutional investors. These measures usually go beyond those provided to investors by hedge funds or those calculated by hedge fund analysts. They tend to be forward-looking or based on scenario analysis and stress testing.

43
Q

A Canadian study examined returns over a 10-year period for Canadian mutual funds. What did this study determine reduced long-term investment returns the most?

A

Taxes.

Feedback: A study that was published in the Canadian Tax Journal examined returns over a 10-year period for 343 equity and balanced mutual funds managed by Canadian companies and marketed predominantly to Canadian investors. The authors noted that Canadian mutual funds do not have to disclose their after-tax investment returns. After making some general assumptions about the tax rates of investors in the fund, the authors found that taxes reduce long-term investment returns to a greater extent than management fees and brokerage commissions.

44
Q

Identify the correct statement about survivorship bias.

A

With survivorship bias, average and moderately good managers look like ever-increasing underperformers as the historical period involved in the comparison lengthens.

45
Q

If a portfolio has a positive Jensen’s alpha, what can be said about the portfolio’s Treynor ratio?

A

When a portfolio has a positive Jensen’s alpha, its Treynor ratio will be greater than the Treynor ratio of the portfolio’s benchmark, thereby indicating the same result.

The Treynor Ratio specifically measures the return earned in excess of the risk-free rate per unit of market risk (as represented by the portfolio’s beta).

It is not true that more risk always leads to more profit. High-risk investments can lead to higher returns, but they can also lead to greater losses. The Treynor Ratio is a way to evaluate if the extra returns are worth the extra risk compared to the benchmark. If two portfolios have the same level of risk but one has a higher Treynor Ratio, it managed to use that level of risk more effectively to generate returns.

46
Q

Identify the drawbacks to using a benchmark portfolio.

A
  • Exclusion of rebalancing transaction costs overstate benchmark returns.
  • They induce a manager to become a closet indexer.

Feedback: Managers know that penalties for underperforming are more severe (they can be fired by the client) than rewards for outperforming, particularly with asset value-based fee structures. This produces incentive to avoid the risks inherent in security selection and market timing and instead mimic the benchmark. Every time the index is rebalanced, transaction costs are implied. If the benchmark is to represent a legitimate alternative to the portfolio under evaluation, to keep the comparison fair, reasonable transaction costs incorporating the initial investment and ongoing rebalancing have to be deducted from returns. Without an adjustment for transaction costs, the benchmark is biased against the manager.

47
Q

Last year an investor’s portfolio returned -3%. The portfolio had a strategic asset allocation of 5% cash, 35% debt securities and 60% equity securities. Last year the benchmark indexes for each of these asset classes had the following returns:
Asset Class
Benchmark Return
FTSE Canada 91-Day T-Bill Index 1% FTSE Canada Universe Bond Index 5%
Cash
Debt Securities
Equity Securities S&P/TSX Composite Total Return Index -9%
Calculate how much the investor’s portfolio outperformed or underperformed its benchmark.

A

Feedback: Benchmark return: (5% × 1%) + (35% × 5%) + (60% × -9%) = -3.6% The investor’s portfolio outperformed the benchmark by 0.60%.
Reference | Chapter 23: Portfolio Monitoring and Performance Evaluation

48
Q

Over the last 5 years, ABC Fund had an average return of 5% and a standard deviation of 3%. Over this same time period, the average risk-free return was 2%. What is ABC Fund’s Sharpe ratio?

A

Feedback: Sharpe ratio = (5 – 2)/3 = 1.

49
Q

Generally, how often should an advisor review the account of a client who actively trades?

A

Clients who like to trade actively may need frequent informal reviews, most of which take place during telephone conversations.

50
Q

At what point should an advisor monitor the economy and financial market forecasts if the client is invested for the long-term?

A

Monitor and assess the economic and financial markets forecasts frequently. If the forecast changes materially, the client’s strategic asset allocation may be affected and the advisor will need to react.

51
Q

A portfolio has a market value of $1.45 million at the end of June and $1.64 million at the end of September. In July, $35,000 was contributed to the portfolio. Assuming that all contributions occurred at the beginning of the period, calculate the return on the portfolio.

A

Feedback: Return = ($1,640,000 – $1,450,000 - $35,000)/($1,450,000 + $35,000) = $155,000/$1,485,000 = 0.104377 = 10.44%.

52
Q

Identify the problem with reporting returns gross of fees rather than returns net of fees.

A

Returns gross of fees for performance-based fee structures overstate performance when the portfolio performs well.

Feedback: Returns gross of fees for performance-based fee structures generally overstate superior performance to a greater degree than asset value–based fees because a larger fee would be paid to the performance-based manager when the portfolio performs well.

53
Q

What are the primary services offered to high-net-worth households by full-service brokerage firms?

A

Investment planning and management.

The primary services offered by FSB firms to HNW households continue to revolve around investment planning and investment management services, both discretionary and nondiscretionary.

54
Q

Which task takes place during the first stage of the wealth management process?

A

Educating the client is part of the first stage of the wealth management process, understanding the client.

55
Q

Which characteristics are examples of means values?

A

Ambition and independence are means values (the actions we take in the present to achieve a future goal).

56
Q

Which characteristics are examples of end values?

A

Self-respect and social recognition are end values (which represent the goals toward which we strive and influence how we act today to achieve tomorrow’s goals).

57
Q

When resolving an ethical dilemma, which resolution principle involves the use of a cost-benefit analysis to determine who will benefit and who will not?

A

Ends-based ethical thinking.

In situations where ethical principles conflict, resolution principles are applied: ends-based, rules-based, social contract-based, and personalistic. Ends-based ethical thinking, if followed, would result in the greatest good for the greatest number of people. Determining who will benefit and who will not demands a kind of cost-benefit analysis.

58
Q

Which item or items are likely to be included in a letter of agreement between an advisor and a client?

A
  1. The client’s obligations.
  2. The advisor’s compensation structure.

A letter of agreement ensures that the client understands the services the advisor will deliver and the client’s obligation to provide accurate and complete information in return. The agreement also ensures that the client understands the cost of the advisor’s services and that any other professionals retained will have to be compensated.

59
Q

Which statement is correct regarding an acceptable gross debt service ratio by most lenders?

A

Total shelter costs must not exceed 32% of gross income.

A GDSR of 32% or less is considered acceptable by most lenders.
GDSR = Total shelter costs (mortgage payments + property taxes + heating costs + 50% of any condominium fees) / gross income

60
Q

What is a key characteristic of interest-only loans?

A

An interest-only loan has no amortization period. Also known as a straight-line mortgage (where the principal portion is unchanged), it is primarily used in bridge financing rather than regular mortgages.

61
Q

When a residential property is purchased, what fees are generally included in closing costs?

A
  1. Legal fees.
  2. Appraisal fees.
  3. Home inspection fees.
62
Q

Which governmental entity has legislative responsibility for marriage?

A

The federal government has legislative responsibility for marriage in Canada.

63
Q

Which technique can be used most effectively to manage time diversification risk?

A

Increase the number of years of returns in the same portfolio.

Time diversification works in the same way as diversification among assets, except that the “assets” are the different years of returns in the same portfolio.

64
Q

According to the Life Cycle Hypothesis,

A

The family life cycle argues that the demand on goods and services that an individual requires does not depend solely on his or her age but where he or she is in the family life cycle.

Note the following about the eight categories:
• No distinction between married and unmarried couples.
• No distinction between opposite-sex and same-sex couples.

65
Q

Which actions are effective income-splitting techniques?

A
  • Paying a reasonable salary to a family member working in one’s business.
  • Generating capital gains in the hands of one’s child.

Feedback: Paying a reasonable salary to a family member working in one’s business and generating capital gains in the hands of one’s child are effective income-splitting techniques.

66
Q

Which loss or losses can be carried back three years or forward for 10 or 20 years and applied against other sources of income?

A

Allowable business investment losses can be carried back three years and forward for up to 10 years, and non-capital losses can be carried back three years and forward for up to 20 years. Both can be applied against other income.

67
Q

In two-parent families, which parent can claim the childcare expense tax deduction?

A

If more than one person supports the child, the deduction must be claimed by the person with the lower net income, subject to some exceptions.

68
Q

How is the marginal tax rate calculated?

A

The marginal tax rate represents the tax rate applicable to each additional dollar of income a taxpayer earns. It is calculated by dividing the change in tax payable by the change in income.

69
Q

Your clients Eartha and Vanya opened a registered education savings plan for their newborn son, Michael. Over the next three years, Eartha and Vanya plan to make the following contributions: $1,000, $1,500, and $2,500. What amount of cumulative Canada Education Savings Grant will they be able to carry forward at the end of the three years?

A
70
Q

What is one characteristic of a deferred profit-sharing plan?

A

An employer establishes a DPSP and makes contributions to the plan out of business profits. Since 1991, a DPSP cannot allow employee contributions. All payments received by an employee from a DPSP (other than employee contributions made before 1991) are taxable as ordinary income.

71
Q

Paola, a single 67-year-old, receives the Guaranteed Income Supplement benefit. She has a part-time job and earned $7,000 this year. By which amount will Paola’s GIS benefit be reduced?

A

The GIS benefit is reduced by approximately $1 for every $2 of other income. There is a full exemption for the first $5,000 of employment earnings to encourage participation in the labour market. Another partial exemption of 50% applies on up to $10,000 of additional employment income. In Paola’s case, her GIS reduction for the year is $500, calculated as follows: $7,000 - $5,000 (full exemption) = $2,000 - $1,000 (partial exemption of 50%) = $1,000 ÷ 2 = $500.

72
Q

Which statements about a registered retirement savings plan are correct?

A
  • A plan holder cannot take advantage of the dividend tax credit on dividend income earned within an RRSP.
  • 100% of capital gains earned within an RRSP are taxable upon withdrawal.

The entire amount of funds withdrawn from an RRSP is fully taxable upon withdrawal. The identity of income earned within an RRSP, whether dividends, interest, or capital gains, does not matter.