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Pathology 2 > Bones, joints, & soft tissue (slides 1-65) > Flashcards

Bones, joints, & soft tissue (slides 1-65) Flashcards

0
Q

smooth muscle tumors particularly affect what demographic

A

women of child bearing age

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1
Q

what is osteomyelitis

A

infection of bone marrow

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2
Q

true or false; blood is connective tissue

A

true

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3
Q

What is dysostosis

A

development anomaly of bone

  • abnormal mesenchymal migration
  • defective ossification of fetal cartilage
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4
Q

What is aplasia

A

absent or incomplete development of organ tissues/system

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5
Q

true or false; dysostosis (development anomaly of bone) is associated with aplasia

A

true

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6
Q

What is dysplasia? What is it associated with?

A

Mutations interfere with growth

Associated with dwarfism

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7
Q

True or false; Dysplasia (mutations interfering with growth) can cause dwarfism via bone or cartilage mutations

A

true

bone-osteodysplasia
cartilage- chondrodysplasia

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8
Q

What is Sprengel’s deformity? What is it associated with?

A

Undescended scapula

Klippel-Feil syndrome (form of dysostosis)

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9
Q

What is Klippel-Feil syndrome

A

An idiopathic congenital fusion (any 2 cervical vertebrae) form of dysostosis

-Sprengel’s deformity - undescended scapula

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10
Q

What is the MC congenital malformation of the limbs?

A

Syndactyly (fusion of digits)

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11
Q

Autosomal dominant disorders typically effect what?

A

structural proteins

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12
Q

Autosomal recessive disorders typically effect what?

A

Enzymatic proteins

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13
Q

What is another name for osteogenesis imperfecta

A

brittle bone disease

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14
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease) causes mutations of what structural protein

A

collagen type 1

autosomal dominant

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15
Q

What disease causes bluish discoloration of sclera

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease)

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16
Q

What are the types of osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease)

A

Type 1 - normal lifespan
Type 2 - lethal in utero (cerebral hemorrhage)

Both involve type 1 collagen mutations

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17
Q

True or false; osteogenesis imperfecta is a contraindication to extremity adjusting

A

true (brittle bone disease)

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18
Q

What is the MC form of dwarfism

A

Achondroplasia

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19
Q

True or false; achondroplasia (MC form of dwarfism) is caused by the FBFR3 gene mutation

A

true

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20
Q

What disease is commonly associated with bullet vertebrae, scoliosis, and spinal stenosis

A

achondroplasia

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21
Q

What is thanatophoric dwarfism?

A

fatal form of achondroplasia

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22
Q

What does osteopetrosis cause in osteoclast activity

A

decreases osteoclast-mediated bone reabsorption

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23
Q

True or false; osteopetrosis causes “stone-like” bones making them harder but not stronger (increasing risk of fractures)

A

true

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24
Q

True or false; osteoporosis is commonly associated with hepatoslenomegaly

A

false; common in osteopetrosis (due to increased blood production because medullary cavity of bone is being filled with bone cells)

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25
Q

Along with Gaucher disease what pathology can cause erlenmeyer flask deformity

A

osteopetrosis

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26
Q

What is the most important form of osteopenia

A

osteoporosis

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27
Q

What is osteopenia

A

the subtle reduction of bone mineral density - (not full blown osteoporosis)

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28
Q

What is the MC type of osteoporosis

A

Senile, post-menopausal

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29
Q

What are some examples of secondary causes of osteoperosis

A

hyperparathyroidism
Nutrient deficiency
drug exposure - alcohol, smoking

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30
Q

How could hyperparathyroidism cause osteoporosis

A

As PTH goes up so dose calcium - this calcium comes from bone

31
Q

True or false; osteoporosis MC impacts trabecular (spongy) bone

A

true

32
Q

What are the 2 MC areas you’ll find osteoporosis

A 
Vertebral body (old people shrinking) 
Femoral neck (fractured hip)
33
Q

When does loss of bone density begin?

A

mid 20s (.05% per year)

34
Q

True or false; senile or post-menopausal osteoporosis is caused by decreased growth factors and decreased osteoblast activity

A

true

35
Q

What is Dowager’s hump? What are some complications of it?

A

Vertebral compression (kyphosis) due to senile osteoporosis

Can lead to issues with pneumonia

36
Q

Why is it that a femoral neck fracture often leads to death in the next year

A

Due to immobilization - collection of blood clots in lower extremity - pulmonary embolism

37
Q

True or false; osteoporosis can be diagnosed following an X-ray

A

False; you can see the effects of osteoporosis (loss of bone density) but patient would need to complete a T-score exam or DEXA scan

38
Q

Regular exercise prior to age 30, dietary calcium and Vitamin D supplementation, bisphosphates consumption are all preventative measures for what disease?

A

Osteoporosis

39
Q

What disease is associated with a lytic phase - mixed lytic and blastic phase - exhaustion of cellular activity causing a “shaggy” bone appearance

A

paget disease

40
Q

What is paget’s disease?

A

Excessive bone formation - disorganized - “shaggy” bone appearance - excessive osteoclastic activity

41
Q

True or false; 70-90% of Paget disease causes pain and discomfort

A

false; 70-90% of cases are asymptomatic

42
Q

If a patient with Paget’s disease did show pain symptoms where is the MC area?

A

Bone pain in neck and back

43
Q

80% of cases of Paget’s disease involve what part of skeleton?

A

axial skeleton or femur

44
Q

At what age is Paget disease MC diagnosed

A

70

45
Q

The Mosaic pattern or “jigsaw puzzle” appearance in histological sections of bone is associated with what disease

A

paget disease

46
Q

The “ivory vertebra sign” is associated with what disease?

A

paget disease

47
Q

What is the difference between rickets and osteomalacia

A

Rickets - vitamin D deficiency in children

Osteomalacia - vitamin D deficiency in adults - associated with hyperparathyroidism

48
Q

What are the 2 types of hyperparathyroidism

A

Primary- autonomous PTH production

Secondary- renal failure - mild

49
Q

What is the most common form of non-malignant cause of hypercalcemia

A

Hyperparathyroidism

50
Q

True or false; >50% of hyperparathyroidism is asymptomatic

A

true (MC in women)

51
Q

A “salt and pepper skull” on X-ray and a brown “tumor” (not actual neoplasm - replaced bone with loose connective tissue) are signs of what?

A

Hyperparathyroidism

52
Q

True or false; complete fractures are MC in children

A

false; Incomplete are most common in children

53
Q

infections are most common in what kind of fracture?

A

compound

54
Q

True or false; subchondral areas including: hip, knee, shoulder, wrist, and ankle are all areas especially susceptible to avascular necrosis

A

true (especially rounded areas)

55
Q

What is osteomyelitis? Is acute or chronic more common?

A

Bone-marrow inflammation

Chronic is MC

56
Q

What is the MC mode of infection in osteomyelitis (bone marrow inflammation)

A

Hematogenous (sepsis)

57
Q

What is the MC cause of pyogenic infections in Osteomyelitis (bone marrow infection)

A

Staph aureus (E. coli & Group B stept - neonates) (Salmonella - sickle cell disease)

58
Q

Why would a patient with Sickle cell disease be very susceptible to a Salmonella infection

A

Sickle cell disease causes spleen to be over-worked and spleen protects us from salmonella infections

59
Q

What is the name for the reactive woven bone surrounding infected bone in pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

involucrum

60
Q

What is the name of the dead bone at the site of infection in pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

sequestrum

61
Q

What is the name for the ruptured periosteum leads to an abscess in the surrounding soft tissue in a pyogenic osteomyelitis infection

A

Draining sinus

62
Q

Tuberculous osteomyelitis is MC spread how?

A

Hematogenous spread

63
Q

Pott disease is common which kind of osteomyelitis

A

Tuberculous osteomyelitis

64
Q

True or false; primary bone tumors are more common than secondary

A

false; secondary are more common (spread from somewhere else)

65
Q

What does pyrexia mean? What about cachexia?

A

Pyrexia - fever

Cachexia - wasting syndrome

66
Q

Osteosaroma, chondrosarcoma, and ewing sarcoma are all examples of what?

A

Primary bone cancers

67
Q

True or false; benign bone tumors are MC than malignant

A

true

68
Q

What is the MC bone tumor

A

osteochondroma

69
Q

True or false; RB or TP53 gene mutations are associated with bone tumors

A

true

70
Q

True or false; bone tumors MC develop early and are malignant and painful

A

False; develop early BUT are benign and asymptomatic

71
Q

Where are osteosarcomas most commonly found

A

> 50% at knee

72
Q

Osteoma are MC where? What are they?

A

MC on head

Completely benign, non-invasive superficial mass

73
Q

What is the main location difference between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma

A

Osteoid osteoma - smaller and on proximal femur

Osteoblastoma - larger usually found on vertebrae

74
Q

Osteoid osteoma are associated with what kind of pain? What relieves it?

A

Well-localized nocturnal pain, aspirin relieves (smaller tumor)

75
Q

Osteoblastomas are associated with what kind of pain? Does aspirin relieve it?

A

Larger tumor - mild/poorly-localized pain - unrelieved by aspirin

Pathology 2 (5 decks)

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