Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Path > bone and skeletal > Flashcards

bone and skeletal Flashcards

1
Q

Bone infarcts, Location is in multiple sites.

A

Avascular Bone Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Involves head of the femur and results in destruction

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Occurs in young adults/teens – Males more than females – Usually involves metaphysis of long bones

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  • Knee joint in 50% of cases – Metastasizes to lungs – Requires surgery and chemotherapy to achieve a 60% 5 year survival.
A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Infection of the bone (most often bacterial) – Can follow an acute (ill person) or chronic course – Several bacteria can cause but Staph most common * TB, Syphilis, etc.

A

Osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  • Staphylococcal aureus pattern most common – Typically infects the vascular metaphysis – Children more than adults and males more than females – The site becomes pus filled and bony pieces become sequestered in the abscess and provide a place for bacteria to live – Long bones and vertebra are common sites – Believed bacteria are initially blood born and then colonize the bone.
A

Osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  • Regardless is an important entity for a massage therapist to be aware of as guess what the clinical presentation includes? – Right………back pain – May be ill * Fever, etc. – If chronic mat not be ill and will be a pain that does not respond to MSK treatment.
A

Discitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bone defect caused by mutations of the gene for collagen I – ‘Brittle bone disease’

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Defined as softening of bones as a result of inadequate mineralization of the organic matrix (osteoid) * Also called ‘rickets’ * Etiology is Vitamin D deficiency –
- bow legged appearance

A

Osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  • Loss of continuity of bone * Usual due to trauma or high energy event
A

Fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

fractures that occur when a bone breaks unusually or with minimal to no force due to bone weakening disease

A

Pathological fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

fracture with no break in skin

A

Closed fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

fracture with skin broken

A

Open/ compound fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fractured in more than two pieces

A

Comminuted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Partial fracture Impacted One side of fracture driven into the interior of other side.

A

Greenstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

microscopic fissures from repeated strenuous activities.

A

Stress fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Formation of fracture hematoma – damaged blood vessels produce clot in 6-8 hours, bone cells die – inflammation brings in phagocytic cells for clean-up duty – new capillaries grow into damaged area

A

Repair of a Fracture begining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Formation of fibrocartilaginous callus formation – fibroblasts invade the procallus & lay down collagen fibers – chondroblasts produce fibrocartilage to span the broken ends of the bone

A

Repair of a Fracture From day 1 to week 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Formation of bony callus – osteoblasts secrete spongy bone that joins 2 broken ends of bone

A

Repair of a Fracture From week 4 to month 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bone remodeling – compact bone replaces the spongy in the bony callus – surface is remodeled back to normal shape

A

Month 4 to ?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Multifactorial disease characterized by absolute reduction of the total bone mass with no known direct cause

A

Primary Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

reduction of total bone mass due to another disease process or medication or immobilization

A

Secondary Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common osteoporosis fractures are:

A

HIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chronic disease of unknown etiology characterized by irregular restructuring of bone and subsequent thickening and deformities of bones – Likely due to malfunctioning osteoclasts

A

Paget’s Disease (Osteitis Deformans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

has a poor blood supply and missed fracture can lead to necrotic bone – Snuff box tenderness

A

Scaphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Osteoporosis risk factors:

A
  • Age – Greater risk in those older than 85 years * one third have osteoporosis
  • Women > men – especially after menopause
  • Race – Caucasians and Asians at greater risk
  • Peak bone density
  • Smoking – Smoker’s have increased risk of osteoporosis * Alcohol * Diet and lifestyle * Hormones * Diabetes mellitus Causes of Secondary Osteoporosis * Hormonal disturbances – excess of cortisol, deficiency of sex hormones * Dietary disorders – vitamin C or calcium deficiency, malabsorption of food * Immobilization – Astronauts * Drugs – anticonvulsants, anticoagulants (e.g., heparin), corticosteroids * Tumors – breast cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

this is reached in 20’s so diet and activity level in youth important in cause/prevention especially in women

A

Peak bone density

28
Q

Fragile vertebra fracture in a wedge shape * Can be the result of

A
  • Chronic disease of unknown etiology characterized by irregular restructuring of bone and subsequent thickening and deformities of bones – Likely due to malfunctioning osteoclasts
29
Q
  • Three phases of Paget’s Disease (Osteitis Deformans)
A
  • Three phases – Destructive phase * Bone is resorbed

– Mixed phase * Both bone resorption and abnormal formation

– Osteosclerotic phase * Abnormal formation of bone * Irregular shaped osteons.

30
Q

Defined as the breakdown of cartilage due to imbalance of synthesis and degradation with minimal inflammation

A

Osteoarthritis

31
Q

Involved joints are characterized by – Narrowed joint space – Subchondral sclerosis – Subchondral cysts – Osteophyte formation

A

Osteoarthritis

32
Q

– Most common joint disease – Also called ‘degenerative joint disease’ – Disease of old age – Affects weight-bearing big joints but also small joints of hands and feet

A

Osteoarthritis

33
Q

Osteoarthritis most commonly involved.

A

Most commonly involved joints – Knee – Hip – 1 st MCP joint – DIP joints * Haberden’s nodes – Facet joints of the C spine and L spine.

34
Q

Osteoarthritis Risks include

A

– Age – Gender * More males than females less than 45 but more females than males greater than 55 – Previous injury – Chronic loading * Laborers who kneel for most of their work have greater risk of OA of the knee – Obesity

35
Q

Osteoarthritis Clinical presentation – Joints feel stiff and sore but are not very swollen or red – Pain is worse both after inactivity and with prolonged activity * Sore in the morning and at the end of the day * Treatment – Improve strength/flexibility around the joint

A

– Joints feel stiff and sore but are not very swollen or red – Pain is worse both after inactivity and with prolonged activity * Sore in the morning and at the end of the day * Treatment – Improve strength/flexibility around the joint

36
Q

Osteoarthritis treatment

A

Treatment – Improve strength/flexibility around the joint

37
Q
  • Chronic systemic disease of unknown etiology that has autoimmune characteristics and involves: – Chronic, symmetric inflammation of joints
A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

38
Q

– Significant laboratory findings indicative of immune disorder * Like many thought to be immune disorders a triggering infection is felt to be part of the disease process

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

39
Q

– Variable extra-articular findings * Involves more than just joints

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

40
Q
  • Clinical presentation – Slow onset that often begins with systemic manifestations of fatigue, generalized weakness, myalgias, and arthralgias
A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

41
Q

– Joints eventually worsen with deformity, loss of ROM, and pain

– Variable severity and rapidity of development

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

42
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis * Clinical findings

A

non joint – Rheumatoid nodules * Likely granulomas that most often form on extensor surfaces of the limbs but can occur anywhere

43
Q
  • Massage – Rheumatoid arthritis
A

suffers can benefit from the effects of massage especially in the maintenance of joint ROM, relief of muscle spasms, and perhaps reduction of edema

44
Q

Massage – Rheumatoid arthritis MUST KNOW

A

the vulnerability of the C1-C2 joint * Instability and fragility of the ligaments develop over time and care must be taken when treating the neck of a RA patient so that no extreme ROM or stretching is performed.

45
Q

RA vs OS

A

RA presents with symmetrical joint involvement, prolonged morning stiffness, significant inflammation, and systemic symptoms due to its autoimmune nature.

The only axial involvement occurs in the first and second cervical vertebrae and can lead to instability and even neurological complications if not properly managed.

OA presents with asymmetrical joint involvement, pain that worsens with activity, shorter Moring stiffness, and localized symptoms due to joint wear and tear.

46
Q

Gout - Podagra – Characteristic presentation of gout

A

Swelling and pain of first metatarsophalangeal joint of the foot

  • Hyperuricemia – High levels of uric acid in the blood or rapid elevation of uric acid
47
Q

Deposition of urate crystals in tissues; inflammation of joints * Effects men more than women (post menopausal women get gout) * Uric acid is part of break down of nucleic acids

A

Gout

48
Q

Bacteria infection of the joint space * Acute onset of red, swollen, painful joint, and low grade fever * Bacteria invade joint from the bloodstream or from introduction to the joint through a break in the skin

A

Septic Arthritis

49
Q

Rickets is known as

A

Osteomalacia.

50
Q
  • Considered a medical emergency as joint destruction can occur rapidly and permanent damage can result.
A

Septic Arthritis

51
Q

Thickened and deformed bones due to abnormal restructuring of the bone, is a characteristic of

A

Paget’s disease.

52
Q

The supplementation with vitamin D is to prevent

A

osteomalacia.

53
Q

Compression fracture is associated with

A

osteoporosis.

54
Q

which two concurrent complaints go with discitis

A

back pain and fever

55
Q

Which joint is NOT a joint usually affected by degenerative joint disease (osteoarthritis)

A

Elbow

56
Q

When surgery is required to align the bony peaces of a fracture its called

A

open reduction

57
Q

Inflammation and pain in the 1st metatarsal phalangeal joint of the foot due to gout is known as

A

podagra

58
Q

when presentation is more likely rheumatoid arthritis

A

Symmetrical joint involvment

59
Q

Congenital “brittle bone disease” is known as

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

60
Q

A pathological fracture is important to identify because

A

the underlying disease must be identified

61
Q

Bacterial infection of the bone is known as

A

Osteomyelitis

62
Q

Rheumatoid nodules are

A

granulomas found on extensor surfaces

63
Q

You observe a person drinking coffee and their hands look very malformed. they appear to have ulnar deviation of their wrists with swan neck deformities of their fingers. this person may be suffering from

A

rheumatoid athritis

64
Q

which metabolic product is the underlying problem in gout

A

uric acid

65
Q

An imbalance between the synthesis and degradation of cartilage is the underlying cause of

A

Osteoarthritis

66
Q
A
67
Q
A

Path (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions