Body Defence Mechanisms and Microbes Flashcards

1
Q

Complement Cascade

A
  • Non-specific
  • Activated by antibodies
  • Group of 30 proteins - c3 to c5a most important
  • Steps of activation:
    1. Lysis: damage cell walls by poking holes
    2. Opsonization: coat bacteria with opsonins (C3b) to facilitate recognition and phagocytosis
    3. Reactivation of leukocytes and attraction of phagocytes through chemotaxis
    4. Immune clearance
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2
Q

Non-specific Mechanism

A
  1. Mechanical and Physiological barriers (skin, mucosa, nasal hair, stomach acid, etc)
  2. Cellular and Fluid elements of blood–> leukocytes, phagocytes/complement cascade/antibodies
  3. Reticuloendothelial System (RES)
    Total body pool of Macrophages
  4. Inflammatory Response
  5. Interferon
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3
Q

Specific Mechanism

A
  1. Inherited/Natural immunity
  2. Acquired
    a. Active Acquired - natural vs. artificial
    b. Passive Acquired - natural vs. artificial
  3. CMI
  4. Humoral
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4
Q

CMI

A
  • For intracellular pathogens (viruses, TB, unique bacteria)
  • Main player: T-Lymphocytes
    a. T-helpers
  • produce cytokines that turn on immune system

b. T-cytotoxic
- activated by T4s
- produce toxins that kill antigens

c. T-suppresors
- shut down immune response

d. T-memory
- fight future infections
- reactivate t-cytotoxic cells

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5
Q

Humoral

A
  • For most microorganisms
  • Main players: B-Lymphocytes
  • Activated by T-helpers
  • Divide into plasma cells and antibodies
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6
Q

IgG

A
  • Monomer
  • Most numerous
  • Long term immunity
  • Crosses placenta
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7
Q

Hypersensitivity Reactions

A

Immediate
Type I (Anaphylaxis)
- Localized vs. generalized
- IgE

Type II

  • Damage to body cells
  • Incompatible blood transfusion
  • IgG, IgM

Type III

  • Serum sickness
  • IgG, IgM

Delayed
Type IV
- Cell mediated
- Antibodies play minor role

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8
Q

IgM

A
  • Pentamer
  • Does not cross the placenta
  • Short term benefit - useful for early diagnosis
  • Triggers early clearance using complement cascade
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9
Q

IgA

A
  • Monomer
  • In secretions
  • Good for newborns
  • Prevents re-invasions
  • Activates complement cascade
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10
Q

IgE

A
  • Monomer
  • Allergic reactions
  • Activates Mast Cells and Basophils
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11
Q

Types on Vaccines (6)

A
  1. Killed/Inactivated
    - Organism is dead, host makes antibodies
    - Rabies, influenza
  2. Subunit/Component
    - Use part of organism
    - Pertussis, Hep B, Typhoid, Influenza
  3. Live-attenuated
    - Organism is alive, weak, active replication
    - MMR, Rotavirus, Influenza
  4. Toxoid
    - Denatured exotoxins
    - Diphtheria, Tetanus
  5. DNA vaccine
    - Injection of DNA containing viral gene
    - Influenza, Herpes, Malaria
  6. Recombinant Vector
    - Viral DNA, with attenuated virus or bacteria as vector
    - Mimics course of natural infection
    - BCG
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12
Q

Prions

A
  • No RNA or DNA
  • Protein
  • Chronic fatal neurological diseases
  • Via contaminated meat or surgical instruments
  • Most resistant to sterilization
  • CJD
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13
Q

Viroids

A
  • RNA

- Plant diseases

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14
Q

Viruses

A
  • RNA or DNA
  • Reproduce by budding
  • Intracellular
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15
Q

Life cycle of viruses

A
  1. attachment
  2. penetration
  3. uncoating
  4. biosynthesis - genes expressed
  5. assembly - complete virons
  6. release - lysis or budding
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16
Q

All viruses uncoat except ________

A

bacteriophages

17
Q

Bacteria reproduces by ________

A

binary fission

18
Q

Unique Bacteria (3)

A
  1. Rickettsia
    - Leaky cell wall
    - Endotoxins
    - R. typhi (typhus)
    - R. rickettsii (Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever)
  2. Chlamydia
    - Needs energy from host
  3. Mycoplasma
    - No cell wall
    - M.pneumoniae
19
Q

T/F - Pili/fimbriae help with motility of Gram +

A

F - they help with attachment of Gram -

20
Q

Flagella types

A
  1. Monotrichous
  2. Amphotrichous
  3. Lopotrichous
  4. Peritrichous
21
Q

The 2 protozoa stages are…

A
  1. Trophozoite: motile, feeding, dividing, growing stage

2. Cyst stage: dormant stage which develops in adverse conditions

22
Q

Classification of Protozoa

A
  1. Amoebas - pseudopodia
  2. Ciliates - cilia
  3. Flagellates - flagella
  4. Sporozoa/Non-motile
23
Q

Amoeba Disease

A
  • Protozoa
  • Entamoeba hystolytica
  • Amoebic dysentery and extra-intestinal abscesses
  • fecal-oral
24
Q

Ciliate Disease

A
  • Protozoa
  • B. coli - dysentery
  • only ciliated protozoa that causes disease in humans
25
Q

Flagellate Disease

A
  • Protozoa
  • Giardia Lamblia - giardiasis (diarrhea)
  • US and Canada
  • Fecal-oral
26
Q

Sporozoa Disease

A
  • Protozoa
  • Plasmodium species - malaria
  • Toxoplasma gondii - toxoplasmosis
27
Q

Fungi have a ________ wall with ______

A

polysaccharide; chitin

28
Q

Types of fungi

A
  1. Yeasts
  2. Moulds
  3. Dimorphic
29
Q

Yeast are unicellular/multicellular?

A

Unicellular

30
Q

Dimorphic Diseases

A
  1. Blastomycosis
    - Blastomyces dermatitidis
    - In Kenora area
    - Lung infection
  2. Histoplasmosis
    - SE USA
    - Histoplasma fungus
    - Same symptoms as Blastomycosis
31
Q

Histoplasmosis is most common in ____

A

AIDS patients

32
Q

Fungal infections can be classified into…

A
  1. Superficial (dead layers of skin)
    - Pityriasis versicolor
  2. Cutaneous (living layers of skin)
    - Tinea Pedis (athlete’s foot)
    - Thrush
  3. Subcutaneous (tissue, muscle, and fascia)
  4. Systemic (internal organs and viscera)
    - Blastomycosis, Histoplasmosis, Candida
33
Q

Types of Helminths

A
  1. Roundworms/Nematodes
    - Pinworm
  2. Flatworms
    a. Trematodes/Flukes
    - Schistosomiasis (swimmer’s itch)
    b. Cestodes
    - Intestinal