Boards review 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Low AFP

A

Down syndrome

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2
Q

High AFP

A

Neural tube defects

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3
Q

States for lyme disease

A

Connecticut, Minnesota, Maine

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4
Q

HLA DR3 + DR4

A

Distinguishes type 1 DM from type 2 DM

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5
Q

C Peptide in DM

A

Type 1: No C peptide

Type 2: High C Peptide

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6
Q

Risk factors for pre-eclampsia

A

History, increased BMI, family history

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7
Q

Risk factors for gout

A

Obesity, daily low dose aspirin, beer

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8
Q

Advair

A

ICS + LABA combo

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9
Q

Hemophilia

A

X linked

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10
Q

4th degree frost bite

A

gangrene

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11
Q

Order of potency of topical steroids

A

Hydrocortisone
Bethamethasone
Fluocinolone
Clobetasol

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12
Q

Early prenatal DM screening recommended if

A

Overweight + 1 additional risk factor

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13
Q

Which abx increases INR with Warfarin

A

Cipro + Bactrim

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14
Q

Dose of apixaban for thromboembolism prophylaxis following total knee replacement

A

2.5mg BID

5mg if treatment!

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15
Q

Early diastolic murmur heard at 3rd/4th ICS near sternal border

A

AR

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16
Q

Aliskiren

A

Directly inhibits renin

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17
Q

Which fluoroquinolone drops are ototoxic

A

Cipro + Ofloxacin

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18
Q

Tx belpharitis

A

Warm compresses, erythromycin, baby shampoo

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19
Q

Vitiligo

A

Hypopigmented skin spreads over time; risk factor–autoimmune
Tx: steroids, light therapy, avoid sun

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20
Q

Tx refractory psoriasis

A

Methotrexate, cyclosporine, biologics

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21
Q

Tx bites if allergic to penicillin

A

Doxy, Bactrim, Flagyl

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22
Q

Paronychia

A

Bacterial infection of lateral skin folds

Tx: mupirocin

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23
Q

Tx tinea capitus

A

Griseofulvin

Check LFT!

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24
Q

Molluscum contagiosum due to

A

Poxvirus

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25
Q

Tx Raynauds

A

nifedipine

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26
Q

PPD >5mm positive if

A

Recent contact, positive X ray, HIV, decreased immunity

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27
Q

PPD >10mm positive if

A

Recent immigrants, IV drug user, HCP homeless

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28
Q

PE in emphysema

A

Increased AP diameter, decreased breath sounds, pursed lips, decreased weight, hyperresonance, decreased tactile fremitus

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29
Q

SE atypical antipsychotics

A

Obesity + DM

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30
Q

SE typical antipyschotics

A

Increased lipids, malignant neuroleptic syndrome

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31
Q

TB X ray

A

Cavitations + granulomas

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32
Q

Tx stable HF

A

ACEI, beta blocker, spirinolactone

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33
Q

Which bacteria should you suspect in COPD exacerbation

A

Hib

Tx: Bactrim, Doxy, Ceftin

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34
Q

Goal TSH

A

<5

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35
Q

SE PTU + methimazole

A

Skin rash, aplastic anemia, thrombocytopenia, hepatic necrosis

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36
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

Complication of alcoholics, decreased BP, visual impairment, coma
Tx: thiamine

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37
Q

What may precipitate acute angle closure glaucoma

A

SNRI

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38
Q

Metformin has risk of

A

Lactic acidosis

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39
Q

stepwise tx of asthma

A

Intermittent: SABA
Mild: ICS + SABA
Moderate: ICS + LABA + SABA
Severe: Increased ICS + LABA + SABA

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40
Q

Tx H Pylori

A

Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin + PPI

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41
Q

Tx trigeminal neuralgia

A

Anticonvulsants + muscle relaxants

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42
Q

Oliguria

A

<400ml/day

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43
Q

Average daily UO

A

1500ml

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44
Q

How long does it take after acute hemorrhage for hct and hgb to decrease

A

24 hours

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45
Q

Normal WBC

A

5,000-10,000

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46
Q

Prophylaxis for cluster HA

A

Verapamil

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47
Q

How much blood loss results in orthostatic hypotension

A

> 15%

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48
Q

Most common cause of iron deficiency anemia

A

IDA

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49
Q

Risk factors for priapism

A

Cocaine use, ED meds, sickle cell, quadriplegia

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50
Q

Tx epididymitis

A

<35: ceftriaxone + doxy
>35: levaquin
Scrotal elevation

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51
Q

Chronic prostatitis due to

A

E Coli or Proteus

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52
Q

Cephalohematoma

A

Does not cross midline

ABNORMAL

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53
Q

Capput succedoneum

A

Crosses midline

Normal due to birth trauma

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54
Q

Tx chalmydia pneumonia

A

Erythromycin x 14 days

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55
Q

Mefenamic acid

A

NSAID effective against menstrual pain

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56
Q

Neuroblastoma vs nephroblastoma

A

Neuroblastoma crosses midline–50% in metasistis

Nephroblastoma (wilms tumor) does not cross midline

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57
Q

Diuretic best for osteoporosis

A

Thiazide diuretic

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58
Q

Drugs that trigger G6PD deficiency

A

Macrobid, Bactrim, NSAIDs, antimalarials, aspirin

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59
Q

Trepenema Pallidum

A

G-

Syphilis

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60
Q

Hogar sign

A

softening of lower uterus portion

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61
Q

Goodell sign

A

Softening of cervix

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62
Q

Chadwick sign

A

Blue color of cervix

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63
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

Due to syphilis or lyme disease

HA, myalgia, rigors, sweating, decreased BP, rash

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64
Q

Peak expiratory flow is determined by

A

Gender, height, age

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65
Q

Pap smear collects

A

Squamous epithelial cells and endocervical cells

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66
Q

Anthrax prophylaxis

A

Cipro

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67
Q

Prophylaxis PCP pneumonia

A

Bactrim, Dapsone, aeorlized pentamidine

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68
Q

Roseola due to

A

HH6 and HH7

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69
Q

Prostate in BPH

A

Enlarged and rubbery

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70
Q

Addisons labs

A

Increased K+, decreased Na+

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71
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica

A

New onset vision loss, pain in neck, shoulders, hips; increased risk of temporal arteritis
Tx with steroids

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72
Q

Prophylaxis for epiglottitis

A

Rifampin

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73
Q

Stage 1-3 Reyes

A

Stage 1: Vomiting, diarrhea, increased AST/ALT
Stage 2: Personality changes
Stage 3: confusion, delirium, coma, death

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74
Q

Delayed pubertal growth

A

No testicular growth by age 14 or no breast by 12

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75
Q

When do anemia sx occur

A

WHen hgb <10

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76
Q

Vaginal ring vs patch

A

Replace vaginal ring every 3 weeks; patch every week

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77
Q

Do not give IPV if allergic to

A

Neomycin, streptomycin, polymyxin B

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78
Q

Tx ectopic pregnancy

A

Methotrexate, salpingostomy

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79
Q

RSV prophylaxis for CHD

A

Palivizumab

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80
Q

Adrenarche

A

Pubic hair

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81
Q

Erythema toxicum neonatorium

A

Benign rash resembling flea bites

Self limiting

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82
Q

Do not give what with varicella

A

NSAID–Causes NEC

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83
Q

Triptans CI in

A

CAD or pregnancy

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84
Q

Beta blockers used for HA prophylaxis

A

Atenolol, Metoprolol, Propranolol

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85
Q

Most serious complication of temporal arteritis

A

Blindness

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86
Q

Tx Shigella

A

Bactrim

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87
Q

Tx Giardia

A

Metronidazole

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88
Q

Viral conjunctivitis due to

A

Adenovirus

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89
Q

Dx test for malignant OE

A

CT, radionucleotide bone scan, gallium screening

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90
Q

Dopamine agonists for PD

A

Ropinirole + Prampexole

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91
Q

Short acting insulins

A

Lispro
Aspart
Glusiline
Regular

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92
Q

SE Verenicline

A

Nausea + sleep disturbance

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93
Q

Prednisolone dosage peds

A

1-2mg/kg/day

94
Q

Tx ABRS

A

Amoxicillin, Doxy, Bactrim

95
Q

Febuxostat

A

Decreased production of uric acid

96
Q

CN motor only

A

3, 4, 6, 11, 12

97
Q

CN Sensory only

A

1, 2, 8

98
Q

CN mixed

A

5, 7, 9, 10

99
Q

Tx Hidradenitis Suppurativa

A

Doxy 12 weeks
If fails: Rifampin
If fails: Humira

100
Q

Doxy tx for

A

Lower respiratory + STDs

101
Q

Bactrim tx for

A

MRSA, UTI

102
Q

Metformin CI in

A

Active liver disease

103
Q

DPP4 inhibitors

A

-Gliptin
Weight neutral
increase incretin levels (GLP-1 and GIP), which inhibit glucagon release, which in turn increases insulin secretion, decreases gastric emptying, and decreases blood glucose levels

104
Q

GLP1 agonist

A

Exanatide
Injectible
Increased insulin response to meals
Weight loss

105
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors

A

-Flozin
Weight loss
Increased risk of UTI

106
Q

Fluctuant cellulitis tx

A

I+D first line; Bactrim, Clinda, Doxy then

107
Q

Zostavax

A

Live

>60

108
Q

Shingrix

A

Recombinant

>50

109
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis

A

Decreased total lung capacity, vital capacity and diffusion of CO

110
Q

Hemochromatosis causes

A

Cirrhosis, hyperpigmented skin, DM, arthralgias

111
Q

Amyloidosis

A

Nephrotic syndrome, cardiomyopathy, peripheral neuropathy, hepatomegaly

112
Q

Chronic hemolytic anemia

A

Bone marrow increased production of erythrocytes

Supplement with folic acid

113
Q

SLE test

A

Anti-DS DNA AB

114
Q

Test for ventilation

A

Arterial PaCO2

115
Q

Encapsulated bacteria

A

Increased risk in sickle cell pt

Strep pneumoniae, Hib, staph, salmonella

116
Q

Granular casts present in

A

Acute tubular necrosis

117
Q

Massive proteinuria present in

A

Nephrotic syndrome

118
Q

WBC casts + eosinophilia present in

A

Interstitial nephritis

119
Q

Tx tachy and tremor in alcohol withdrawal

A

Clonidine

120
Q

Most common sx of toxoplasmosis

A

Headache

121
Q

Cupped ST segments on EKG

A

Digoxin

122
Q

Edema, urinary RBC casts, proteinuria, hypertension

A

Glomerulonephritis

123
Q

Macrobid in pregnancy

A

Can use in 1st and 2nd trimesters

124
Q

Tix douloureux

A

Trigemenial neuralgia
CN 5
Tx: anticonvulsants

125
Q

Exercise for osteoporosis vs OA

A

Osteoporosis: Weight bearing
OA: isometric

126
Q

If sitting makes back pain better

A

spinal stenosis

127
Q

Test for sciatica

A

Straight leg test

128
Q

Mulder test

A

Tests for morton neuroma

129
Q

Bamboo spine + sacro iliac night pain

A

Anylosing spondylitis

130
Q

Labs for HIV

A

ELISA + Western Blot

131
Q

Monitor what in atypicals

A

BMI, BG, lipids

132
Q

What year house do you get concerned with lead

A

<1978

133
Q

Labs for prostatitis

A

UA + CBC

134
Q

Tx prostatitis

A

Cipro, levaquin, Bactrim

135
Q

Fever few

A

Used for headaches

136
Q

Gingko

A

Used for memory

137
Q

Kava Kava

A

Used for anxiety

138
Q

Echinacea

A

Used for immunity

139
Q

Saw Palmetto

A

Used for BPH

140
Q

Black Cohosh

A

Used for hot flashes

141
Q

Hydrocele should resolve by

A

12 months

142
Q

Trephination

A

Tx of fingernail hematoma–drill hole in nail

143
Q

Preferred therapy for someone with ischemic stroke

A

antiplatelet

144
Q

If allergic to penicillin, tx ABRS

A

Doxy

145
Q

Diaphragm must be kept in place

A

6 hours following intercourse

146
Q

Skin diseases due to staph

A

Furuncles, impetigo, hidradenitis

147
Q

Skin diseases due to strep

A

Simple cellulitis

148
Q

Rebound congestion occurs due to

A

Tachyphylaxis

149
Q

What drug can contribute to thyroid issues

A

Amiodarone

150
Q

Most rapid onset benzo

A

Diazepam

151
Q

Short duration benzos

A

Alprazolam, triazolam, oxazepam

152
Q

Medium duration benzos

A

Lorazepam, tempazepam

153
Q

Long duration benzos

A

Diazepam

Lower abuse potential

154
Q

Aging sleep related changes

A

Decreased REM, increased sleep latency, decreased slow wave sleep

155
Q

Tests for lyme disease

A

ELISA + Western Blot

156
Q

Metformin can cause what deficiency

A

Vitamin B12

157
Q

Tx OA

A

Tylenol, NSAID, exercise, duloxetine

158
Q

Establishes that person has met standards in profession and has met MASTERY OF SKILL

A

Certification

159
Q

Establishes that individual is QUALIFIED to practice in PROFESSIONAL ROLE defined by state board

A

Licensure

160
Q

Enforces professional STANDARDS OF PRACTICE and requires licensure and certification

A

Credentialing

161
Q

National quality strategy

A

Better care, healthy people, affordable care

162
Q

Which beta blocker should not be used for htn

A

Propranolol

163
Q

1st choice med for isolated systolic htn

A

Nifedipine

164
Q

Dacrocystitis

A

Infection of lacrimal sac/tear duct due to blockage

Usually seen in infants

165
Q

Leukocoria

A

White spot on pupil; sign of retinoblastoma

166
Q

Gold standard for diagnosing PAD

A

Angiography

167
Q

Test for dx retinal detachment

A

Slit lamp biomicroscopy

168
Q

beta blockers and CCB can cause

A

GERD

169
Q

Sx endocarditis

A

Fever, chills, malaise, subungual hemorrhages, oslers nodes

170
Q

If RH-

A

Receive rhogam at 28 weeks and then within 72 hours of delivery

171
Q

Most common cause of encoperesis

A

Constipation

More common in males

172
Q

Dx TB

A

3 positive sputum cultures 8-24 hours apart

173
Q

Squamous cells in UA

A

Contaminated sample

174
Q

High fever, lymph nodes, conjunctivitis, strawberry tongue, swollen hands/feet, skin peeling

A

Kawasaki

175
Q

Miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis

A

horner syndrome

176
Q

Meds for A fib rate control

A

CCB, BB, digoxin

177
Q

Most serious MI

A

Anterior wall

Tomb stone

178
Q

Right side murmurs louder on

A

Inspiration

179
Q

Left side murmurs louder on

A

Expiration

180
Q

Rule out what with MVP

A

Marfan

181
Q

Most widely used method for dx pancreatitis

A

amylase

182
Q

High dose statins

A

Atorvastatin 40-80mg

Rosuvastatin 20-40mg

183
Q

Moderate dose statins

A
Atorvastatin 10-20mg
Simvastatin 20-40mg
Rosuvastatin 5-10mg
Lovastatin 40-80mg
Pravastatin 40-80mg
184
Q

Fluoroquinolones have high risk for

A

Achilles tendon rupture

185
Q

Valgus vs varus

A

Valgus: medial
Varus: lateral

186
Q

Fifth disease due to

A

Parvovirus B19

187
Q

Sialothiasis

A

Painful bump in mouth due to salivary duct obstruction

Worse when eating

188
Q

Tx essential tremor

A

Propranolol

189
Q

Which antidepressant is easy to OD on

A

TCA

190
Q

Weber lateralizes to bad ear in

A

Conductive hearing loss

191
Q

Weber lateralizes to good ear in

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

192
Q

2 month vaccines

A

Hep B, Polio, IPV, Dtap, HIB, PCV

193
Q

4 month vaccines

A

Polio, IPV, Dtap, HIB, PCV

194
Q

6 month vaccines

A

Hep B, Polio, IPV, Dtap, HIB, PCV + Influenza

195
Q

12-18 month vaccines

A

MMR, Varicella, Hep A, Dtap, HIB, PCV

196
Q

4-6 years

A

MMR, varicella, Dtap, Polio

197
Q

Lesion for patellar reflex

A

L3/L4

198
Q

Lesion for achilles reflex

A

S1/S2

199
Q

L2/L3 lesion

A

Hip

200
Q

L3/L4 lesion

A

Knee

201
Q

L5 lesion

A

Ankle dorsiflexion

202
Q

S1 lesion

A

Ankle plantar flexion

203
Q

C7/C8 lesion

A

Flexor and extensor of wrist

204
Q

Empty can test

A

Supraspinatus

205
Q

Push out against resistance

A

Infraspinatus

206
Q

Lift off

A

Subscap

207
Q

NEERS

A

subacromial

208
Q

Hawkins

A

Supraspinatus

209
Q

Drop arm

A

Rotator cuff

210
Q

Spurling test

A

Cervical nerve root

211
Q

Penicillin MOA

A

Bactericidal; cell wall synthesis inhibitor

212
Q

Sulfonamide MOA

A

Bacteriostatic; folic acid inhibitor

213
Q

Tetracylines MOA

A

Bacteriostatic; bind to 30S

214
Q

Macrolides MOA

A

Bacteriostatic; bind to 50S

215
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

Inhibit DNA synthesis

216
Q

Metronidazole

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis

217
Q

Clindamycin

A

50s bind

218
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Bind to 30S

219
Q

Ranson criteria

A
GA-LAW
Glucose >200
AST>250
LDH> 350
Age >55
WBC: 16,000
C+HOBBS
Calcium <8
Hct decrease by 10%
O2>60
Base deficit >4
BUN increase by 5
Sequestration of fluid >6L
220
Q

Epidural hemorrhage

A

MVA, falls, assault
Blood is arterial–middle meningeal artery
Altered LOC, HA, vomiting, confusion, aphagia

221
Q

Subdural hemorrhage

A

MVA, falls, assault
Venous blood
Coma, lucid period followed by rapid decline

222
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Aneurysm burst

Thunderclap headache

223
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity

A

IgE

Allergic rhinitis, anaphylaxis, asthma

224
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity

A

IgG/IgM
Complement system
Rheumatic fever, autoimmune hemolytic anemia

225
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity

A

IgG/IgM

RA, post strep glomerulonephritis

226
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity

A

T Cell mediated
Transplant reaction, contact dermatitis
Delayed response

227
Q

Sx dig toxicity

A

Bradycardia, visual changes, fatigue, V Fib

228
Q

Loss of corneal reflex is problem with

A

CN 5

229
Q

Diaphragm needs refitting if

A

> 20 ib weight gain

230
Q

SE prednisone

A

A fib, psychosis, osteoporosis, increased BG