Board Prep Micro Flashcards

1
Q

Clostridium perfringes toxin

A

alpha toxin with gas gangrene
this virulence factor contains lecithinase and phospholipase c
causing the lysis of phospholipids

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2
Q

Lysogenic transduction

A

the viral genome enters the of bacterium A. When the bacterium replicates some of the DNA is incorporated into the bacteriophage and can affect Bacterium B
cholera toxin and diphtheria toxin

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3
Q

Sudden onset fever followed days later by a rash that spreads in a peripheral to central pattern

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Rickettsia rickettsii)
Weil-Felix test is classic diagnoistic test: based on cross-reactivity btwn Rickettsia and certain serotypes of Proteus
The Somatic O antigen is capable of cross-reacting with anti-Rickettsia antibodies causing agglutination

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4
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis

A

rapidly evolving infection of the fascia. The M protein allows bacteria to evade phagocytosis and move rapidly through tissue

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5
Q

BCG vaccination

A

clear chest radiograph should not be treated for TB if a PPD yields response of less than 10 mm

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6
Q

Black non healing eschar and surrounding edema

A
Cutaneous Anthrax (B. anthracis, sport forming gram-positive rod)
Anthrax edema toxin is an adenylate cyclase that increases intracellular cAMP
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7
Q

Bordetella pertussis toxin MOA

A

activated adenylate cyclase

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8
Q

Clostridium botulinum Toxin MOA

A

inhibits the release of acetylcholine at synaptic vesicles

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9
Q

C. Diphtheriae (and Pseudomonas aeruginosa) toxin MOA

A

ADP-ribosylation of EF-2

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10
Q

Clostridium tetani toxin MOA

A

Inhibits the release of GABA and glycine (inhibitory neurotransmitters)

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11
Q

Shigella dysenteriae, E. Coli O157:H7 toxin MOA

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by degrading ribosome subunit 60S

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12
Q

S. Aureus

A

Alpha toxin forms holes in the membrane. Beta toxin degrades sphingomyelin

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13
Q

Positive PPD with no risk factors

A

> 15 mm of induration needed for treatment

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14
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

is an acid-fast bacterial stain
Think Mycobacterium
prophylaxis with azithro and clarithro with CD4+ counts under 50

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15
Q

Sterile pyuria

A

N. Gonorrhea is intracellular and is not detected on urinalysis or standard urinary culture

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16
Q

Distinguishing S. mutans from S. pneumoniae

A

S. mutans are optochin resistant, alpha hemolytic and insoluble in bile
S. Pneumoniae is sensitive to optochin and bile soluble

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17
Q

Anaerobic bacteria above the diaphragm

A

use clindamycin

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18
Q

N. Meningitis

A

can be differentiated from other meningitis due to the petechial skin rash

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19
Q

HIV positive brain biopsy

A

think about varicell and herpes encephalitis which present with Cowdry’s type A inclusion bodies

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20
Q

Intraerythrocytic protozoan transmitted by the Ixodes tick

A
Babesiosis activates compliment
fever, chills, myalgias, GI, dark-colored urine
not usually have rash
Maltese cross
typically have low C3, C4, and CH50
21
Q

Viral myocarditis

A

Most common cause is Coxsackie B which is a SS linear non-enveloped RNA virus
new murmur from either mitral or tricuspid regurg
biopsy of mononuclear cell infiltration of the endomyocardium

22
Q

Bartonella henselae in HIV

A

causes bacillary angiomatosis in HIV+ patients, painless red-purple lesions that bleed easily

23
Q

ancylotoma duodenale

A

roundworm fecally excreted and dermally acquired
few acute problems
nutritional insuffiencies secondary to intestinal malabsorption

24
Q

trypanosoma cruzi

A

appears as a flagellated protozoan on peripheral blood smear

achalasia

25
Q

Cryptosporidiosis

A

chronic, watery, non-bloody diarrhea
malabsorption and vitamin deficiency
acid-fast oocysts in stool

26
Q

HIV tax

A

conical, envelope, rna

27
Q

visceral leishmaniasis

A

sand-fly disease, southeast asia, nonspecific syndrome

fever, weight loss, malaise, and splenomegaly

28
Q

Dracunculiasis

A

guinea worm
copepods that ingest larvae, traverses GI mucosa and matures in abd cavity then travels subcutaneously to erupt as a blister in lower mucosa
purulent thin whitish filament

29
Q

HiB

A

virulence factor is IgA protease

30
Q

Plasmodium Falciparum treatment

A

artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)

dihydroartemisinin and piperaquine moa unknown

31
Q

rhinocerebral mucormycosis

A

caused by zygomycetes (mucor, rhizopus)
seen in DM pt.
black nasal discharge

32
Q

Histoplasma

A

most common cause of chronic mediastinitis ahead of TB and radiation

33
Q

Quellung rxn

A

detects encapsulated organisms:

HiB, Strep pneumoniae, N. Meningitidis, Klebsiella, Salmonella

34
Q

Adenovirus

A

URI, conjunctivitis, aseptic meningitis, ear infection
rarely hemorrhagic cystitis in young children
double stranded naked
linear DNA

35
Q

Pneumocystis pneumonia and Toxoplasma gondii HIV prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

36
Q

Transformation

A

uptake of free-floating DNA by competent bacteria

37
Q

echinococcosis granulosus

A

hepatic cysts

treat with albendazole

38
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

detected using urinary antigen test
gram neg rod
stain with silver

39
Q

R.Rickettsii

A

invasion of bacteria into vascular endothelial cells

40
Q

Rotavirus

A

non-enveloped, double-stranded RNA

41
Q

HPV

A

non-enveloped double-stranded circular DNA virus

42
Q

Reactive arthritis

A

possible causative pathogens:

chlamydia trachomatis, yersinia, salmonella, shigella, campylobacter, e. coli, c. diff, chlamydia pneumoniae

43
Q

Coccidioidomycosis

A

thick-walled, non-budding spherules
treat systemic=amphotericin B
mild= fluconazole/itraconazole

44
Q

Erysipelas

A

erythematous, raised, well-demarcated rah
Strep pyogenes most common
treat with oral amoxicillin

45
Q

S. pneumoniae virulence factor

A

polysaccharide capsule

46
Q

Rubeola

A

paramyxovirus that has giant cell pneumonia as a sequelae

47
Q

Tularemia

A

can be transmitted by inhalation and is a potential bioweapon

48
Q

Tropical Spastic Paraparesis

A

caused by HTVL-1 that presents w. LE pins and needles, bladder problems, and sexual problems
dx. presence of retroviral proteins

49
Q

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

A

Gram-negative, aerobic, non-lactose fermenting and oxidase positive rod
Exotoxin A inactivates EF2