BMS quiz questions and answers Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding glucoronic acid?

a.It is a reduced form of glucose
b.It is lipid soluble
c.All of these options are true
d.It is often found in GAGs

A

d.It is often found in GAGs

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2
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding oxidation of the terminal CH2OH of glucose:

a.The resulting molecule is glucuronic acid, which can act as an oxidizing reagent to detect diabetes/hyperglycemia

b.The resulting molecule is glucitol, which can be used to increase the urinary excretion of certain molecules

c.The resulting molecule is glucuronic acid, which can be used to increase the urinary excretion of certain molecules

d.The resulting molecule is glucitol, which can act as an oxidizing reagent to detect diabetes/hyperglycemia solution

A

c.The resulting molecule is glucuronic acid, which can be used to increase the urinary excretion of certain molecules

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT typical of a negative feedback loop?

a.The output or activity of the system changes quickly, experiencing exponential growth or decline until a limiting event stops the activity of the system

b.The effector and the sensor are always active due to fluctuations in the regulated variable

c.The more the regulated variable departs from the set point, the higher the activity of the effector in the system

d.The regulated variable tends to oscillate around a set point

A

a.The output or activity of the system changes quickly, experiencing exponential growth or decline until a limiting event stops the activity of the system

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4
Q

A diverticulum is an outpouching of the wall of the intestine - it can be caused by elevated stress, or tension, across the wall of the intestine. It can be caused by eating inadequate fibre, aging, or difficulty having a bowel movement.

Choose the true statement about the location of diverticuli, based on what you know about Laplace’s law:

a.Diverticuli are most likely to be found in the small intestine, since the length of the tube is longer

b.Diverticuli are most likely to be found in the large intestine, since the thickness of the wall is larger

c.Diverticuli are most likely to be found in the large intestine, since the radius of the wall is larger

d.Diverticuli are most likely to be found in the small intestine, since the radius of the wall is smaller

A

c.Diverticuli are most likely to be found in the large intestine, since the radius of the wall is larger

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5
Q

You ask your patient to perform a series of rapid alternating movements - these movements are slow and uncoordinated. You also notice he has a great deal of difficulty performing point-to-point movements - he can’t touch his nose and then reach out and touch your finger in a smooth fashion.

What brain area is most likely to be affected?

a.Motor cortex in the frontal lobe
b.Basal ganglia
c.The midbrain
d.Cerebellum

A

d.Cerebellum

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6
Q

Which of the following physical exam maneuvers is NOT usually used to test CN II (the optic nerve)?

a.All of these tests are usually used to assess the optic nerve

b.Asking the patient to read the letters on the Snellen eye chart

c.Checking to your patient’s ability to see a moving object in their peripheral visual fields

d.Having the patient follow the “H-pattern” movements of your finger with their eyes

A

d.Having the patient follow the “H-pattern” movements of your finger with their eyes

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7
Q

Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens?

a.growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine

b.treatment of a cancer patient with radiation

c.growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of teeth

d.presence of Entamoeba in the lumen of the sigmoid colon

e.growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin

A

b.treatment of a cancer patient with radiation

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8
Q

Members of the genus Chlamydia are:

a.classified with the deeply branching bacteria.
b.intracellular parasites.
c.thermophiles.
d.Gram-positive bacteria.
e.endospore-formers.

A

b.intracellular parasites.

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9
Q

The condition known as microbial antagonism may be defined as:

a.a relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits.

b.an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.

c.a relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.

d.a relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.

e.microorganisms that remain with a person throughout life.

A

b.an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.

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10
Q

The benefit of continuous cell lines versus primary cell culture for growing viruses is:

a.continuous cell lines will work with every virus

b.genetic stability of the secondary cell lines

c.viruses grow better in primary cell culture

d.the longevity of secondary cell lines

e.primary cell culture, while difficult, will work with every virus

A

d.the longevity of secondary cell lines

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11
Q

Which is not true of viruses?

a.They replicate only inside host cells.

b.They infect animal and plant cells only.

c.They can be observed with an electron microscope.

d.They are acellular.

e.They can exist in an intracellular or extracellular phase.

A

b.They infect animal and plant cells only.

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect?

a.transformation (looking like a cancer cell)

b.inclusion bodies (viral replicative factories)

c.cell fusion

d.mononucleated cells

A

d.mononucleated cells

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13
Q

What type of collagen is present in the highest quantities in the basement membrane?

a.Type II
b.Type III
c.Type VII
d.Type IV

A

d.Type IV

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14
Q

Most proteoglycans are bound to a very long backbone of ______________________. Linking proteins attach other GAGs to this polymer.

a.hyaluronic acid
b.keratan sulfate
c.keratin
d.laminin

A

a.hyaluronic acid

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15
Q

How does gliadin (the major antigen of celiac disease) likely gain access to the lamina propria of the intestine?

a.Gliadin causes disruption of hemidesmosomes

b.Gliadin causes disruption of adherens junctions

c.Gliadin causes disruption of desmosomes

d.Gliadin causes disruption of tight junctions

A

d.Gliadin causes disruption of tight junctions

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16
Q

What is the general function of BH1-3 proteins like Bax and Bak?

a.They form pores in the mitochondrial membrane

b.They are pro-apoptotic molecules that can directly inhibit BH1-4 molecules or activate mitochondrial pores

c.They are anti-apoptotic molecules that are increased in response to signals like growth factors

d.They directly activate caspase 9

A

a.They form pores in the mitochondrial membrane

17
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding coagulative necrosis?

a.Typically occurs following ischemic damage.

b.Occurs with release of activated pancreatic lipases.

c.Characteristic of focal bacterial infection.

d.Typical type of necrosis found within the brain tissue.

A

a.Typically occurs following ischemic damage.

18
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding cytochrome c in apoptosis?

a.It’s involved in the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis - it directly activates caspase 9

b.It’s involved in the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis - it directly activates caspase 9

c.It’s involved in the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis - it directly activates apoptosis-activating-factor (APAF)

d.It’s involved in the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis - it directly activates apoptosis-activating-factor (APAF)

A

c.It’s involved in the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis - it directly activates apoptosis-activating-factor (APAF)

19
Q

Collagen is composed of a high proportion of the amino acids glycine, _________________, and __________________:

(choose the right options for the blanks)

a.lysine and hydroxylysine
b.alanine and hydroxyalanine
c.proline and hydroxyproline
d.methionine and hydroxymethionine

A

c.proline and hydroxyproline

20
Q

Which of the following hair stages terminates with shedding of the hair?

a.catagen
b.anagen
c.telogen
d.apogen

A

c.telogen

21
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the role of RB in the cell cycle:

a.Active, hypo-phosphorylated RB prevents progression through the G2/M checkpoint.

b.RB targets securing for proteolytic destruction to allow progression through the metaphase-to-anaphase checkpoint.

c.RB is inactivated by phosphorylation by an active Cyclin D-cdk4 (G1 cyclin-cdk) complex, releasing transcription factor, E2F.

d.RB initiates transcription of p21 to halt the cell cycle at the START transition (G1/S checkpoint).

A

c.RB is inactivated by phosphorylation by an active Cyclin D-cdk4 (G1 cyclin-cdk) complex, releasing transcription factor, E2F.

22
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding DNA synthesis (aka DNA replication):

a.DNA helicase joins the 3’ and 5’ ends DNA fragments after the RNA primers have been replaced with DNA.

b.DNA Polymerase adds DNA nucleotides in the 3’ to 5’ direction.

c.RNA primase is needed to build an RNA primer with a free 3’-OH group for elongation by DNA polymerase.

d.DNA ligase unwinds the double helix by breaking H-bonds.

A

c.RNA primase is needed to build an RNA primer with a free 3’-OH group for elongation by DNA polymerase.

23
Q

Which enzyme is involved in reducing supercoiling during DNA replication?

a.DNA topoisomerase
b.DNA primase
c.DNA helicase
d.DNA ligase

A

a.DNA topoisomerase

24
Q

P53 promotes the transcription of which Cdk inihibitor (CKI)

a.p57
b.p21
c.p27
d.p16

A

b.p21

25
Q

Which of the following cyclin-cdk complexes does p16 inhibit?

a.Cyclin B-cdk1.
b.Cyclin A-cdk2.
c.Cyclin E-cdk2.
d.Cyclin D-cdk4.

A

d.Cyclin D-cdk4.

26
Q

Which of the following correctly describes metaplasia? 

a.Replacement of one differentiated somatic cell for another 

b.Increase in number of cells 

c.Presence of pleomorphism and hyperchromatic nuclei 

d.Presence of abnormal cells 

A

a.Replacement of one differentiated somatic cell for another 

27
Q

Which of the following mutations would contribute the most significantly to genomic instability?

a.Loss of function mutation in p53.

b.Gain of function mutation in Ras.

c.Gain of function mutation in Myc.

d.Loss of function mutation in RB.

A

a.Loss of function mutation in p53.

28
Q

If a neoplastic cell develops a gain of function mutation in cyclin D or cdk4, what cell cycle checkpoint will no longer effectively regulate division? 

a.G1/S checkpoint 

b.S/G2 checkpoint 

c.G2/M checkpoint 

d.Metaphase-to-Anaphase checkpoint

A

a.G1/S checkpoint 

29
Q

Which of the following is most correct regarding anaplasia?

a.Anaplasia may include cellular pleiomorphism and loss of polarity.

b.Anaplastic cells tend to have small, light-staining nuclei.

c.Anaplasia refers to cells that have reached a state of terminal differentiation.

d.Anaplasia is a hallmark of benign tumours.

A

a.Anaplasia may include cellular pleiomorphism and loss of polarity.

30
Q

A mutation in Myc was identified via genetic testing in your patient with breast cancer. How could a mutation in Myc increase the likelihood of developing cancer?

a.Myc promotes the proteolysis of p53.

b.Myc directly activates RB by phosphorylation.

c.Myc promoted the transcription of cyclin D.

d.Myc phosphorylates PIP2, which is needed to activate AKT.

A

c.Myc promoted the transcription of cyclin D.

31
Q

Choose the TRUE statement re: X-linked disorders

a.Most X-linked disorders are expressed in women, since they have two X-chromosomes

b.Most X-linked disorders are dominant

c.A mother can pass an X-linked gene to her son, but not to her daughter

d.A father can pass an X-linked gene to his daughter, but not to his son

A

d.A father can pass an X-linked gene to his daughter, but not to his son

32
Q

When a point mutation causes the formation of a stop codon which results in a shortened protein, this is known as a:

a.nonconservative missense mutation
b.conservative missense mutation
c.nonsense mutation
d.absence mutation

A

c.nonsense mutation

33
Q

Choose the TRUE statement regarding Marfan’s syndrome:

a.The disorder is inherited in an X-linked dominant fashion

b.The gene affected is the Type I collagen gene.

c.The disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

d.Many individuals with Marfan syndrome will express some clinical features of the disorder but not others - this is an example of incomplete penetrance.

A

c.The disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

34
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the small and large intestine?

a.Only the small intestine has a lamina propria - the large intestine does not have a lamina propria, only a submucosa.

b.The epithelial cells of the large intestine lack microvilli, but those of the small intestine have many microvilli

c.The muscular wall of the large intestine has a discontinuous longitudinal muscle layer - in the small intestine, all layers of the wall are continuous

d.Both the large and small intestine play important roles in the absorption of proteins and amino acids

A

c.The muscular wall of the large intestine has a discontinuous longitudinal muscle layer - in the small intestine, all layers of the wall are continuous

35
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function for the liver?

a.production of proteins in the blood
b.gluconeogenesis
c.storage of bile
d.production of bile

A

c.storage of bile