BMJ Assorted Good Qs Flashcards

1
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans?

A

Thickened, velvet-like hyperpigmentation of flexor areas.
Common a/w: obesity and diabetes.
Also, a/w tumour ==> most commonly stomach or intestinal and endocrine disorders

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2
Q

Is clubbing associated with non-small cell lung ca?

A

Finger clubbing is a/w both small cell lung carcinoma and non-small cell lung carcinoma.
Seen more frequently in non-small cell carcinoma; more frequently in women than in men

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3
Q

What is pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

Non-infectious, inflammatory, necrotising skin condition.

Presents as painful ulceration- usually the legs. Commonly associated with IBD e.g. UC; RA; myelodysplasia.

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4
Q

Is allopurinol indicated in acute gout attack?

A

No - treats chronic gout. Iniating in acute setting will exacerbate.
Acute = NSAIDs and/or colchicine.

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5
Q

What is Horner’s associated with? (conditions)

A
  • Pancoast tumours
  • Cervical rib
  • Goitre
  • Syringomyelia
  • Lateral medullary syndrome
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6
Q

Common test abnormalities of multiple myeloma?

A
  • Hypercalcaemia
  • High ESR
  • High urate
  • Renal impairment, and
  • Low Hb
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7
Q

How does multiple myeloma present?

A

With bone pain and lassitude from anaemia and renal complications, as well as signs of hyper viscosity.

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8
Q

Which medicinal herb may reduce effectiveness of warfarin?

A

St John’s wort; induces hepatic enzymes thus increasing metabolism of drugs metabolised by CYP-450 hepatic enzymes.

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9
Q

Which immunosuppressant should not be used in patients treated with allopurinol?

A

Azathioprine.

Allopurinol leads to build up of 6-mercaptopurine a metabolite of azathioprine; build up leads to bone marrow toxicity.

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10
Q

What is an aspergilloma?

A

Aspergilloma is a fungal ball (Aspergillus spp.) which develops in pre-existing pulmonary cavities (TB or sarcoidosis) or cysts, usually upper lobes, w/o tissue invasion. It can cause haemoptysis (which may be severe).

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11
Q

Red jelly sputum characteristic of infection with which pathogen?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Alcoholism and chronic disease thought to predispose

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12
Q

What is a thyroglossal cyst?

A

Thyroglossal tract develops at foramen caecum and descends to final position anteriorly and inferiorly to thyroid cartilage. The tract then obliterates. Thyroglossal cyst occurs when tract does not obliterate. Often present as an infected cyst in the midline at the level of the hyoid bone which moves upwards on protrusion of the tongue. If infected it may need to be aspirated before surgical excision.

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13
Q

What are the contents of the carpal tunnel?

A
  • The median nerve
  • 4 x FDP tendons
  • 4 x FDS tendons
  • Flexor pollicis longus
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14
Q

Presentation of scurvy?

A

Proximal myopathy, loss of teeth with bleeding gums, weakness, general muscle pain.

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15
Q

What is pellagra?

A
Caused by niacin deficiency; over dependence on maize, pts with carcinoid syndrome.
A/w 3 Ds:
-Dermatitis
-Diarrhoea
-Dementia
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16
Q

What will a CNIII palsy cause?

A
  • Upper lid ptosis
  • Abduction and infraction of the globe (down and out)
  • Dilate pupil
17
Q

Which CN lesion causes increased lacrimation?

A

The cranial nerve palsy most likely to cause increased lacrimation is a seventh nerve palsy as incomplete lid closure will cause exposure keratopathy with secondary reflex lacrimation.

18
Q

Why does Horner’s cause enophthalmos?

A

Apparent enophthalmos is seen in Horner’s syndrome as Muller’s muscle (jointly responsible for elevating the upper lid) and a corresponding muscle responsible for retracting the lower lid have impaired function when their sympathetic innervation is disrupted. The result of the lids moving closer together is that the eye appears as if it has sunken inwards.

19
Q

Drugs causing gynaecomastia?

A
  • Digoxin
  • Spironolactone
  • Cimetidine
  • LHRH analogues
20
Q

Adverse affects of B-blockers?

A
  • Cold extremities
  • Bronchospasm
  • Bradycardia
21
Q

Ddx of single red, swollen, painful knee and Ix with findings

A

Joint aspirate

  • Septic arthritis: increased PMNs and organisms.
  • Gout: -vely birefringent chrystals
  • Pseudogout: +vely birefringent chrystals
22
Q

Which conditions display autosomal dominant inheritance patterns?

A
  • Adult polycystic kidney disease
  • Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
  • Huntington’s chorea
  • Myotonic dystrophy
  • Neurofibromatosis, and
  • Polyposis coli.
23
Q

Action of benzodiaezepines?

A

Benzodiazepines bind to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors in the central nervous system and potentiate the anxiolytic and hypnotic effects of this transmitter.

24
Q

Drug to reverse effects of benzodiazepines

A

Flumazenil

25
Q

Function of protamine?

A

Reverse over-heparinisation

26
Q

Parietal lobe tumour likely to cause which visual field defect?

A

Lower homonymous quadrantanopia.

Affects upper fibres of optic radiation.

27
Q

Visual field defect of bilateral occipital lobe infarction?

A

Cortical blindness.

28
Q

Calculation of number needed to treat?

A

Number of pts treated (total) - number of outcomes avoided (i.e. placebo - intervention outcomes)

29
Q

How may hyperprolactinemia present in women?

A
  • Anovulatory infertility
  • Reduced menstruation
  • Production of breast milk
  • Reduced libido
  • Vaginal dryness.
30
Q

Which medications are associated with hyperprolactinemia?

A
  • Antihistamines
  • Butyrophenones e.g haloperidol
  • Cimetidine
  • Methyldopa
  • Metoclopramide
  • Phenothiazines e.g. chlorpromazine
31
Q

MoA allopurinol?

A

Lowers uric acid levels by inhibiting xanthine oxidase.

32
Q

Indications for allopurinol treatment?

A
  • Frequent attacks
  • Polyarticular gouty arthritis
  • Tophaceous gout
33
Q

Joint aspirate findings for gout?

A

needle shaped negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals