Blue Book 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Patients on levodopa should avoid, which vitamin

A

B6 pyridoxine (beef liver, salmon, tuna, organ meats)

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2
Q

Levodopa might make patient’s urine

A

Very dark

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3
Q

Pernicious anemia pts lack which vitamin
What factor do they lack
What doesn’t mature due to this lack of this factor?

A

B12
Intrinsic factor
RBC, they become anemic

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4
Q

Classic and unique signs of pernicious anemia

A

Beefy red tongue
Numbness and tingling of the hands
Sores in the mouth
Chest pain

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5
Q

Sensory motor stage age

A

Birth - 2

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6
Q

Concrete operational thinking age

A

7-11

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7
Q

Preoperational, thinking age (preschool)

A

3-5

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8
Q

Placenta previa pain?
When does the bleeding start?
Three complications
Hospitalization?

A

Painless placenta previa
Third trimester
Shock, maternal death, fetal death
Yes, always if bleeding

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9
Q

Which impaired gas exchange is most common in pneumonia

A

Respiratory alkalosis. Because the hyperventilation blows off more CO2 in the consolidation traps in the blood.

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10
Q

Polycythemia vera is an increase in ___, ____ and ____

A

A blood disease with an increase in erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets

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11
Q

Pts with polycythemia vera have which kind of complexion
What will their diet look like?
What are three signs of polycythemia vera?
What oral problem will these patients have?
What organ will be enlarged?

A

Ruddy red, almost a purple

Low iron

Headache, weakness, and itching

Bleeding mucous membranes

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12
Q

Due to increased destruction of red blood cells seen in polycythemia vera what acid blood level will be increased

A

Uric acid levels will be high.

Remember, uric acid levels are always high when cells are being destroyed as in hemolysis, chemotherapy or radiation therapy

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13
Q

Pregnancy increases or decreases the bodies insulin requirements, why?

Can oral hypoglycemic be used during pregnancy?

During pregnancy, what complication is most dangerous for the fetus of a diabetic, why

A

Increases, hormones of pregnancy work against insulin

No, they are teratogenic

Ketosis, in utero ; hypoglycemia after delivery. Brain cells die without glucose, resulting in brain damage.

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14
Q

Preeclampsia makes the neuromuscular system more or less irritable

What vision problem will these patients have

What types of precautions will be in effect?

A

More

Blurred vision

Seizure precautions; suction machine in the room, 02 in room, padded side rails up x four, must stay on unit, ambulation with supervision only, no more than one pillow

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15
Q

When is pre-eclampsia called eclampsia

A

Once convulsions have occurred

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16
Q

Premature rupture of membranes is a ___ break in the amniotic sac ___ the ___ of contractions

What is the danger with PROM?

A

Spontaneous, before, onset

Infection

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17
Q

Amniotic fluid is acidic or alkaline

A

Alkaline

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18
Q

Pulmonary edema is a common complication of which disorder

Pulmonary edema, usually results from ____ failure

Four signs of pulmonary edema

A

Cardiovascular

Left ventricle

Dyspnea on exertion
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Orthopnea
Coughing

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19
Q

In pulmonary edema is the heart rate tachycardic or bradycardic

What drug is used in pulmonary edema to reduce fluid in the lungs

What drug is used to increase ventilation in pulmonary edema

Since pulmonary edema, is caused by left ventricular failure, what drug is given

Why would morphine be given

A

Tachycardic

Diuretic

Aminophylline (bronchodilator)

Digitalis

To decrease apprehension and decrease preload, resting the heart

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20
Q

Pulmonary embolus is an obstruction of the pulmonary ___ bed by a dislodged ___ or a foreign substance (air, fat, tumor)

Where do the emboli that cause pulmonary embolus usually come from?

What treatment modality can lead to pulmonary embolus

What drug class can lead to pulmonary embolus

A

Capillary, thrombus

The legs

Bed rest

Oral contraceptives

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21
Q

What heart problems can lead to pulmonary embolus

What genetic problems can lead to pulmonary embolus

First sign of pulmonary embolus; will the heart rate increase or decrease

Two major treatments of pulmonary embolus.

A

Atrial fibrillation (R atrial fibrillation, L atrial fibrillation, causes cerebral embolus)

Sickle cell anemia

Dyspnea; increase

02 and anticoagulants

22
Q

I’m coming in is therapeutic, the INR should be between ___ & ___

A

2.0 and 3.0

23
Q

What is Lovenox?

A

A low-dose heparin used for anticoagulation and postop thrombophlebitis prevention, not for use in pulmonary embolus

24
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

What organism causes this?

What are the symptoms that polynephritis and cystitis have in common

A

And bacterial infection of the kidneys

E. coli

Frequency, urgency, burning, cloudy foul, smelling urine

25
Q

Five s/s with polynephritis not seen with cystitis

What is the big danger with polynephritis?

How is polynephritis prevented 

A

Fever, flank pain, increase white blood count, malaise, chills, HTN

Permanent scarring and kidney damage

By preventing or treating all cystitis’s (UTIs)

26
Q

What test is done to confirm a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis

Why does the pyloric valve becomes to notes in pyloric stenosis?

What position should a child with pyloristenosis be after feeding?

What type of vomiting do you see in patients with pyloric stenosis? Is it bile stained?

A

Upper G.I. series (barium swallow)

It hypertrophies

Right side with HOB up

Projectile, not bile stained

27
Q

Typical Child with pyloric stenosis

Symptoms of pyloric stenosis, most commonly appear at age ___ to ___

A

First born full-term white boy

4 to 6 weeks

28
Q

Purpose of a wound drain

A

Remove secretions from the area so healing occurs

29
Q

What is another name for second intention?

A

Granulation

30
Q

Scoliosis most commonly effects

How many hours a day should a patient wear a Milwaukee brace?

A

Teenage girls

23 hours

31
Q

What are the number one and number two causes of sickle cell crisis

The most common type of crisis that occurs is a ___-____ crisis

In this crisis, the vessels become included with _____ _____

Why do the crescent shape RBCs cause occlusion of the vessels

A

Hypoxia and dehydration

Vaso-occlusive

Abnormal red blood cells

They come together and create a sludge

32
Q

Top three priorities in care of a patient with sickle cell crisis

Why can’t a sickle cell patient not take aspirin

Sickle cell anemia symptoms do not appear before the age of ___ months, due to the presence of ___ ____

Sickle cell anemia, most commonly seen in what race

A

Oxygenation, hydration, and pain control

Can cause acidosis, which makes the crisis and sickly worse

Six, fetal hemoglobin

Black

33
Q

What is spinal shock?

When does this occur? And how long will it last?

A

Common occurrence in spinal cord injury in which the spinal cord swells above, and below the level of injury

Immediately or within two hours of injury; five days to three months

34
Q

What is spinal cord injury is at level of ___ or ___ patient will be a quadriplegic

35
Q

When the spinal cord injury is between ____ and ___ there is permanent respiratory paralysis

36
Q

Spinal cord injury in the thoracic/lumbar region’s result in

If airway obstruction occurs at the accident site and he suspects spinal cord injury what maneuver is used to open the airway

A

Paraplegia

Modified jaw thrust

37
Q

Why should a patient with an order to be up move slowly with a spinal cord injury?

A

Because of severe orthostatic hypotension

38
Q

Patient with neurogenic bladder needs to be straight catheterized every how many hours

Patience with spinal cord injury will have flaccid or spastic muscles

Three drugs used to treat spasms

A

Six

Spastic

Baclofen, Valium, dantrium* (* also treats malignant hyperthermia)

39
Q

What is autonomic dysreflexia or hyperreflexia

What are the s/s

What would you do first what would you do second for these patients?

A

A common complication of quadriplegics in response to a full bladder or bowel

Sweating headache, nausea and vomiting, gooseflesh and severe hypertension

Raise HOB, second, check the bladder and bowel

40
Q

What position should the client be during a spinal tap?

Activity restriction necessary after a lumbar puncture

Purpose of spinal taps

A

Lateral recumbent on the right side

Lie flat for 6 to 12 hours

To measure or relieve pressure and obtain a CSF sample

41
Q

How much section should be used for a child?

How much suction should be used for an adult?

A

80 to 100

120 to 150

42
Q

Late syphilis attacks which three body organs?

What organism causes syphilis?

What is the most common signs of Neurosyphilis?

A

Liver, heart and brain

Treponema palladium

Ataxia (gait problems)

43
Q

What is the most common cause of mastoiditis?

4 s/s of mastoiditis

Common side effect of mastoidectomy; major concern

A

Chronic Otis media

Drainage from ear, high fever, headache and ear pain tenderness over mastoid process

Dizziness/vertigo ; safety

44
Q

Virulence means

A

Ability of an organism to produce disease

45
Q

Emulsion is a mixture of ___ and ___

A

Oil and water

46
Q

A drug given by the parenteral route, acts outside the G.I. tract, true or false

For most common parenteral route of administration

A

T

SQ, IM, IV, ID (intradermal)

47
Q

Maximum cc administered per IM into the deltoid of an adult

Which type of medication’s are given by Z track; how long is a needle kept inside during Z track injection?

A

1cc

Irritating or staining; 10 seconds

48
Q

Two sites for intradermal injections; primarily used for what

A

Inner forearm and upper back; skin testing

49
Q

Rectal suppository is inserted ____ in an adult, and ____ in a child

50
Q

Does Tagamet need to be given with meals? Does Zantac need to be given with meals?

A

Yes, for Tagamet; No for Zantac