Blue Book Flashcards

1
Q

Shock will ____ blood pressure

A

Decrease

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2
Q

Increased intracranial pressure will ____ the pulse pressure

A

Increase or widen

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3
Q

What happens when blood is administered with dextrose IVs?

A

The cells clump together and don’t flow well

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4
Q

S/S of transfusion reaction

A

Low back pain, wheezing, fever, hives

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5
Q

Three types of transfusion reactions that can occur

A

Hemolytic, allergic, febrile

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6
Q

S/S of a hemolytic transfusion reaction
(What does this do to each body system: cardiac, urinary, cns, respiratory)

A

Shivering, headache, low back pain, increased pulse and respirations, decreasing blood pressure, oliguria, and hematuria

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7
Q

S/S of febrile transfusion reaction

A

Low back pain, shaking, headache, increasing temperature, confusion, hemoptysis

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8
Q

S\S of an allergic reaction to a transfusion

A

Hives, wheezing, pruritus, joint pain (arthralgia)

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9
Q

Test to identify Rh factor

A

Coombs test. Detects antibodies to Rh

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10
Q

Universal donor

A

O

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11
Q

Universal recipient

A

AB

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12
Q

In the rule of nines, the head and neck receive ___, each arm receives ___

A

9%, 9%

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13
Q

In the rule of nines, the front trunk gets ___, each leg gets ___, and a genitalia get ___

A

18%, 18%, 1%

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14
Q

What is the only IM given to a burn patient

A

Tetanus toxoid - if they have a previous immunization

Tetanus antitoxin - if they have never been immunized before (or immunoglobulin)

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15
Q

Three phases of burns

A

Shock, diuretic, recovery

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16
Q

Fluid moves from ____ to ____ in the shock phase

A

Bloodstream, interstitial space

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17
Q

During shock phase of a burn, is potassium, increased or decreased

A

Increased, because of the cells being damaged. The potassium is released from the damaged cells.

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18
Q

What acid base and balance is seen in the shock phase of a burn

A

Metabolic acidosis

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19
Q

In the diuretic phase, K+ levels will fall or rise

A

Fall- remember diuresis always causes hypokalemia

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20
Q

What is curlings ulcer? Why is it a problem in burn pts? What drug prevents it?

A

It’s a stress ulcer, you get these with any severe physical stress

Protonix, Prilosec, Pepcid, Tagamet, Zantac, any H2 receptor antagonist

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21
Q

In abruptio placenta the placenta____ from the uterine wall ____

A

Separates, prematurely

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22
Q

How is abruptia placenta different from that in placenta previa; pain, blood loss

A

Usually painful, bleeding is more voluminous in previa

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23
Q

Abruptio placentas birth

A

C-section

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24
Q

Children at highest risk for seizure activity, after ingestion are those who have swallowed ____ and ____

A

Drugs and insecticides

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25
Q

Antibiotic most commonly given to clients with acne

A

Tetracycline

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26
Q

Instructions to give a client taking tetracycline (how to take this and what to avoid)

A

Take on an empty stomach and avoid sunlight

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27
Q

CD4 count of under ___ is associated with the onset of aids related symptoms

A

500

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28
Q

CD4 count of under___ is associated with the onset of opportunistic infections

A

200

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29
Q

Which two classes of drugs are given in combination for HIV sero-positivity

A

NRTIs and PIs

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30
Q

Typical pneumonia of AIDS is caused by

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

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31
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is cancer of the

A

Skin

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32
Q

What organism causes acute glomerulonephritis

A

Group A beta hemolytic strep

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33
Q

What happens to the kidney in AGN?

A

It becomes clogged with antigen antibody complexes, which then cause inflammation and loss of function

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34
Q

Will the patient have hypo or hyper tension with AGN?

A

Hypertension because of fluid retention

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35
Q

Age range and developmental task for early adulthood

A

19-36
Intimacy versus isolation

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36
Q

Age range and developmental task for middle adulthood

A

35-64
Generatively vs. Stagnation.

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37
Q

Age range and developmental task for later adulthood

A

64- death
Ego integrity versus despair

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38
Q

1 contracture problem after BKA

A

Flexion of the knee

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39
Q

What artery is widened in a thoracic aneurysm?

40
Q

An aneurysm can result from ___ and from ___

A

Infection and syphilis

41
Q

What aneurysm is known as the silent aneurysm?

A

The abdominal aneurysm

42
Q

An aneurysm will most affect which of the following the blood pressure or the pulse

A

The pulse. Many times the aneurysm will rupture and blood will be lost before the blood pressure starts to change.

43
Q

What class of drugs is the client with an aneurysm most likely to be on

A

Antihypertensives

44
Q

How would you know if an aneurysm has ruptured

A

Decreased LOC, restlessness, tachycardia, htn (a sign of shock)

45
Q

What causes angina pectoris?

A

Decreased blood supply to the myocardium, resulting in ischemia and pain

46
Q

What is the action of nitro?

A

Dilates coronary arteries to increase blood supply and reduce preload

47
Q

Top two side effects of nitro

A

Hypotension and headache

48
Q

Pulse rate of anorexics is tachycardic or bradycardic

A

Bradycardic

49
Q

Five criteria recorded on an Apgar scale

A

Cardiac status, respiratory affect, muscle tone, neuromuscular irritability, and color

50
Q

Acrocyanosis

A

Temporary cyanotic condition usually in newborns resulting in a bluish color around the lips, hands and fingernails feet and toenails. May last for a few hours and disappear with warning.

51
Q

Most common complication of appendicitis

A

Peritonitis

52
Q

What is the name of the RLQ abdominal pain where appendicitis pain finally localizes

A

McBurney’s point

53
Q

To lessen pain place (appendicitis pt) in ___ position

54
Q

Pt with calcium nephrolithiasis diet should be

55
Q

Primary diet for tx of Utica acid nephrolithiasis (low—)

A

Low purine

56
Q

In general, cancer drugs have side effects in which three body systems

A

GI
Hematologic
Integumentary

57
Q

3 hematologic side effects of chemo

A

Thrombocytopenia
Leukopenia
Anemia

58
Q

3 objective s/s of thrombocytopenia (P.E.E)

A

Petechiae
Epistaxis
Ecchymosis

59
Q

3 most common drugs given to women with CD in pregnancy

A

Diuretics
Heprin
Digitalis

60
Q

Why is dig given to women with CD in pregnancy

A

To increase the strength of a heart, and decrease the rate, Rest the Heart while making it more efficient

61
Q

Why is heparin given to women with CD in pregnancy

A

To prevent thrombophlebitis due to venous congestion, usually in legs

62
Q

What causes cast syndrome; s/s

A

Anxiety and stress leading to sympathoadrena (shut-down of the bowels) from being in a full body cast. Nausea and vomiting due to bowel obstruction.

63
Q

Traction is used to ___ and ___ a fracture, relieve ____ ___ and prevent ___

A

Reduced and immobilize
Muscle spasm
Deformities

64
Q

Define cataracts

A

Opacity of the lens

65
Q

Three most common visual defects occurring with cataracts

A

Cloudiness
Double vision
Photophobia

66
Q

Avoid what movements after cataract surgery

A

Coughing
Sneezing
Bending at the waist
Straining at stool
Rubbing or touching eyes
Rapid head movements

67
Q

What drugs are given preoperatively for cataracts surgery

A

Mydriatics
Dilators
Antibiotics

68
Q

Pts with celiacs don’t absorb which mineral

69
Q

Pts with celiac don’t absorb fats, so they don’t absorb ___ ____ ____

A

Fat soluble vitamins, A, D, E, K

70
Q

Malabsorption of which vit leads to a bleeding disorder

71
Q

Central line dressings to be changed

A

Every other day

72
Q

3 types of CVA

A

Embolus
Thrombus
Hemmorrage

73
Q

What is hemianopsia

A

Not being able to see one half of the field of vision

74
Q

Pt doesn’t understand incoming language they have ___ aphasia

75
Q

What is global aphasia

A

Both expressive and receptive

76
Q

What is apraxia

A

The loss of the ability to perform purposeful, skilled acts (brushing teeth)

77
Q

Three most common reasons for a colostomy

A

Cancer
Diverticulitis
Ulcerative Colitis

78
Q

R sided CHF means; s/s

A

Right ventricle has decompensated
Dependent edema
JVD
Hepatomegaly
Splenomegaly
Anorexia and nausea
Weight gain
Nocturia diuresis
Swelling of fingers and hands
Increased blood pressure

79
Q

When cardiac output fails, three ways to heart will try to compensate

A

Ventricle hypertrophy
Dilate
Heart rate will increase

80
Q

What does cardiac decompensation mean

A

That the compensatory mechanisms (hypertrophy, dilation, tachycardia) are not working and the heart has failed

81
Q

When do you hold digitalis:
Adult
Child
Infant

82
Q

What complication is common in CHF?

A

Pulmonary edema

83
Q

Four most common toxic affects of digitalis

A

Anorexia
Nausea and vomiting
Yellow vision
Arrhythmias

84
Q

Cushing syndrome is ____ secretion of _____, ______ and ______ ______ by the _____ ______

A

Over of glucocorticoids
Mineralocorticoids, androgenic hormones
Adrenal glands

85
Q

Cush man

A

Moon face with infection
Buffalo hump
Big trunk
Thin extremities
Loses potassium
Keeps glucose and salt
Has striations on abdomen and breasts
Gynecomastia
Hyrsutism
Amenorrhea (if F)

86
Q

Pts with Cushing will have
____natremia
____kalemia
____glycemia

A

Hyper
Hypo
Hyper

87
Q

Glands affected in CF

88
Q

Top two nursing dx for pts with CF

A

Decreased airway clearance
Altered nutrition or absorption

89
Q

Iontophoresis- sweat test’s for

90
Q

What two systems/organs are the most problematic in CF

A

Lungs
Pancreas

91
Q

How to evaluate activity pancreas in pt with CF

A

Observe stool for steatorrhea (oily, smelly, floating stool)

92
Q

Major problem in CF

A

Increased viscosity of the secretions of exocrine glands leading to obstruction

93
Q

Most common intervention for CF pt with a dx of decreased airway clearance is

A

Postural drainage

94
Q

Child with CF probably had hx of ____ ____ at birth

A

Meconium ileus - bowel obstruction due to thickness of stool

95
Q

Structures in brain most affected by Parkinson’s

A

Basal ganglia

96
Q

What drugs can cause a Parkinson’s-like syndrome

A

Haldol
Major tranquilizers
Drugs that end in -azine

97
Q

Four drugs used to teat Parkinson’s

A

Levodopa
Carbidopa- levodopa (sinement)
Selegiline
Amantadine