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E Med > BLS and ACLS COPY > Flashcards

BLS and ACLS COPY Flashcards

1
Q

question

A

answer

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2
Q

VF cardiac arrest survival rates decrease how much per minute delay in defibrillation WITHOUT CPR

A

7-10%

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3
Q

survival rates decrease how much per minute delay in defibrillation WITH CPR

A

3-4%

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4
Q

Rescue breathing cycle

A

1 breath every 5-6 seconds

or 10-12 breaths/min

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5
Q

CPR Cycles

A

30 compressions and 2 breaths

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6
Q

CPR compression rate

A

100 - 120 per min

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7
Q

CPR compression depth

A

2” adult

5cm child

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8
Q

What two condition do you shock patients?

A

VF/pVT

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9
Q

In ACLS what medicine do you give every 3-5 minutes

A

Ephinephrine

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10
Q

in ACLS what medicine do you give for VF/pVT

A

Amiodarone

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11
Q

In cardiac arrest algorithm, after BLS what are the two main branches?

A

VF/VT

PEA/Asystole

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12
Q

In cardiac arrest algorithm, What do you do after determining it is VF/VT?

A

Shock 360/200 + CPR > SAS

Shock 360/200 + CPR + Epinephrine 1 mg > SAS

Shock 360/200 + CPR + Amiodarone 300mg

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13
Q

In cardiac arrest algorithm, What do you do after determining it is PEA/Asystole?

A

CPR + Epinephrine 1mg

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14
Q

In cardiac arrest algorithm, how much epinephrine is administered?

A

1mg

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15
Q

In cardiac arrest algorithm, how much amiodarone is administered?

A

300mg

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16
Q

What is the acronym for cardiac arrest algorithm?

A

SCREAM

Shock
CPR
Rhythm Check
Epinephrine
Amiodarone
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17
Q

What are the Hs that need ACLS (5)

A 
hypoxia
hypovolemia
hydrogen ion
hyper/hypokalemia
hypothermia
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18
Q

What are the Ts that need ACLS (5)

A 
tension pneumothorax
tamponade
toxins
thrombosis, pulmo
thrombosis, coronary
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19
Q

In bradycardia algorithm, what are the two main branches after BLS?

A

Unstable

Stable

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20
Q

In bradycardia algorithm, what are the steps for unstable?

A

atropine So4 0.5mg TIV > trancutaneous pacing > dopamine/epinephrine infusion > transvenous pacing

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21
Q

In bradycardia algorithm, how much atropine is administered?

A

0.5mg TIV

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22
Q

In bradycardia algorithm, what are the steps for stable?

A

observe and monitor

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23
Q

In tachycardia algorithm, what are the two main branches?

A

stable and unstable

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24
Q

In tachycardia algorithm, how are the two main branches subdivided?

A

wide (VT)

narrow

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25
Q

In tachycardia algorithm, what are the steps for untable wide (VT)?

A

Sedate + Cardiovert 100J

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26
Q

In tachycardia algorithm, what are the steps for unstable narrow?

A

Regular (SVT) > sedate + cardiovert 50-100J + Adenosine

Irregular (AF) > sedate + cardiovert 120-200J

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27
Q

In tachycardia algorithm, what are the steps for stable wide (VT)?

A

. Adenosine
. Amiodarone
. Sotalol
. Procainamide

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28
Q

In tachycardia algorithm, what are the steps for stable narrow?

A

. Vagal maneuvers
. Adenosine
. Bb/ccb
. Expert consultation

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29
Q

In tachycardia algorithm, what is the common medicine?

A

Adenosine

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30
Q

In what two conditions are amiodarone administered in ACLS?

A

cardiac arrest VF/VT

tachycardia stable wide VT

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31
Q

In what two conditions are adenosine administered in ACLS?

A

tachycardia unstable narrow regular svt

tachycardia stable wide VT

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32
Q

Which tachycardia state receives cardiovert 100J?

A

tachycardia unstable wide vt

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33
Q

which tachycardia state receives cardiovert 50-100J?

A

tachycardia unstable narrow regular svt

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34
Q

which tachy cardia state receives cardiovert 120-200J?

A

tachycardia unstable narrow irregula af

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35
Q

In SCA, which is more important?

Chest compression
Maintain O2 and eliminate CO2

A

Chest compressions

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36
Q

In SCA, when is maintaining O2 and eliminate CO2 more important than chest compressions?

A

prolonged VF in SCA and asphyxial arrest

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37
Q

Why is 100% oxygen optimised oxyhemoglobin content important?

A

hopoxemia leads to anaearobic metabolism which may blunt benefits of chemical and electrical therapy

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38
Q

What underlying conditions could be a cause of hypoxia in the SCA patient?

A

. Underlying respiratory disease
. low cardiac output
. intrapulmonary shunting
. ventilation-perfusion mismatch

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39
Q

What is the oxygen level in exhaled air for rescue breathing?

A

16-17%

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40
Q

What is the best practice for bag-valve device in ventilation?

A

2 operators: 1 to hold mask, 1 to ventilate

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41
Q

a 1-2 L of O2 bag capacity delivers how much O2?

A

600ml

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42
Q

oral airways are used for what type of patient?

A

unconscious

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43
Q

nasal airways are used for what type of patient?

A

with trismus and biting

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44
Q

What is a considering of using advance airways in ACLS?

A

minimal interruption of cardiac compression

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45
Q

what are the advantages of laryngeal mask airway (LMA) in ACLS?

A

. more secure and reliable than BVM
. LMA equavalent ventilation than ET
. LMA not require larygonscopy and visualization of vocal cords

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46
Q

Whare are the advantages of ET intubation in ACLS?

A

. Isolates the airway, keeping it patent
. reduce risk of aspiration
. provides conduit for suctioning secretions
. delivers high concentration of oxygen
. provides route for drug administration
. ensures delivery of selected tidal lung volume to maintain lung inflation

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47
Q

What are the drugs for ACLS that are administered thru ETT?

A 
. Naloxone
. Atropine
. Vasopressin
. Epinephrine
. Lidocaine
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48
Q

What is the size of the ETT for adult male?

A

8.0-8.5 mm ID

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49
Q

What is the size of the ETT for adult female?

A

7.0-7.5 mm ID

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50
Q

What is are parts of postintubation care in ACLS?

A

. Record the depth of the ET
. Secure the ET using tapes
. Chest X-Ray for confirm position

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51
Q

What are the 4 arrest rythms?

A

. VF
. VT
. Pulseless Electrical Activity
. Asystole

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52
Q

Jugular, Subclavian femoral, Supraclavicula

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

a. Centeral IV access

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53
Q

Rapid arrival of drug at site of action

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

a. Centeral IV access

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54
Q

Increase risk of complications : subcutaneous emphysema, pneumothorax

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

a. Centeral IV access

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55
Q

Antecubital or external jugular

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

b. Peripheral IV access

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56
Q

Antecubital or external jugular

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

b. Peripheral IV access

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57
Q

Easier to learn, few complications

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

b. Peripheral IV access

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58
Q

No interruption CPR

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

b. Peripheral IV access

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59
Q

Venous access is not achieved

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

c. Intraoseaous access

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60
Q

Jamshidi needle

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

c. Intraoseaous access

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61
Q

proximal tibia below the tuberosity or at the distal femur

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

c. Intraoseaous access

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62
Q

Pediatric patients

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

c. Intraoseaous access

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63
Q

osteomyelitis

a. Centeral IV access
b. Peripheral IV access
c. Intraoseaous access

A

c. Intraoseaous access

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64
Q

What are IV fluid expanders? Which are given to pediatric patients?

A

. Fresh Whole Blood
. Crystalloid solutions - pedia
. Colloid Solutions - pedia

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65
Q

What type of IV fluid is preferred for CPR?

A

Plain NSS or LR

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66
Q

What is volume administration recommeded in routine cardiac arrest?

A

indication of volume depletion

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67
Q

Which has a worse neurologic outcome? What is MOA? Hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia

A

Hyperglycemia due osmotic diuresis

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68
Q

Sodium overload is rare/common

A

rare

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69
Q

What is the dose for volume expanders in neonates?

A

Dose 10 ml / kg

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70
Q

What are the IV fluids given to neonates?

A

Plain NSS or LR

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71
Q

Lidocaine
• Amiodarone

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

a. control heart rhythm and rate

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72
Q
  • Adenosine
  • Beta-Blockers

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

a. control heart rhythm and rate

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73
Q
  • Procainamide
  • Atropine

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

a. control heart rhythm and rate

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74
Q

• Verapamil/ Diltiazem

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

a. control heart rhythm and rate

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75
Q

Epinephrine
• Norepinephrine

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure

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76
Q
  • Dopamine
  • Dobutamine

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure

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77
Q
  • Sodium Nitroprusside
  • Nitroglycerine

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure

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78
Q
  • Digitalis
  • Diuretics

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure

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79
Q
  • Morphine SO4
  • Oxygen

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

c. myocardial infarction

80
Q
  • Nitroglycerine
  • Aspirin

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

c. myocardial infarction

81
Q

• Thrombolytic agents : Streptokinase, r- TPA, Heparin

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

c. myocardial infarction

82
Q
  • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
  • Beta Blockers

a. control heart rhythm and rate
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
c. myocardial infarction

A

c. myocardial infarction

83
Q

Steps of post cardiac arrest care

A 
Insertion of an NGT >
decompress the stomach of
air due BVM ventilation
• Insertion of foley catheter >
measure urine output
• Take a 12 lead ECG
• Do portable chest radiographs
• Therapeutic hypothermia
• Antibiotics
• Nutrition
84
Q

In post cardiac arrest care what is the purpose of insertion of an NGT?

A

decompress the stomach of air due BVM ventilation

85
Q

In post cardiac arrest care what is the purpose of insertion of foley catheter?

A

measure urine output

86
Q

question

A

answer

87
Q

What are the regions of the abdominal area

A

right/left hypochondraic region, epigestric region

right/left lumbar region, umibilical region

right/left iliac region, hypogastric region

88
Q

Hepatitis

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

right hypochondraic region

89
Q

cholecystitis

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

right hypochondraic region

90
Q

peptic ulcer

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

epigestric region

91
Q

pancreatitis

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

epigestric region

92
Q

splenic injury

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

left hypochondraic region

93
Q

renal and uretic pain

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

right lumbar region

left lumbar region

94
Q

(back) bowel obstruction

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

umibilical region

95
Q

aortic aneurysm

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

umibilical region

96
Q

appendicitis

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

right iliac region

97
Q

pelvic pain

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

hypogastric region

98
Q

diverticulitis

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

left iliac region

99
Q

Where does peptic ulcer and pacreatic pain refer to?

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

(from epigestric region)

100
Q

Where does aortic aneurysm pain refer to?

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

to back

101
Q

Where does peptic ulcer and pacreatic pain refer to?

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

back

102
Q

Where does diverticulitis pain refer to?

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right iliac region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

left lumbar region

103
Q

Where does pelvic pain refer to?

right hypochondraic region
left hypochondraic region
epigestric region

right lumbar region
left lumbar region
umibilical region

right region
left iliac region
hypogastric region

A

right iliac region

left iliac region

104
Q

lung bugs
stomach

foregut
midgut
hindgut

A

foregut

105
Q

upper abdominal pain

foregut
midgut
hindgut

A

foregut

106
Q

periumbilical pain

foregut
midgut
hindgut

A

midgut

107
Q

mesophrenic duct
cloaca

foregut
midgut
hindgut

A

hindgut

108
Q

lower abdominal pain

foregut
midgut
hindgut

A

hindgut

109
Q

abdominal wall

autonomic nerves
somatic nerves

A

somatic nerves (SPW)

110
Q

parietal peritonium

autonomic nerves
somatic nerves

A

somatic nerves (SPW)

111
Q

abdominal organs

autonomic nerves
somatic nerves

A

autonomic nerves (AVO)

112
Q

visceral peritonium

autonomic nerves
somatic nerves

A

autonomic nerves (AVO)

113
Q

inflammatory causes of acute abdominal pain

A 
appendicitis
diverticulitis
cholecystitis
PID
pancreatitis
pyelonephritis
intra-abdominal abcess
114
Q

perforation/rupture causes of acute abdominal pain

A

peptic ulcer
diverticular disease
ovarian cyst
aortic aneurysm

115
Q

obstruction causes of acute abdominal pain

A

intestinal obstruction
biliary colic
ureteric colic

116
Q

severe pain

triage level 1
level 2
level 3

A

level 2

117
Q

abdominal pain with stable vitals

triage level 1
level 2
level 3

A

level 3

118
Q

history taking abbreviation

A

SOCRATES

site
onset
character
radiation
associated symptoms
time
exacerbating factors
severity (subjective pain)
119
Q

What are the steps of abdominal examination?

A

inspection
palpation
percussion
auscultation

120
Q

What are you looking for in auscultation of the abdomen?

A

bowel sounds

bruit

121
Q

Signs for appendititis

A

rovsing’s sign
point sign (McBurney’s)
psoas sign
obturator sign

122
Q

ddx for pain/vomiting ± rigidity

A

acute pancreatitis
diabetic gastric paresis
dka
incercerated hernia

123
Q

ddx for pain/vomiting/distention

A

bowel obstruction

celcal volvulus

124
Q

ddx pain (±vomiting)

A 
acute diverticulitis
adnexal torsion
mesenteric ischemia
myocardial ischemia
testicular torsion
125
Q

ddx pain/shock

A 
abdominal sepsis
aortic dissection
hemorrhagic pancreatitis
leaking/ruptured abdominal aortis aneurysm
mesenteri ischemia (late)
MI
ruptured ectopic pregnancy
126
Q

abdominal pain which later shifts to right iliac fossa

A

acute appendicitis

127
Q

periumbilical or loin bruising

A

acute pancreatitis

128
Q

blood in stool

A

acute diverticulitis

129
Q

murphy’s sign

A

acute cholecystitis

130
Q

pain in right hypochondrium radiating to should or scapula

A

acute cholecystitis

131
Q

asymmetrical femoral pulses

A

ruptured aortic aneurysm

132
Q

lab test for pancreatitis

A

lipase (amylase if lipase not available)

133
Q

lab test for mesenteric ischemia

A

lactate

134
Q

question

A

answer

135
Q

how many newborns require assistance to begin breathing?

A

it is 10%

136
Q

What 3 questions used to identify neonate who do not need resuscitation?

A

Term?
Tone?
Breathing or crying?

137
Q

What are the initial steps in stabilizing neonate needing resusciation?

A 
warm and maintain normal temp
clear secretions (only if copious and/or obstructing the airway
dry
stimulate
position infant in "sniffing" position
138
Q

After the stabilization of neonate requiring resuscitation, what other steps maybe taken?

A

ventilate and oxygenate
initiate chest compressions
admnister epinphrine and/volume

139
Q

What determines if there is need for additional steps for neoatal resuscitation?

A 
respirations
heart rate (<100/min)
140
Q

What is target heart rate for neonate?

A

> 100/min

141
Q

What serious morbidities are there with hypothermia in neonates?

A

IVH, respiratory issues, hypoglacemia, late-onset sepsis

142
Q

Possible complications of using suction immediately after birth?

A

deterioriating pulmonary compliance, oxygenation, and cerebral blood flow

143
Q

What is the most rapid and accurate way to meansure heart rate of neonate?

A

3 lead ECG

144
Q

When are chest compressions indicated for neonate?

A

HR <60/min despite ventilation

145
Q

How are chest compression performed on neonate?

A

lower third of sternum

one thirs of the AP diameter of chest

146
Q

What medication can be used for neonate needing resuscitation?

A

epinephrine

147
Q

When is volume expansion indicated for neonate needing resusitation?

A

blood loss known or suspected

hr non responsive to other methods

148
Q

What is a possible complication of volume expansion in neonates?

A

IVH (intraventricular hemorrhage)

149
Q

What may be used for volume expansion in neonates?

A

isotonic crystalloid solution

blood

150
Q

What is guideline for discontinuing resuscitative efforts in neonates?

A

Apgar score of 0 at 10 minutes (determine if HR is detectable or not)

151
Q

question

A

answer

152
Q

pulmonary etiologies of DOB

A 
COPD
asthma
restrictive lung disorder
hereditary lung disorder
pneumonia
pneumo-thorax
153
Q

cardiac etiologies of DOB

A 
CHF
Coronary artery disease (CAD)
MI
cardiomyopathy
valvular dysfunction
left ventricular hypertrophy
pericarditis
arrythmias
154
Q

mixed cardiac/pulmonary etiology of DOB

A

chronic pulmonary emboli
pleural effusion
deconditioning
COPD with HTN and/or cor pulmonale

155
Q

noncardiac or nonpulmonary etiology of DOB

A 
metabolic disorders
pain
trauma
neuromuscular disorders
functional
cheminal exposure
156
Q

< 20 yo

asthma
COPD

A

asthma

157
Q

worse during night or early morning

asthma
COPD

A

asthma

158
Q

lung function normal between symptoms

asthma
COPD

A

asthma

159
Q

variable airflow limitation

asthma
COPD

A

asthma

160
Q

CXR normal

asthma
COPD

A

asthma

161
Q

> 40 yo

asthma
COPD

A

COPD

162
Q

daily symptoms and exertional dyspnea

asthma
COPD

A

COPD

163
Q

persistent airflow limitation

asthma
COPD

A

COPD

164
Q

lung function abnormal between symptoms

asthma
COPD

A

COPD

165
Q

CXR shows severe hyperinflation

asthma
COPD

A

COPD

166
Q

possible clinical features of severe asthma

A 
tachypnea
tachycardia
silent chest
cyanosis
accesssory muscle use
altered consciouness
167
Q

Why use PEF for asthma dx

A

more convinient and cheaper than FEV1

168
Q

What SpO2 level do you seek to maintain withoxygen therapy

A

92% O2

169
Q

When is ABG necessary for DOB?

A

patients with SpO2 <92% or features of life threatening asthma

170
Q

Management of asthma accronym

A

ASTHMA

Adrenergics (beta 2 agonists - Albuterol)
Streoids
Theophylline
Hydration (IV)
Mask O2
Anticholinergics
171
Q

digital clubbing + DOB

A

COPD

172
Q

pursing of lips + DOB

A

COPD

173
Q

COPD airflow obstruction level

A

FEV1/FVC ratio <0.7 post-bronchodilator

174
Q

What is performed to diagnose COPD

A

spirometry, post-bronchodilator

175
Q

COPD spirometry is performed (pre/post) bronchodilator

A

post bronchodilator

176
Q

COPD exacerbations mangement

A 
O2
bronchodilators (SABA with or without short-acting anticholinergics)
systemic corticosteroids (40 mg prednisone per day for 5 days)
177
Q

Type 1 pneumonias (2)

A

lobar and bronchopneumonia

178
Q

Type 2 pneumonia (2)

A

CAP and HAP

179
Q

patch consolidation usually in bases of both lungs

what type of pneumonia?

A

bronchopneumonia

180
Q

What is the point criteria for treatment of penumonia? Acryonym and scoring

A

CURB 65

Confusion
Uremia
Respiratory Rate >30
Blood pressure low
65 yo or greater
181
Q

Uses structure for classification

ACCF/AHA stages of HF
NYHA functional

A

ACCF/AHA stages of HF

182
Q

Cardiogenic shock. Hypotension, peripheral vasoconstriction

Kilip classification Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV

A

Stage IV

183
Q

Severe HF. Frank pulmonary edema with rales

Kilip classification Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV

A

Stage III

184
Q

HF. Rales, S3 gallop and pulmonary venous hypertention

Kilip classification Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV

A

Stage II

185
Q

Acute HF management

A

SpO2 95-98%
patent airway and FiO2 can be increased
diuretics (secondary to fluid retension)

186
Q

MC cause of dyspnea in AHF

A

pulmonary edema

187
Q

In AHF, morphine induced the following

A

venodilation
mild aterial dilation
redude HR

188
Q

In AHF, what is a potential adverse effect?

A

increasing need for inasive ventilation

189
Q

reduce LV-preload and after-load wo imparing tissue perfusion

nitrates
sodium nitroprusside
nesiritide
inotropes

A

nitrates

190
Q

hypertensive HF or MR, severe HR with predominantly increased after-load

nitrates
sodium nitroprusside
nesiritide
inotropes

A

sodium nitroprusside

191
Q

reduce preload and after-load, increase CO wo direct inotropic effects

nitrates
sodium nitroprusside
nesiritide
inotropes

A

nesiritide

192
Q

Pts with severely reduced cardic output compromised vital organ perfusion

nitrates
sodium nitroprusside
nesiritide
inotropes

A

inotropes

193
Q

When are vasopressors indicated?

A

combination inotropic agent and fluid challenge fails to restore adequate arterial pressure and organ perfusion

194
Q

HVS causes (increase/decrease) pCO2 which leads to (metabolic/respiratory) (alkalosis/acidosis)

A

HVS causes DECREASE pCO2 which leads to RESPIRATORY alkalosis

195
Q

common ddx for HVS

A

acute coronary syndrome
pulmonary embolism
CO2 poisoning

196
Q

HVS has (abnormal/normal) pH with (high/low) PaCO2 and a (high/low) bicarbonate level

A

HVS has NORMAL pH with LOW PaCO2 and a LOW bicarbonate level

197
Q

Pharmaco therapies for HVS

A

benzodiazepines
lorazepam (ativan)
diazepam (valium)
paroxetine (paxil)

E Med (13 decks)

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