BLP - time limits/voting rules Flashcards

1
Q

Override obligations under PA or partnership agreement

BLP Partnership

A

By unanimous consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Decision making in a partnership

BLP Partnership

A

Majority needed for “ordinary course of business decisions” & Unanimity needed for “change of nature” decisions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Voting on introduction & Expulsion of partners

Partnership

A

Incoming partners (no person may be introduced unless consent of all existing partners)
Expulsion (cannot be expelled by majority unless previously expressed this is possible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Subject to agreement, how remaining assets are distributed out after debts paid

BLP Partnership

A

Pay back original capital, then in accordance with PA 1890

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you incorporate an LLP

BLP Partnership

A

Two people + form LL IN01 at CH = Certificate of Incorporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Changes that must be reg at CH for LLP

BLP Partnership

A

Name, office, membership, charges, annual confirmation statement, accounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does a designated member do and minimum required for LLP

BLP Partnership

A

Signs accounts, files docs at CH, acts for firm on winding up;
Minimum = 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Date of enforcement for CA 2006

BLP: Formation

A

1st October 2006

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are BR passed (subject to Articles)

BLP: Formation

A

simple majority (50%+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

S9 requirements filed to CH for incorporation by scratch

BLP: Formation

A

Articles (inc memorandum) + Form IN01 + fee = Certificate of Incorporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How to Alter Articles

BLP: Formation

A

SR of SH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Changes to make after a shelf company incorporation

BLP: Formation

A

All SR must be filed; and amended articles along with any forms that CH requires (e.g. change of name form)
* AP01 (appointment of directors)
* AP03 (appointment of secretary)
* TM01 (removal of directors)
* TM02 (resignation of secretary)
* PSC02 and PSC07 (person of significant control (ceasing & entering)
* AD01 Change the registered office form
* NMO1 (change of name)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How to make changes to a shelf corporation (voting)

incorporation

A
  • SPECIAL RESOLUTION = Articles, name
  • Share transfer form and share certificate given to new owners & BOARD RESOLUTION = to approve transfer of shares
  • BOARD RESOLUTION = Registered Office
  • Most other changes can be done by BOARD RESOLUTION
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Minimum directors for private/public company

BLP Directors

A

private = 1
public = 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Companies that must have a company secretary

BLP Directors

A

public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

apppointment of directors (according to model articles)

BLP Directors

A

Ordinary Resolution of shareholders or directors decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Resolution required for a directors service contract

BLP Directors

A

BR of Ds unless long-term contract (2 years) then SH approval needed by OR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Removal of a director by SH

Directors

A

OR by SH for removal resolution (special notice 28 clear days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Removal of director by directors

Directors

A

not unless articles allow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How a director declares an interest in a proposed transaction

Directors

A

At a board meeting or in writing before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How a director with an ‘interest’ in a proposed transaction can be allowed to vote (MA)

Directors

A

Disapply the articles by OR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Transactions w/ directors needs a memorandum circulated

Directors

A

15 days before vote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Substantial property transactions which require OR by SH (director/connected)

Directors

A

more than £100,000 or 10% of Net Asset Value of company and over £5,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Loss of office payments that don’t require SH approval

Directors

A

In goodwill, damages/settlement, pension, <£200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Loss of office payments to be made available to SH before OR passed

DIrectors

A

15 clear days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Special notice for removal of director GM

Shareholders

A

28 clear days (can’t use written resolution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When must notice be given by board to all SHs if removal res put on agenda

Shareholders

A

14 clear days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Directors obligations on receipt of s303 request

Shareholders

A

Given notice of GM within 21 days from s303, and held within 28 days of notice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When SHs can’t use a written resolution

Shareholders

A

public companies; or the removal of a director/auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Minimum quorum for GM

Shareholders

A

Two SH, unless there is only one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How Shareholders can ratify Directors conduct (e.g. negligence, breach etc)

shareholders

A

Breach be ratified by OR unlawful acts can never be ratified

(person whose breach is being ratified and person connected to them cannot vote)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How to shorten notice for GM

Shareholders

A

Can be called by: a majority in numbers of the members AND who, together hold shares with a nominal value of not less than 90% of the total nominal value of the shares - NEED BOTH MAJORITIES

GM is then held immediately following BM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Stages to bring a derivative claim

shareholders

A
  1. court approval
  2. Evidence/views from neutral members
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Share of issued shares to vote on varying class rights

Equity finance

A

In writing 75% of that class or SR at GM of that class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

SHs to block a resolution to change class rights

equity finance

A

apply to court within 21 days & SHs holding 15% of relevant class (who did not vote in favour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

final dividend approval

equity finance

A

recommended by directors and OR of SH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

interim dividend approval

Equity Finance

A

Directors have authority to distribute if distributable profits (MA 30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Who private companies can issue shares to

Equity Finance

A

Targeted investors, employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Authority for directors to allot if more than one type of share in existence

equity finance

A

OR by SH / Article provision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How to disapply preemption rights

Equity finance

A

SR by SH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Period given to SHs to act on pre-emption rights

Equity finance

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Steps after grant of pre-emption rights for allotting

Equity Finance

A
  • Amended Articles/SRs within 15 days
  • Register SH01 within one month
  • changes of PSC if necessary
  • update company registers within 2 months
  • issues share certificates within 2 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what resolution is needed to approve an ‘off-market’ share purchase

Equity Finance

A

OR by SH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

when do the display terms of buyback contract before GM need to be available

equity finance

A

contract must be available for inspection at the company’s registered office for at least 15 days prior to and at GM
(or circulated if WR 90% of SH agree)

45
Q

what is needed for approval for buyback from distributable profits or fresh issue of shares

equity finance

A

SH approve by OR

46
Q

what is needed for approval for buyback from capital (private only)

equity finance

A

OR by SH – authorise redemption and contract terms

SR by SH – authorise declaration of solvency and auditors’ report (within 1 week of statement of solvency signed)

Payment out of capital 5-7 weeks after SR

47
Q

notice of cancellation & statement of capital filed at CH after buyback

equity finance

48
Q

How long after buyback must the company have a copy of the buyback contract

equity finance

49
Q

how/when to register a charge at CH

Debt Finance

A

Within 21 days using form MR01 (+ fee + debenture) (+ at LR if land)

50
Q

when do you have to register loans/personal agreements at CH

debt finance

51
Q

what is the date used to rank fixed and floating charges

debt finance

A

date of creation (CH) not including 21 days taken to register

52
Q

what is the date used to rank land charges

debt finance

A

date of registration (LR)

53
Q

what are crytallisation events (for floating charges)

debt finance

A

insolvency, ceases to trade, receiver appointed

54
Q

when private companies must file accounts

Accounts

A

within 9 months of end of accounting period

55
Q

when public companies must file accounts

ACCOUNTS

A

within 6 months of end of accounting period

56
Q

How do SH confirm directors proposed final dividend

accounts

57
Q

what is the accounting reference period that companies use (subject to change)

accounts

A

year from end of month of incorporation

58
Q

What is the personal allowance

income tax

A

£12,570 (reduced by £1 for every £2 over new income £100,000 and no benefit over £125,140)

59
Q

what is the personal savings allowance

income tax

A

basic rate = £1,000 SI at 0%
higher rate = £500 SI at 0%
Additional rate = none

60
Q

what are the relevant rates for income tax

income tax

A

BASIC (20%) = £0 - £37,700
HIGHER (40%) = £37,701 - £125,140
ADDITIONAL RATE (45%) = over £125,140

61
Q

what is the dividend allowance

income tax

A

£500 tax free allowance

62
Q

Annual exemption for CGT

CGT

63
Q

How many years can capital losses be carried forward

CGT

A

Indefinitely

64
Q

Higher/additional rate for CGT

65
Q

Basic rate

CGT

A

10% for unused basic, 20% otherwise
(10% if BPR/IR)

66
Q

Time restrictions on purchase of new asset for rollover relief

CGT

A

12 months before / 3 months after sale of old asset

67
Q

Qualifying assets for BADR (Business Asset Disposal Relief)

CGT

A
  1. Assets from a business that used to trade
    * Owned for at least 2 years before it ceased to trade;
    * Must have been used in the business
    * Disposed of within 3 years of ceasing
  2. Shares in a trading company/co that used to trade
    * Held for at least 2 years
    * Been an officer/employee of the company who holds at least 5% of the ordinary voting shares and is entitled to at least 5% of the profits available for distribution and 5% of the net assets on a winding up for at least 2 years
68
Q

Lifetime allowance for BADR

CGT

A

1 million (at 10%)

69
Q

Lifetime allowance of investor relief

CGT

A

£10 million

70
Q

Qualifying IR shares

CGT

A
  • Fully paid for ordinary shares issued after March 2016
  • trading co/holding co of trading co
  • unlisted at time of issue
  • held for 3 years
  • Not O/E/of a connected co
71
Q

Annual Investment Allowance (capital allowance)

Corp Tax

A

Deduct 100% expenditure up to £1m on YEAR of purchase [normal capital allowance of 18% can be applied to any expenditure above that £1m amount]

In 2023 = companies allowed to deduct 100% of the cost of new and unused plant/machinery (uncapped amount) = full expensing

72
Q

Calculating income profits

Corp Tax

A

Income receipts
LESS tax deductible expenditure
LESS capital allowances (AIA + 18%)
LESS trading losses

73
Q

Calculating chargeable gains

Corp Tax

A

Sale proceeds
LESS allowable expenditure (nb not maintaining/repairing)
LESS capital/trading losses

74
Q

Deductible expenditure for income purposes (calculating income profits)

Corp Tax

A

Wholly and exclusively incurred for the purposes of the trade, not prohib by statute (business entertainment/doubtful debts), be of an income nature (recurring payments)

[NOT dividends]

75
Q

Capital allowances reduction on Plant & Machinery

Corp Tax

76
Q

Payment of corp tax TTP £1,500,000 or less

Corp Tax

A

9 months and 1 day from end of accounting period

77
Q

Payment of corp tax TTP >£1,500,000

Corp Tax

A

4 instalments in next 2 years

78
Q

Time HMRC has to investigate corporation tax underpayment

Corp Tax

79
Q

Rates of supply (VAT)

VAT

A

Standard – 20% (assume most)
Reduced – 5% (smoking cessation products, childrens car seats, domestic heating/power & mobility aids)
Zero-rated – 0% (food, sewerage, water, public transport, books for the blind, books/newspapers, new houses/construction, childrens clothing)

80
Q

Close company definition

Anti-avoidance tax

A

5 or fewer participators (SH/cred) or any no of participators who are also directors (control = more than 50% issued share capital or assets on winding up)

Exclusions: listed on SE / wholly owned sub of non-close company

81
Q

Taxation effect of loan to a participator, for the participator from CC

Tax anti-avoidance

A

If written off, as a dividend for income tax
If fully repaid, no effect

82
Q

Taxation effect of loan to a participator, for the company from CC

Anti avoidance - tax

A

Corporation tax on the loan, paid within 9 months + 1 day of end of acc period
Can claim refund if paid back

83
Q

CC wont be deemed to have made a loan if …

tax anti-avoidance

A

Ordinary course of money lending business, form of credit normally given by company, loan to borrower which doesn’t exceed £15,000 in aggregate (borrower works full time for co and no material interest (5%) in CC)

84
Q

Tests of insolvency

Insolvency

A
  • Cash flow
  • balance sheet
  • £750 demand for debt
  • can’t satisfy enforcement judgement
85
Q

How long a pre-insolvency moratorium lasts

Insolvency

A

20 business days, extended by directors further 20 days (extended by max 1 year with creditors/court consent)

86
Q

Requirements for Pre-Insolvency Moratorium

Insolvency

A

File at court: statement unlikely to pay debts + ‘monitor’ statement from licenced insolv practitioner that a PIM will rescue the company

87
Q

Debts exempt from pre-insolvency moratorium

Insolvency

A

Must pay moratorium debts (but not pre-moratorium debts except rent/supplies/wages/salary/redundancy payments/loans to a bank)

88
Q

Set up of CVA

Insolvency

A
  1. directors draft CVA + appoint nominee
  2. submit CVA + st of company affairs to nominee
  3. nominee reports to court within 28 days to decide if creditors/SHs can vote
  4. creditors have 14 days to vote
  5. SHs vote in 5 days from cred vote
89
Q

Requirements for approval of CVA

Insolvency

A
  • Creditors: 75% in value of creditors (excluding secured) + majority in value of unconnected creditors (i.e. NOT related companies/directors) (allow 14 days)
  • Members: simple majority within 5 days of creditor vote
90
Q

Time limit for challenging CVA

insolvency

A

28 days on unfair prejudice

91
Q

Creditors bound by CVA

Insolvency

A
  • All unsecured creditors
  • Secured/preferential who consented
92
Q

Creditors bound by Restructuring Plan

Insolvency

A

All creditors

93
Q

Approval required for Restructuring Plan

Insolvency

A

75% each class (cross-class clamp down imposed by non-approving classes if court thinks that they would be better off than liquidation)

94
Q

When does administration terminate automatically

Administration

A

after 12 months (unless extended)

95
Q

Out of court administration procedure

Administration

A

PROCEDURE: company/directors
* File Notice of Intention & serve QFCH
* Then wait 5 business days
* Not less than 10 business days later from filing NOI, appoint and file notice of appointment
* Administrator appointed

PROCEDURE: QFCH (1st ranking) (streamlined out-of-court procedure)
* Appoint and file notice of appointment
* Administrator appointed

96
Q

Automatic dissolution after registrar receives notice of complete winding up

Liquidation

97
Q

MVL (Members VL) process

Liquidation

A
  1. Director’s declaration of solvency
  2. SR to approve MVL
  3. OR appoint liquidator, giving notice to any qualifying floating charge holder

Nb only for solvent companies

98
Q

Order of priority

Liquidation

A
  1. Liquidator’s costs inc preserving assets
  2. Fixed charge creditors – only part of security released from sale of fixed asset
  3. Preferential creditors (wages etc)
  4. Prescribed part (set aside for unsecured creditors)
  5. Floating charge creditors
  6. Unsecured creditors (only capital paid back) (rank pari passu)
  7. Interest on unsecured and preferential debts
  8. SHs
99
Q

Voidable transactions at undervalue
(criteria)

Voidable transaction

A

2 years prior to insolvency + insolvent at the time or as a result (presumed with connected person)

100
Q

Defence of transactions at undervalue

Voidable transactions

A

Good faith / reasonable belief of benefitting company

101
Q

Voidable preferences

Voidable transactions

A

6 months prior to insolvency (unconnected person) / 2 years prior to insolvency (connected person) + co insolvent at the time or as a result + influenced by a desire to prefer creditor (assumed with connected person)

102
Q

Avoidance of floating charges (ie secure a floating charge to secure an existing charge for no consideration)

Voidable transactions

A

1 year prior to insolvency (unconnected person) / 2 years (connected person) + company insolvent at the time or as a result of - unless connected person

103
Q

Transactions defrauding creditors

Voidable transactions

A

Intention to put assets beyond reach of creditors (no time limit or need to be insolvent)

104
Q

Typical timeframe of IVA (to repay debts)

Individual insolvency

105
Q

Creditors meeting takes place

Individual Insolvency

A

Within 14 days of court granting interim order

106
Q

Approval needed at creditors meeting

Individual Insolvency

A

75% to accept proposals

107
Q

People who can make a bankruptcy petition to court

Individual insolvency

A

Unsecured creditor (owed at least £5,000) or supervisor/creditors from failed IVA

108
Q

Automatic discharge from bankruptcy order

Individual Insolvency

A

1 year from order if complied with duties