Blood Pressure Alterations and Cardiac Alterations Focus Flashcards

1
Q

what is the top number of BP called and what is it measuring

A

systolic - the maxium pressure the heart exudes while contracting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the bottom number of BP called and what is it measuring

A

diastolic - measuring the residual pressure in the arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the goal for diastolic BP

A

60-80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is mean arterial pressure

A

the average pressure in the arterial system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the mean arterial pressure goal

A

60-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is cardiac output

A

how much blood volume is pumped out of the hart each minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is cardiac output goal

A

4-6L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is stroke volume

A

the volume of the blood pumped out of the LV during each contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is elevated BP/ hypertension stage 1 range

A

130-139 / 80-89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is hypertension stage 2 range

A

> 140/ >90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a hypertension crisis range generally

A

> 180/>120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a hypertensive crisis for people over 50

A

150/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a hypertensive crisis for people under 50

A

same has hypertension stage 2 >140/>90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is a hypertensive crisis

A

Severely high BP that rapidly progresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what could be the cause of a hypertensive emergency

A

head bleed, heart failure, heart attack, renal failure, dissecting aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are some ss of hypertension

A

fatigue, dizziness, palpitations, angina, dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what labs will you take to diagnosis hypertension

A

BMP, lipid panel, TSH, ECG,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what kind of lifestyle changes can someone do to decrease hypertension

A

lose weight, change diet (DASH) decrease ETOH (alcohol), dont smoke, decrease stress, exercise atleast 30min a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a DASH diet

A

less red meat, salt, less sweets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the 1st line drugs for hypertension

A

ACE, ARB, calcium channel blockers, and diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what meds end in dipin and what are some other examples

A

calcium channel blockers, also diltiazem and verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are some common SE of caclium channel blockers

A

peripheral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

who should not take calcium channel blockers and what should you not take with calcium channel blockers

A

CHF or with grape juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are some side effects of ACE

A

dry cough (lisinopril), decrease potassium, decreased HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are some second line drugs for hypertension

A

beta blockers, potassium sparing diuretics, direct vasodialators, adrenegic inhibiting agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

are are some cardioselective beta blockers

A

bisoprolol, metoprolol, esmolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are some non-cardioselective beta blockers and where do they work

A

propanolol - lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are some side effects for cardioselective beta blockers

A

mask hypoglycemia, increased HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are some se for non cardio selective beta blockers

A

bronchospasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are some mixed cardioselective beta blockers

A

caredilol and labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what happens if you take hypertensive meds with NISAIDs

A

renal damage and retain fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are some potassium sparing diuretics

A

sprinolactone and eplernone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are some direct vasodilators medications

A

hydralazine, nitroglycerin, sodium nitropursside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are some adrenergic inhibiting agents

A

clonidine - last resort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what could be the cause someone goes into hypertensive crisis

A

non compliant, head injury, pheochromocytoma, illegal drugs, preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the goal for hypertensive crisis management

A

decrease in map by 20% and DBP of 110-115 w/ antihypertensives in 1st 2-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the labs for kidney disease caused by hypertension

A

creatine over 1.5 and proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the P wave on ECG and what is the normal bpm

A

SA node 60-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the PR segment on ECG and what is happening

A

AV node the energy travels to atrium to make it contract and push blood into ventricles

40
Q

what are the secondary pacemakers of the heart and what are there normal bpm

A

AV node 40-60 bmp
his purkinje fibers 20-40bpm

41
Q

who is bradycardia normal in

A

athletes

42
Q

what could be some causes for bradycardia

A

hypothermia, vagal stimulation, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, hypothyroidism , increased intracranial pressure, MI

43
Q

what could be some causes for tachycardia

A

stressors, drugs like norepinephrine and epinephrine, theo-durr, or OTC cold remedies

44
Q

what are some ss of brady cardia

A

decreased BP, cold skin, weakness, angina, dizziness, confusion, SOB

45
Q

what are some ss of tachycardia

A

dizziness, dyspnea, decreased BP, angina( in patients with CAD)

46
Q

what is atropine med used for and how does dosing work

A

for bradycardia -> 1mg every 3-5 minutes for a total of 3 mg

47
Q

what are some interventions for bradycardia

A

pacemaker (temp or permanent), stop offending drugs

48
Q

what is something someone can do to help with tachycardia

A

vagal manuever (bear down)

49
Q

what meds decrease HR for tachycardia

A

beta blockers, calcium channel blockers

50
Q

what is paroxysmalsupra - ventricular tachycardia

A

abrupt onset and ending starting above bundle of his - recitation of atria

51
Q

who is mostly effected by paroxysmalsupra - ventricular tachycardia

A

young healthy females

52
Q

what is the normal heart rate paroxysmal supra - ventricular tachycardia

A

150-220bpm

53
Q

what could be some causes for paroxysmal supra - ventricular tachycardia

A

over excertion, emotional stress, stimulants, stimulants like caffeine and tobacco

54
Q

what are the ss of paroxysmal supra - ventricular tachycardia

A

feeling unwell, weak, fatigue, heart racing, prolonged decrease in BP, dyspnea, angina

55
Q

what are some vagal stimulants you can do for paroxysmal supra - ventricular tachycardia

A

carotid massage, valsalva, coughing

56
Q

what is IV adenosine for and how does dosing work

A

1st drug for paroxysmal supra - ventricular tachycardia , 6mg->12mg->12mg->20ml flush

57
Q

what needs to be monitored for IV adenosine

A

continued monitor on ECG

58
Q

what are the SE IV adenosine

A

flushing, chest pain

59
Q

if hemodynamically unstable and on IV adenosine what is required

A

direct current cardioversion

60
Q

what does atrial flutter look like

A

saw toothed originating from single ectopic focus in atrium

61
Q

what is a fib

A

the disorganized atrial activity caused by multi ectopic folci which causes ineffective atrial contraction and no p waves

62
Q

how do you rate control for a fib/flutter

A

calcium channel blockers, beta blockers

63
Q

what are some procedures for a fib

A

maze procedures with cryoblation, LA appendages occlusion

64
Q

if someone is experiencing a fib/flutter for over 48 hours what needs to be done

A

anticoagulants for 3-4 weeks before cardioversion then several weeks after

65
Q

what does a transesophogeal echocardiogram detect

A

sees if there are any clots in the atrium

66
Q

what is a 1st degree AV block

A

impulse to AV node (send blood from atrium to ventricles) is prolonged but once through the rest is normal

67
Q

what is the ss of 1st degree av block

A

Asymptomatic

68
Q

how do you diagnosis 1st degree av block

A

ECG, TSH, BMP,

69
Q

what is the treatment for 1st degree AV block

A

just monitor

70
Q

what is 2nd degree av block

A

since that AV prolongation now its not blocking the QRS so its missing on the ECG

71
Q

whats the difference of type 1 and 2 2nd degree av block

A

type 1 has a p wave
type 2 is no p wave

72
Q

what are the 2 meds used for 2nd degree type 1 av block

A

digoxin or beta blockers

73
Q

what is the med of choice of 2nd degree type 2 av block

A

atropin it increases hr

74
Q

what are some other treatment options for 2nd degree type 2 av block

A

if they are symptomatic ->temporary pacemaker especially if they have experienced an MI is asymptomatic monitor and have a transcutaneous pace maker on standby

75
Q

what are some ss of 2nd degree type 2 av block

A

decreased cardiac output, decreased BP and myocardial ischemia

76
Q

what is 3rd degree AV block

A

no impulse to AV node

77
Q

what does a 3rd degree av block look like on an ECG

A

2 missing QRS back to back

78
Q

what is premature ventricular contraction

A

QRS is happening too soon

79
Q

what could be some causes for premature ventricular contraction

A

stimulants, electrolyte imbalances, hypoxia, fever, exercise, stress, cardiac disease -> so treat the cause

80
Q

what are some ss of premature ventricular contraction for a normal heart

A

not harmful

81
Q

what are some ss of premature ventricular contraction for heart disease

A

decreased CO, angina, HF

82
Q

what is an R on T phenomenon and what condition is it seen in

A

premature ventricular contraction - QRS happening on T wave when the heart is suppose to be recovering

83
Q

what does R on T phenomenon cause

A

VT and V fib

84
Q

what is ventricular fibrillation

A

run of 3 or more premature ventricular contraction can be stable (pulse) or unstable (no pulse) sustained (longer then 30 seconds) or non sustained (less then 30 seconda)

85
Q

what is monomorphic VF

A

QRS has the same shape/size/ direction

86
Q

how do you treat monomorphic VF

A

antidysrhythmias

87
Q

what is polymorphic VF (torsades de pointes)

A

QRS gradually changes back and forth from one shape and size to another

88
Q

what meds do you use to treat polymorphic VF (torsades de pointes)

A

beta blockers, aminodarone, procainamide, magnesium

89
Q

what is pulse less electrical activity

A

you can see electrical activity but no mechanical activity = no pulse

90
Q

what are the risk for pulses electrical activity

A

hypovolemia, hypoxia, acidosis, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, hypothermia, toxins, tamponade, thrombus, tension pneumothorax, trauma

91
Q

what doe most cardiac related death result from

A

ventricular dysrhythmias

92
Q

what could be the risk for stage 2 hypertension

A

renal disease, primary aldosterone, pheochromocytoma, Cushings syndrome, Medication

93
Q

why would having primary aldosterone increase your risk of having stage 2 hypertension

A

(retaining fluid so high sodium and low vitamin K)

94
Q

why would having pheochromocytoma increase your risk of having stage 2 hypertension

A

(tumor on the adrenal causing excretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine)

95
Q

why would cushings syndrome increase your risk of having stage 2 hypertension

A

increase cortisol = retaining fluid)