Blood, Lymph and Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three functions of blood?

A
  • A transport system
  • a regulatory system
  • a defense system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does blood work as a transport system?

A
  • O2 and nutrients to all living cells
  • waste products to lung and kidney
  • hormones from endocrine glands to target organs
  • white blood cells from bone marrow to tissues
  • platelets for clotting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the regulatory functions of blood?

A
  • body temperature: absorbs heat from active skeletal muscle; cools body temperature through skin surface; senses brain temperature regulators
  • the pH (normal 7.35-7.45), ion compositions and volume of interstitial fluids –> homeostasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How dose blood work as a defense system?

A
  • white blood cells –>phagocytosis
  • antibodies –> attacks forgein organisms and compounds
  • clotting factors and platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are anticoagulants?

A

substances that tie up clotting factors and prevent blood from clotting, (EDTA ties up calcium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is serum?

A

the plasma - clotting proteins (in clotting: fibrinogen –> insoluble fibrin; clotting process also removes calcium ions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe blood volume?

A

blood volume (liters) = 7% of body weight (kilograms) in humans;
- adult male: 5 to 6 liters
- adult female: 4 to 5 liters
- dog: 7.2%
- cow: 7.7%
- sheep: 8.0%
- horse 9.7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How much blood can you lose?

A

the limit is about 25% of the total blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main component of blood and what percent is it?

A

water, ~92%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What percentage of blood do plasma proteins make up?

A

~7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the main plasma proteins and describe them?

A
  • albumin (60%): transport lipids, steroid hormones
  • globulines (35%): transport globulins (transport ions, hormones, lipids) and immunoglobulins (antibodies): IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD
  • fibrinogen (4%): essential component of clotting system
  • regulatory (<1%): enzymes, proenzymes, hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the other solutes that make up blood?

A
  • electrolytes: Na+, K+, Mg2+, Cl-, HCO3-, HPO42-, SO42-
  • organic nutrients: lipids, glucose, amino acids
  • organic wastes: urea, uric acid, creatinine, ammonium ions
  • gasses: O2, CO2, N2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is included in extracellular fluid?

A

includes interstitial fluid and plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe plasma

A

plasma does not equal interstitial fluid.
- similar in major plasma ions
- different in dissolved protein concentrations
- different in levels of respiratory gasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the formed elements?

A

red blood cells, platelets (thrombocytes), and white blood cells (leukocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are red blood cells?

A
  • red blood cells (RBCs) make up 99.9% of blood’s formed elements
  • function: the transport of respiratory gasses (O2 and CO2)
  • live about 120 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you measure red blood cells?

A

red blood cell count:
- reports the number of RBCs in 1 microliter of whole blood
- in millions: humans: 4.2-6.3; horse: 7; cow: 7; sheep: 11; pig: 7; dog: 7
- a single drop = 260 million
- total = 25 trillion = 1/3 of all cells of human body
- 1000 RBC : 1 WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

means packed cell volume (PCV)
- percentage of RBCs in centrifuged whole blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the structure of a RBC?

A
  • membranous sac (65% water, 35% solids)
  • a biconcave disc: thin in middle and thicker at edge
  • lost most organelles, including nuclei. retain only cytoskeleton
  • can not divide or synthesize structural proteins. Can not repair themselves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the importance of RBC shape and size?

A
  1. high surface-to-volume ratio:
    - quickly absorbs and releases oxygen
  2. discs form stacks
    - smoothes flow through narrow blood vessels
  3. discs bend and flex entering small capillaries
    - 7.8 micrometers RBC passes through 4 micrometer capillary
  4. a short diffusion distance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A
  • A protein molecule, transports respiratory gases
  • HB accounts > 95% of solids, 280 million Hb per RBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the makeup of hemoglobin.

A

Has 4 globular protein subunits
- each with 1 molecule of heme
- each heme contains 1 iron ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the importance of iron on hemoglobin?

A

iron ions easily form a weak, easily reversible binding with an oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the difference between normal hemoglobin and fetal hemoglobin?

A

fetal hemoglobin binds to O2 more easily and “steals” O2 from mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where does hemoglobin in RBCs transport to?

A
  • oxygen from lungs to peripheral tissues
  • carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is oxyhemoglobin?

A
  • bright red
  • is oxygen binded to an iron
  • is taking oxygenated blood away from the lungs
  • works under high pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is deoxyhemoglobin?

A
  • dark red
  • is deoxygenated blood
  • taking blood back to the heart and lungs
  • the amount of oxygen bound to HB depends on the oxygen content of the plasma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the relevance of anemia?

A
  • when hematocrit or hemoglobin levels are below normal
  • low hematocrit: blood loss, blood destruction, decreased red blood cell production
  • to little Hb: mainly due to deficiency of one or the substances needed to synthesize heme or globun
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

an increase above normal in the number of RBCs due to dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What determines the blood types in humans?

A

surface antigens of RBCs (agglutinogens)
- antigen: substance that trigger an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe the surface antigens of human RBCs

A

Human RBCs have > 50 agglutinogens (integral membrane glycoproteins or glycolipids), three are important: A, B, and Rh (D)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe the antibodies in plasma

A

globular proteins that bind to specific “foreign” antigens and promote their destruction or removal from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 4 basic blood types?

A

A, B, AB, and O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the blood types in dogs?

A
  • DEA 1.1 positive
  • DEA 1.1 negative
  • Universal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the blood types of cats?

A

A, B, AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are white blood cells also called?

A

leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are white blood cells made up of?

A

do not have hemoglobin, have nuclei and other organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the functions of white blood cells?

A
  • defend against pathogens
  • remove toxins and wastes
  • attack abnormal cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe granular leukocytes (granulocytes)

A
  • have granules in their cytoplasm
  • based on staining
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the granular leukocytes and what are their stains?

A
  • basophil: blue granules
  • neutrophil: neither blue nor red
  • eosinophil: red granules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe nongranular leukocytes (agranulocytes)

A
  • no granules in their cytoplasm
  • based on their specific functions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the nongranular leukocytes and what are their functions?

A
  • lymphocyte: T cells, B cells, NK cells
  • monocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the characteristics of WBCs?

A
  • capable of amoeboid movement
  • can migrate out of the blood stream (margination and diapedesis)
  • positive chemotaxis: neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes are capable to phagocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which WBC are microphages?

A

neutrophils and eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which WBC are macrophages?

A

monocytes that moved out the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe neutrophils

A
  • granules contain lysosomal enzymes and bactericidal compounds (hydrogen peroxide and superoxide)
  • very dense, segmented nucleus that forms 2-5 lobes –> also called polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

1st line of defense (quick response)
- phagocytosis of small pathogenic organisms
- hydrogen peroxide kills bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the lifespan of neutrophils?

A

hours - 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe eosinophils

A
  • large granules stain red with eosin
  • bilobed nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the functions of eosinophils?

A
  • attack objects (bacteria, protozoa, or cellular debris) by phagocytosis and exocytosis of toxic compound (nitric oxide and cytotoxic enzymes)
  • defend against large multicellular parasites
  • release anti inflammatory substances in allergic reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the lifespan of eosinophils?

A

10 - 12 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Describe basophils

A
  • rare and smaller
  • dense granules stain deep purple of blue with basic dye
  • nucleus generally cannot be seen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the functions of basophils?

A
  • enhance inflammatory response by:
    • release histamine (dilates blood vessels)
    • release heparin (prevents blood clotting)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the lifespan of basophils?

A

hours - 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe monocytes

A
  • largest (twice the diameter of a RBC)
  • spherical
  • nucleus is large and tends to be oval or kidney bean shaped
55
Q

What are the functions of monocytes?

A
  • enter peripheral tissues to become a tissue macrophage (major and aggressive phagocytes)
  • release chemicals to attract and stimulate other phagocytic cells
  • secrete substances that lire fibroblasts into the region to produce scar tissue
56
Q

What is the lifespan of monocytes?

A

months

57
Q

Describe lymphocytes

A
  • slightly larger than RBC
  • round and large nucleus, often look like nuclei without cytoplasm
  • migrate in and out of blood
  • mostly in connective tissues and lymphatic organs
58
Q

What are the types of lymphocytes?

A

T cells, B cells, NK cells

59
Q

What do T cells do?

A

cell-mediated immunity: provide “killer” cells to directly attack foreign invaders

60
Q

What do B cells do?

A

humoral immunity: production and distribution of antibodies

61
Q

What do NK cells do?

A

immune surveillance: the detection and subsequent destruction of abnormal tissue cells

62
Q

What is the lifespan of lymphocytes?

A

days to years

63
Q

What is the ratio of WBCs to RBCs?

A

RBCs outnumber WBCs 1000:1

64
Q

What is differential count?

A

the number of each type of cell in a sample of 100 WBCs

65
Q

Why do WBC counts change?

A

changes in infections, inflammation, and allergic reactions

66
Q

Describe platelets (thrombocytes)

A
  • cell fragments: not complete cells. Megakaryocyte sheds cytoplasm to produce ~4000 platelets in a lifetime
  • cytoplasm contains very small pink staining granules which contain some of the clotting factors
67
Q

What are the functions of platelets (thrombocytes)

A
  1. release important clotting chemicals
  2. temporarily patch damaged vessel walls
  3. actively contract tissue after clot formation
68
Q

What is another name for platelets?

A

thrombocytes

69
Q

What is the lifespan of platelets (thrombocytes)?

A

7 - 12 days

70
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

the process by which blood is prevented from leaking from damaged blood vessels. At the same time, it establishes a framework for tissue repairs.

71
Q

What are the three phases of hemostasis?

A
  • vascular phase
  • platelet phase
  • coagulation phase
72
Q

Describe the vascular phase

A
  • a cut triggers vascular spasm
  • smooth muscles contract
  • endothelial cell membranes become “sticky”
73
Q

Describe the platelet phase

A
  • attachment of platelets to exposed surfaces
  • platelet aggregation (attachment) to form a platelet plug
  • begin within 15 seconds
74
Q

Describe the coagulation phase?

A
  • begins 30 seconds or more
  • blood clotting (coagulation): involves a series of steps, converts circulating fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin, fibrin + trapped blood cells = blood clot
  • clotting factors: Ca2+ and 11 proteins
  • fibrinolysis: as the repairs proceed, the clot gradually dissolves by the enzyme
75
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A
  • the entire process of all blood cell production
  • a continuous process
76
Q

Where does hematopoiesis take place in early fetus and adults?

A
  • in early fetus: liver and spleen
  • in adults: red bone marrow, the only site of red blood cell production and the primary site of white blood cell formation
77
Q

What determines the pathways of hematopoiesis?

A

the chemical or physiological stimulus determines the pathways; one-way process

78
Q

What is the relevance of blood cancer?

A
  • leukemia: increase white blood cells in blood. Lymphocytic leukemia: too many lymphocytes. Myeloid leukemia: increase myeloid cells, decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
  • lymphoma: cancer of the lymph stem
  • myeloma: cancer of the plasma cells in bone marrow
79
Q

What are the 4 parts of the lymphatic system?

A
  1. Lymph
    - a fluid similar to plasma
    - does not have plasma proteins
  2. lymphatic vessels (lymphatics)
    - network that carries lymph from peripheral tissues to the venous system
  3. lymphoid tissues and lymphoid organs
    - found throughout the body
    - connected to lymphatic vessels and contain large numbers of lymphocytes
  4. lymphocytes: T-cells. B-cells, and NK cells
80
Q

What are the functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  • the production, maintenance, and distribution of lymphocytes –> immune function
  • the return of fluid and solutes from peripheral tissues to the blood
  • also transports hormones, nutrients, and waste products
81
Q

Describe lymphatic capillaries (terminal lymphatics)

A
  • originate as blink pockets
  • flattened or irregular outline in sectional view
82
Q

Describe lymphatic vessels (lymphatics)

A
  • microscopic lymphatic capillaries merge to form lymphatic vessels
83
Q

Describe lymphatic trunks

A
  • formed by convergence by superficial and deep lymphatics
84
Q

Describe lymphatic ducts

A
  • converged by trunks, empty into the subclavian veins
85
Q

Describe the order of lymph flow

A

afferent lymphatics –> subcapsular sinus –> outer cortex (B cells) –> deep cortex (T cells) –> medulla (B cells, macrophages) –> efferent lymphatics

86
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

like a kitchen water filter, it filters and purifiers lymph before lymph reaches the venous circulation. It removes debris, pathogens, and 99% of antigens

87
Q

What is the structure of the spleen?

A
  • the largest lymphoid organ, “tongue” shaped

internal organization
- red pulp: blood vessels and storage space (sinuses)
- white pulp: localized areas of lymphoid tissues

88
Q

What are the functions of the spleen?

A
  • blood storage in red pulp
  • defense: remove foreign materials from circulation by macrophages
  • remove dead, dying, and abnormal RBCs
89
Q

Describe the structure of the thymus

A
  • laying on either side of the trachea
  • two thymic lobes (lobules)
  • each lobule consists of: cortex and medulla
  • lymphocytes: divide in the cortex, T cells migrate into the medulla, mature T cells leave thymus by medullary blood vessels
90
Q

What are the functions of the thymus?

A
  • final site of T-cell development
  • secrete a group of hormones (thymosin) to stimulate T-cell development
91
Q

What is gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) and what does it include?

A

an innate system in the gastrointestinal system

includes:
- tonsils
- Peyer’s patches: organized lymphoid follicles
- specialized M cells: transport microbes from the intestine to other side for macrophages

92
Q

What is the immune system?

A

all body cells and tissues involved in production of immunity, not just lymphatic system

93
Q

What are the functions of the immune system?

A

to protect animals from anything that could cause disease or damage:
- phagocytosis and destruction of foreign cells
- lysis of foreign cell membranes
- inactivation of pathogenic organisms or chemical substances
- precipitation or clumping (agglutination) of cells or molecules

recognize and differentiate between “self” and “foreign invaders”

94
Q

What are pathogens?

A

microscopic organisms that cause disease:
- viruses
- bacteria
- fungi
- parasites

each attacks in a specific way

95
Q

What is immunity?

A

The ability to resist infection and disease

96
Q

What is nonspecific immunity (innate immunity)?

A

Do not distinguish one type of threat from another

97
Q

What is specific immunity (acquired immunity)?

A
  • protect against particular threats
  • both nonspecific and specific immune response are complementary and must function normally
98
Q

Name the 7 parts of nonspecific immunity

A
  1. physical barrier
  2. phagocytes
  3. immunological surveillance
  4. interferons
  5. complement system
  6. inflammation
  7. fever
99
Q

Describe the physical barrier

A

keeps hazardous materials outside the body by:
- epithelial covering barrier (skin)
- specialized accessory structures and secretions of epithelial cells (hair, secretions: flush surface, contain bactericidal chemicals)

100
Q

Describe the phagocytes of nonspecific immunity

A

“first line” of cellular defense
- microphages: neutrophils and eosinophils
- macrophages: fixed macrophages and free macropahges

attack and remove dangerous microorganisms
- engulf a pathogen
- bind to or remove a pathogen with assistance by other cells
- destroy its target by releasing toxic chemicals

101
Q

Describe immunological surveillance

A

Natural killer (NK) cells recognize and destroy abnormal cells by detecting the antigens on the cell membrane of abnormal cells and lyse the cell by forming pores with perforin

102
Q

Describe interferons

A
  • small proteins released by activated lymphocytes and macrophages and by tissues cells infected with viruses

functions:
- trigger production of antiviral proteins in normal cells
- antiviral proteins: do not kill viruses, block replication in cell

103
Q

Describe the complement system

A
  • 11 complement proteins (C)
  • complements, or supplements the action of antibodies

functions: destruction of target cell membranes by forming the membrane attack complex (MAC) which creates a pore for cell lysis

104
Q

Describe inflammation

A

the first step in the healing process, characterized by:
1. swelling
2. redness
3. warmth
4. pain
5. some loss of function

105
Q

What does histamine do?

A

increases capillary permeability

106
Q

What does heparin do?

A

inhibits clotting

107
Q

What are the functions of inflammation?

A
  1. temporary repair and barrier against pathogens
  2. retards spread of pathogens into surrounding areas
  3. mobilization of local and systemic defenses
108
Q

What are pyrogens?

A
  • proteins that can reset body’s thermostat and raise body temperature
  • pathogens, bacterial toxins, and antigen - antibody complexes
109
Q

Describe a fever

A

uses pyrogens

within limits, for each 1 degree celsius rise in temperature, metabolism rate jumps by 10%.
- quicker mobilization of tissue defenses and acceleration of repair process

110
Q

What is specific resistance (immunity)?

A
  • responds to specific antigens
  • with coordinated action of T cells and B cells
111
Q

What are the 4 properties of specific immunity?

A
  1. specificity: responds only to a specific antigen
  2. versatility: animal body is ready to confront many antigen at any time, resulted from the large diversity of lymphocytes and antibodies in the body
  3. memory: if an antigen enters the body a second time, a memory of the antigen causes the immune response to occur more quickly
  4. tolerance: immune system ignores “normal” antigens
112
Q

Describe T cells

A

thymus-dependent, 80% of circulating lymphocytes

113
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells (Tc) (killer T cells) do?

A
  • attack cells physically by releasing perforin
  • produce cell-mediated immunity
114
Q

What do Helper T cells (TH) do?

A
  • secrete cytokines to stimulate both T cells and B cells
  • most numerous T cells
115
Q

What do suppressor T cells (Ts) do?

A

inhibit T cell and B cell activities

116
Q

What does cell-mediated immunity involve?

A

involves close physical contact between activated Tc cells and foreign, abnormal, or infected cells

117
Q

What do B cells do?

A

-responsible for antibody-mediated immunity
- attack antigens by producing specific antibodies
- millions of populations, each with different antibody molecules

118
Q

Describe the structure of an antibody

A

2 parallel pairs of polypeptide chains
- 1 pair of heavy chains
- 1 pair of light chains

each chain contains:
-constant segments: IgG, IgE, IgD, IgM, or IgA
- variable segments: contain antigen binding sites, determines the specificity of the antibody, ~ 100 million types of antibodies

119
Q

Describe the IgG antibody

A
  • 80% of all antibodies
  • mainly in plasma
120
Q

Describe the IgE antibody

A
  • attaches to exposed surfaces of basophils and mast cells
  • important in allergic response
121
Q

Describe IgD antibodies

A
  • on surface of B cells
  • involved in B cell activation
122
Q

Describe IgM antibodies

A
  • first class of antibody secreted after an antigen arrives
  • effective in forming immune complexes
123
Q

Describe IgA antibodies

A
  • primarily in glandular secretions: mucus, tears, saliva
124
Q

What are the seven actions of antibodies?

A
  1. neutralization of antigen binding sites
  2. precipitation and agglutination: formation of immune complex
  3. activation of complement
  4. attraction of phagocytes
  5. opsonization: increasing phagocyte efficiency
  6. stimulation of inflammation
  7. prevention of bacterial and viral adhesion
125
Q

What is specific resistance (immunity)?

A

responds to threats on an individualized basis

126
Q

What is acquired immunity?

A

produced by prior exposure or antibody production

127
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

Genetically determine – no prior exposure or antibody production involved

128
Q

What is active immunity?

A

produced by antibodies that develop in response to antigens (immune response)

129
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

produced by transfer of antibodies from another person

130
Q

What is naturally acquired immunity?

A

develops after exposure to antigens in environment

131
Q

What is induced active immunity?

A

develops after administration of antigen to prevent disease

132
Q

What is induced passive immunity?

A

conferred by administration of antibodies to contract infection

133
Q

What is natural passive immunity?

A

conferred by transfer of maternal antibodies across placenta or in breast milk

134
Q
A