Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EXAM 1: Pathophysiology > Blood Disorders (CHP 22 + 23 + 24) > Flashcards

Blood Disorders (CHP 22 + 23 + 24) Flashcards

Describe the pathophysiology and manifestations of disorders of erythrocytes, including anemias (all types), and polycythemia. Describe the pathophysiology and manifestations of non-neoplastic and neoplastic disorders of leukocytes. Differentiate between types of cancer affecting the blood and lymphoid tissue (Hodgkin vs Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma; Multiple Myeloma). Describe the pathophysiology and manifestations of platelet disorders. Differentiate various bleeding disorders (Thrombocytopenia [ITP,

1
Q

hemoglobin

A

protein on RBC that holds O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

process for developing RBCs

A

erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

hematocrit

A

% of RBC in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the primary function of RBCs?

A

carry or transport O2 to tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the 4 parts needed to make an RBC?

A

protein
iron (heme)
folic acid
vit B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the lifespan of RBCs

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

where are RBCs stored?

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where are RBCs broken down?

A

spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where are RBCs produced?

A

red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

__________: an abnormally low # of circulating RBCs or level of Hbg, or both = diminished O2-carrying capacity

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the 4 causes of anemia?

A
  1. excessive loss of RBCs from bleeding
  2. destruction of RBCs (rxn to blood transfusion)
  3. defective RBC production
  4. inadequate RBC production due to bone marrow failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

normocytic

A

normal and concave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

microcytic

A

too small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

macrocytic

A

too big

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

leukopenia

A

deduction of WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

effects of anemia is dependent on __________, _____ (ulcers vs MVA), _____

A

severity
rate
onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

overall main effect of anemia:

A

impaired oxygen transport and compensatory mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why is jaundice a sign of anemia?

A

bilirubin is a byproduct of RBC destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

common signs and symptoms of anemia

A

jaundice (sclera)

pallor skin (cyanotic, distal, babies = lips)

pallor of mucous membrane (ears, eyes, nose, mouth)

lack of circulation manifestations (tachycardia, palpitations, angina)

confusion or headaches (hypoxic brain)

pain and cloticaton (bone pain due to overdrive production of RBCs)

SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the 6 types of anemia?

A

blood loss
hemolytic
iron deficient
megaloblastic
aplastic
chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

________ _____ anemia can result from acute (surgery/________) or chronic (___ bleed)

A

blood loss
trauma
GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

blood loss anemia is caused by …

A

internal or external hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hemolytic anemia is caused by … (2)

A

premature destruction of red cells in vascular compartments or outside AND/OR retention of iron or other products of Hgb destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

autoimmune disorders are an example of __________ hemolytic anemia

A

intrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

chemo and radiation disorders are an example of __________ hemolytic anemia

A

extrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

sickle cell disease is an example of _________ anemia

A

hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

with sickle cell disease, CBC values are _______ and we need to look at the blood ________

A

normal
smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

with hemolytic there is an increase in ___________

A

erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what causes iron deficiency anemia?

A

dietary deficiency
loss of iron via bleeding
increased demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

iron deficiency anemia leads to _________ hemoglobin _________ and consequent impaired _______ delivery

A

decreased
synthesis
oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what causes megaloblastic anemia?

A

impaired DNA synthesis that results in enlarged RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the 2 most common conditions associated with this anemia?

A

vitamin B12 deficiencies
folic acid deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

megaloblastic anemias have abnormally shaped and large, which means that they cannot do the normal ________ of RBCs

A

function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

with aplastic anemia, there is a reduction of …

A

RBCs
WBCs
platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

thrombocytopenia

A

reduction of platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what causes aplastic anemia

A

exposure to high doses of radiation, chemicals, and toxins that suppress hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

aplastic anemia is caused by _______ factors

A

extrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

with aplastic anemia, there is a _______ onset of fatigue and bleeding gums

A

gradual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what causes chronic disease anemias

A

chronic infections, inflammation, cancer and chronic renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what kind of anemia is common in the ICU?

A

chronic disease anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

the ________ are the primary site of erythropoietin synthesis which stimulates __________ and increases _____ production: which is why chronic renal disease can cause anemia

A

kidneys
erythropoiesis
RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

sickle cell anemia cells are pointess because …

A

they can’t carry O2 and they clog movements because of abnormal shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is polycythemia?

A

abnormally hihg total red blood cell mass with a hematocrit greater than 54% in males and 47% in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is absolute polycythemia?

A

rise in hematocrit due to a rise in RBC mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

S/S of polycythemia

A

cardiac dysfunction and vascular obstrution, hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

with relative polycythemia, hematocrit increases because of …

A

loss of plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

causes of relative polycythemia

A

GI loss
lots of diuretics
dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is primary absolute polycythemia?

A

absolute increase in total RBC mass and elevated WBC, platelet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

primary absolute polycythemia can also be called

A

polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

primary absolute polycythemia can interfere with cardiac ______, impeding blood _____ and ____ BP

A

output
flow
high

51
Q

secondary absolute polycythemia there is an increase __________ (only _____)

A

RBCs
erythropoietin

52
Q

people run marathons at high elevation to increase their capacity for ____

53
Q

Non-Neoplastic Disorders of White Blood Cells (2)

A

neutropenia
infectious mononucleosis

54
Q

Neoplastic Disorders

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphomas*
Hodgkin lymphoma*
Lymphoid leukemia
Plasma cell dyscrasias

55
Q

people with neutropenia are at tisk for ________

A

infection because of ANC

56
Q

neutropenia can be ________ or ________

A

congenital or acquired

57
Q

what is mono caused by

A

epstein-barr virus

58
Q

mono is usually ________ (quick)

59
Q

manifestations of mono (4)

A

malaise
anorexia
chills
enlarged lymph nodes

60
Q

what are 2 complications of mono

A

splenomegaly
hepatitis

61
Q

people with neoplastic disorder are at risk for bleeding because ….

A

platelets and RBCs are overcrowded (no clotting and anemia)

62
Q

what is the origin of non-hodgkin lymphoma?

A

B-cell, T-cell, NK cell

63
Q

alterations in the developmental process of these cells can lead to
any of the subtypes of lymphoid neoplasm

A

lymphocytes

64
Q

what are the 4 characterizations of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

cellular morphology (main)
immunophenotype
clinical symptoms
level of aggression

65
Q

non-hodgkin lymphomas are _____ growing and have __________ lymph nodes and they don’t hurt

A

slow
enlarged

66
Q

non-hodgkin lymphoma affects which body parts? (3)

A

spleen
liver
bone marrow

67
Q

Specialized form of lymphoma that features the presence of an abnormal cell called a Reed-Sternberg cell, with ….

A

hodgkin lymphoma

68
Q

hodgkin lymphoma arises in a single _____ or chain of nodes and and then spread systemically

69
Q

clinical manifestations of hodgkin lymphoma (6)

A
  1. painless enlargement of nodes (above the diaphragm)
  2. chest discomfort with cough
  3. fevers
  4. chills
  5. night sweats
  6. pruritus
70
Q

spread of hodgkin lymphoma to … (5)

A

liver
spleen
lungs
digestive tract
CNS

71
Q

destruction of bone from the inside out

A

multiple myeloma

72
Q

increase in IgG in the cytoplasm around the nucleus in _______ ______

A

multiple myeloma

73
Q

what are the 4 major categories of neoplastic disorders?

A

non-Hodgkin lymphomas
Hodgkin lymphoma
lymphoid leukemia
plasma cell dyscrasias

74
Q

risk factors of multiple myeloma (4)

A
  1. chronic immune stimulation
  2. autoimmune disorders
  3. ionizing radiation exposure
  4. exposure to pesticides/herbicides
75
Q

treatment for multiple myeloma?

A

stem cell transplant
high dose chemo

76
Q

manifestations of multiple myeloma (9)

A

bone pain
hypercalcemia
fractures
thrombocytopenia
renal failure
increase in fluid viscosity
infections
anemia
neutropenia

77
Q

_________ are malignant neoplasms of cells originally derived from hematopoietic precursor cells

78
Q

leukemia is characterized by …

A

replacement of bone marrow with unregulated, proliferating, immature neoplastic cells (chromosomal changes)

79
Q

how is leukemia classified?

A

cell type (lymphocytic or myelocytic)
acute (ALL, AML)
chronic (CLL, CML)

80
Q

what is the most common type of childhood cancer?

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

81
Q

what is the patho of ALL?

A

rapid production of immature lymphocytes (B lymphocytes usually)

82
Q

______ _______ leukemia is when there are so many blasts (immature cells) that is crowds out normal WBCs

A

acute lymphoblastic

83
Q

manifestations of ALL?

A

*tired, weak, pale, bruising, splenomegaly and hepatomegaly

*fever, night sweats, large
lymph nodes (large WBCs but no infection to treat)

84
Q

______ _________ is more common in adults

A

chronic lymphocytic

85
Q

what is the patho of CLL

A

gradual production of malignant B lymphocytes

86
Q

LYMPHOCITIC: attacks the __________ immune system

87
Q

manifestations of CLL (5)

A

fever, anemia, increase risk of infection, splenomegaly, or hepatomegaly

88
Q

MYELOGENOUS: attacks the __________ immune system

89
Q

what is the patho of AML?

A

*affects cells of myeloid line (originates in bone marrow)
*rapid production of immature cells

90
Q

AML and ALL have the same clinical manifestations, so they have to look at …

A

blood smears and shapes

91
Q

_____ affects elderly more often

92
Q

what is the diagnostic marker of CML

A

Philadelphia chromosome (translocation of 9 and 22)

93
Q

what is the patho of CML?

A

affects cells of myeloid line (OG in BM)

94
Q

manifestations of leukemia: (8)

A
  1. bone marrow depression
  2. malaise
  3. fever
  4. bleeding
  5. bone pain
  6. anemia (A)
  7. vulnerable to infections (low neutropenia) (N)
  8. thrombocytopenia (T)
95
Q

excessive everything in the blood, NON malignant

A

polycythemia vera

96
Q

what causes polycythemia vera

A

increase response to growth factors

97
Q

manifestations of polycythemia vera (

A

headaches
hypervolemic state
BV distention
spleno/hepatomegaly

98
Q

Bleeding Associated with Platelet
Disorders

A

Can be due to decrease in
platelet numbers d/t
production decrease,
increased destruction, or
impaired function

99
Q

Common sites of bleeding are (w platelet disorders)

A

mucous membranes (nose, mouth, GI tract, uterine cavity); can also see
petechiae* or purpura*

100
Q

___________ caused by decreased platelet production (less than 150,000), increased sequesterian of decreased platelet survival

A

thrombocytopenia

101
Q

what are the 3 types of thrombocytopenia?

A
  1. immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
  2. thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)
  3. drug-induced thrombocytopenia
102
Q

_____ Results in platelet antibody formation and excess destruction of platelets, also referred to as idiopathic

103
Q

what causes secondary ITP?

A

autoimmune disorders and chronic infections (H pylori, hep C, HIV)

*infections help immune systems attack platelets

104
Q

what causes primary ITP

A

autoimmune diseases (immune function destroys platelets)

105
Q

newly diagnosed ITP: time?

A

diagnosis to 3 months

106
Q

persistent ITP: time?

A

3 to 12 months

107
Q

chronic ITP: time?

A

1 year and more

108
Q

incidence highest in __________ 30 - 59 and older persons older than 60

109
Q

patho of ITP

A

D/t antiplatelet antibodies in the platelet membrane (platelets are more susceptible to phagocytosis d/t this antibody) destroyed
in the spleen

110
Q

manifestations of ITP

A

Bruising, bleeding from gums, epistaxis, melena, abnormal menstrual bleeding, splenic enlargement

111
Q

TTP is the combination of (5)

A

Combination of thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, renal failure, fever, and neurologic
abnormalities

112
Q

what is the onset for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

A

abrupt (rare overall)

113
Q

______: Likely results from introduction of platelet-aggregating substances into the circulation

A

TTP
lack of enzyme

114
Q

patho of TTP

A

Plt aggregation results in microvascular occlusions, leading to end-organ failure

115
Q

manifestations of TTP (4)

A

Purpura, petechiae, vaginal bleeding, neurologic symptoms (ranging from headaches-seizures-
altered consciousness)

116
Q

TTP is 99% _______

A

acquired (blood transfusions, IV meds)

117
Q

what kinds of drugs can induce thrombocytopenia

A

aspirin, atorvastatin, some antibiotics

118
Q

drug- induced thrombocytopenia: Induce an antigen-antibody response and formation of
____________ _______ that cause plt destruction by lysis

A

immune complexes

119
Q

Will see a rapid fall in the plt count within 2-3 days of _______ a drug or 7+ days after starting a drug for the ____ ____; plt count will rapidly increase after the drug is discontinued

A

resuming
first time

120
Q

Characterized by widespread
coagulation and bleeding in the
vascular compartment

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

121
Q

what is caused by DIC caused by?

A

treatment (AND treatment has many complications)

122
Q

conditions associated with DIC (6)

A

obstetric
cancers
infections
shock
trauma/surgery
blood transfusion rxns

123
Q

manifestations of DIC (

A

blood
*bleeding
*brusiing
*hematuria
* hypovolemic

clot
*tissue necrosis
*acrocyanosis
* confusion

EXAM 1: Pathophysiology (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions