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BLOOD CHAPTER 19 Flashcards

1
Q 
1) How much blood does the average adult have? 
A) 1.5 L
B) 3 L
C) 5 L
D) 7 L
A

C) 5 L

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2
Q 
2) What forms the majority of blood?
 A) plasma
B) platelets
C) buffy coat
D) leukocytes
A

A) plasma

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3
Q 
3) What percentage of the blood is composed of plasma? 
A) 75%
B) 45%
C) 15%
D) 55%
A

D) 55%

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4
Q 
4) When blood is centrifuged, what is found in the buffy coat? 
A) leukocytes and erythrocytes
B) erythrocytes and platelets
C) plasma and leukocytes
D) platelets and leukocytes
A

D) platelets and leukocytes

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5
Q 
5) A centrifuged sample of blood shows 53% plasma, 1% buffy coat, and 46% erythrocytes. What percent of the blood is the hematocrit?
A) 1%
B) 46%
C) 47%
D) 53%
A

B) 46%

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6
Q 
6) The hematocrit is the percentage of blood composed of: 
A) erythrocytes.
B) plasma.
C) leukocytes.
D) platelets.
A

A) erythrocytes.

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7
Q 
7) Which of the following is considered a normal blood pH? 
A) 7.10
B) 7.40
C) 7.50
D) 7.85
A

B) 7.40

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8
Q

8) Which of the following statements about blood is FALSE?
A) Blood performs immune functions.
B) Blood helps maintain body temperature.
C) Blood is more viscous than water.
D) Blood pH normally falls between 6.5 and 6.8.

A

D) Blood pH normally falls between 6.5 and 6.8.

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9
Q 
9) What organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? 
A) brain
B) pancreas
C) liver
D) spleen
A

C) liver

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10
Q

10) The most abundant component of plasma is: A) ions.
B) proteins.
C) water.
D) gases.

A

C) water.

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11
Q 
11) What plasma protein is most important for the blood's colloid osmotic pressure? 
A) transport proteins
B) antibodies
C) albumin
D) collagen
A

C) albumin

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12
Q

12) What type of plasma protein are antibodies? A) transport protein
B) immune protein
C) lipoprotein
D) clotting protein

A

B) immune protein

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13
Q

13) Which statement best describes red blood cells?
A) Red blood cells have a nucleus and most organelles.
B) Red blood cells live about 10 days.
C) Red blood cells form antibodies to fight antigens.
D) Red blood cells possess a protein known as hemoglobin.

A

D) Red blood cells possess a protein known as hemoglobin.

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14
Q

14) The function of red blood cells is to:
A) stop blood loss from an injured blood vessel.
B) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
C) transport nutrients to the body’s cells and tissues.
D) phagocytize bacteria.

A

B) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

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15
Q 
15) What is the oxygen-binding protein found in erythrocytes? 
A) beta globulin
B) hemoglobin
C) albumin
D) gamma globulin
A

B) hemoglobin

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16
Q 
16) Which of the following is the name given to the union between carbon monoxide and hemoglobin?
A) carboxyhemoglobin
B) carbaminohemoglobin
C) oxyhemoglobin
D) deoxyhemoglobin
A

A) carboxyhemoglobin

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17
Q 
17) Iron molecules released from the breakdown of hemoglobin are transported through the blood by:
A) vitamin B12.
B) transferrin.
C) antibodies.
D) albumin.
A

B) transferrin.

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18
Q 
18) All red blood cells in an adult originate in the: 
A) heart.
B) liver.
C) red bone marrow.
D) spleen.
A

C) red bone marrow.

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19
Q 
19) Since erythrocytes lack the cellular machinery to make repairs, they only live: 
A) 10-20 days.
B) 30-60 days
C) 100-120 days.
D) 145-175 days.
A

C) 100-120 days.

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20
Q

20) What cell gives rise to all formed elements? A) erythroblast
B) reticulocyte
C) proerythroblast
D) hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)

A

D) hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)

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21
Q 
21) What organ serves as the control center for the regulation of erythropoiesis? 
A) liver
B) kidney
C) spleen
D) pancreas
A

B) kidney

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22
Q 
22) The process of red blood cell production is known as: 
A) polycythemia.
B) erythropoiesis.
C) erythropenia.
D) erythrocytosis.
A

B) erythropoiesis.

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23
Q 
23) Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis? 
A) decreased tissue demand for oxygen
B) an increased number of RBCs
C) moving to a lower altitude
D) blood oxygen levels fall below normal
A

D) blood oxygen levels fall below normal

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24
Q 
24) Which organ traps older erythrocytes so they will be removed from circulation? 
A) pancreas
B) gallbladder
C) spleen
D) stomach
A

C) spleen

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25
Q

25) Bilirubin comes from the breakdown of:
A) globin chains of hemoglobin.
B) amino acids of hemoglobin.
C) heme molecules of hemoglobin that lack iron.
D) iron ions found in hemoglobin molecules.

A

C) heme molecules of hemoglobin that lack iron.

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26
Q

26) A bruise appears greenish in the skin because:
A) green-colored hemoglobin leaks from the bloodstream into the bruise.
B) the heme group in hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin.
C) bilirubin from hemoglobin recycling has accumulated in the bruise.
D) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury.

A

B) the heme group in hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin.

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27
Q 
27) Nora was exposed to radiation that caused her red bone marrow to make fewer red blood cells. This condition is known as:
A) aplastic anemia.
B) iron-deficiency anemia.
C) sickle cell anemia.
D) hemolytic anemia.
A

A) aplastic anemia.

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28
Q 
28) Jerry is an alcoholic and does not eat enough food. He has been diagnosed with a vitamin deficiency. What blood disorder is the most likely a result of this deficiency?
A) hemolytic anemia
B) aplastic anemia
C) iron-deficiency anemia
D) pernicious anemia
A

D) pernicious anemia

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29
Q 
29) Which leukocytes are active phagocytes? 
A) neutrophils and monocytes
B) lymphocytes and monocytes
C) reticulocytes and erythrocytes
D) eosinophils and basophils
A

A) neutrophils and monocytes

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30
Q 
30) What is the most common type of leukocyte in a healthy adult? 
A) basophil
B) lymphocyte
C) neutrophil
D) eosinophil
A

C) neutrophil

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31
Q 
31) During a tapeworm infection, you would expect to see increased numbers of: 
A) eosinophils.
B) basophils.
C) neutrophils.
D) lymphocytes.
A

A) eosinophils.

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32
Q 
32) Neutrophils are most effective at: 
A) antibody formation.
B) fighting a viral infection.
C) fighting a parasitic infection.
D) fighting a bacterial infection.
A

D) fighting a bacterial infection.

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33
Q 
33) Through the microscope, you notice a very large leukocyte with a U-shaped nucleus but no granules. What type of leukocyte have you observed?
A) basophil
B) monocyte
C) neutrophil
D) lymphocyte
A

B) monocyte

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34
Q 
34) Which type of leukocyte may produce antibodies? 
A) neutrophil
B) lymphocyte
C) eosinophil
D) monocyte
A

B) lymphocyte

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35
Q 
35) All leukocytes arise from:
A) myeloid stem cells.
B) hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs).
C) lymphoid stem cells.
D) leukoblasts.
A

B) hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs).

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36
Q 
36) Which cell develops into mature neutrophils? 
A) monoblast
B) monocyte
C) band (stab) cell
D) lymphoblast
A

C) band (stab) cell

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37
Q 
37) Where do T lymphocytes mature? 
A) thymus gland
B) tonsils
C) thyroid gland
D) throat
A

A) thymus gland

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38
Q

38) Select the correct pathway to form a monocyte through the process of leukopoiesis. A) HSC, myeloid cell line, myeloblast, promyelocyte, monocyte band cell, monocyte B) HSC, myeloid cell line, monoblast, promonocyte, monocyte
C) HSC, lymphoid cell line, myeloid stem cell, monoblast, promonocyte, monocyte
D) HSC, lymphoid cell line, monoblast, promonocyte, monocyte

A

B) HSC, myeloid cell line, monoblast, promonocyte, monocyte

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39
Q 
39) Lymphocytes and monocytes both arise from: 
A) the lymphoid cell line.
B) hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs).
C) the myeloid cell line.
D) myeloblasts.
A

B) hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs).

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40
Q 
40) What feature is shared by platelets and some leukocytes? 
A) presence of a nucleus
B) presence of granules
C) presence of most organelles
D) lack of a nucleus
A

B) presence of granules

41
Q

41) What feature do platelets possess?
A) plasma membrane
B) nucleus
C) the ability to reproduce by mitosis D) protein-synthesizing organelles

A

A) plasma membrane

42
Q 
42) Platelets are cell fragments formed from: 
A) myeloblasts.
B) megakaryocytes.
C) monoblasts.
D) lymphocytes.
A

B) megakaryocytes.

43
Q 
43) The stoppage of bleeding is known as: 
A) thrombolysis.
B) platelet plug formation.
C) hemostasis.
D) coagulation.
A

C) hemostasis.

44
Q

44) Select the appropriate pathway for the steps of hemostasis.
A) vascular spasms, coagulation, platelet plug formation, clot retraction, thrombolysis
B) platelet plug formation, vascular spasms, coagulation, clot retraction, thrombolysis
C) vascular spasms, platelet plug formation, coagulation, clot retraction, thrombolysis
D) vascular spasms, platelet plug formation, coagulation, thrombolysis, clot retraction

A

C) vascular spasms, platelet plug formation, coagulation, clot retraction, thrombolysis

45
Q

45) How do vascular spasms contribute to the process of hemostasis?
A) Vascular spasms cause activated platelets to release the contents of their granules.
B) Vascular spasms cause platelets to adhere to exposed collagen.
C) Vascular spasms transform fibrinogen into fibrin.
D) Vascular spasms limit blood loss.

A

D) Vascular spasms limit blood loss.

46
Q 
46) Medications known as anticoagulants interfere with: 
A) platelet activation.
B) platelet aggregation.
C) vascular spasms.
D) the coagulation cascade.
A

D) the coagulation cascade.

47
Q 
47) What vitamin is necessary for the proper production of functional clotting factors in the liver?
A) vitamin C
B) vitamin D
C) vitamin K
D) vitamin E
A

C) vitamin K

48
Q 
48) Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would have problems with:
A) agglutination.
B) erythropoiesis.
C) coagulation.
D) thrombolysis.
A

C) coagulation.

49
Q 
49) What ions are necessary for both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways to the coagulation cascade?
A) potassium ions
B) magnesium ions
C) calcium ions
D) iron ions
A

C) calcium ions

50
Q 
50) Which of the following must occur first during hemostasis? 
A) formation of fibrin
B) thrombolysis
C) clot retraction
D) formation of thrombin
A

D) formation of thrombin

51
Q

51) What activates the intrinsic/contact activation pathway of coagulation?
A) Factor XII contacts exposed collagen fibers.
B) Prothrombin is converted to thrombin.
C) Release of tissue factor (Factor III) by subendothelial cells
D) Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin.

A

A) Factor XII contacts exposed collagen fibers.

52
Q 
52) In the common pathway of coagulation, what factor combines with factor Va and calcium ions to form prothrombin activator?
A) IXa
B) VIIa
C) XIIa
D) Xa
A

D) Xa

53
Q 
53) When is fibrin produced during the coagulation cascade? 
A) intrinsic pathway
B) extrinsic pathway
C) common pathway
D) both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways
A

C) common pathway

54
Q 
54) During the common pathway, what turns fibrinogen into fibrin? 
A) plasmin
B) thrombin
C) prothrombin
D) tissue factor
A

B) thrombin

55
Q 
55) Carbohydrate groups on the surfaces of erythrocytes determine blood type and are known as: 
A) tissue factors.
B) antigens.
C) agglutinins.
D) antibodies.
A

B) antigens.

56
Q 
56) The ABO blood group is based on which antigen(s)? 
A) antigens A and B
B) antigen Rh
C) antigen O
D) antigen D
A

A) antigens A and B

57
Q 
57) During a transfusion, if incompatible antigens are introduced, antibodies can bind to foreign antigens, causing them to clump together, or:
A) activate.
B) coagulate.
C) agglutinate.
D) granulate.
A

C) agglutinate.

58
Q 
58) What blood type is considered the universal donor? 
A) O−
B) AB+
C) A+
D) AB−
A

A) O−

59
Q 
59) Which blood type carries anti-A antibodies in the plasma? 
A) B−
B) AB+
C) A−
D) A+
A

A) B−

60
Q 
60) Which blood type is compatible with B− during a transfusion? 
A) AB−
B) B+
C) O−
D) O+
A

C) O−

61
Q 
61) Which of the following blood types is incompatible for donation to A+?
A) A−
B) B−
C) O−
D) O+
A

B) B−

62
Q

62) The majority of blood is plasma.

A

TRUE

63
Q

63) When oxygen concentrations are low in tissues surrounding systemic capillaries, hemoglobin releases oxygen to become carboxyhemoglobin.

A

FALSE

64
Q

64) Erythropoiesis operates on a positive feedback loop maintained by erythropoietin.

A

FALSE

65
Q

65) The most common cause of abnormal hemoglobin is an inherited condition known as sickle- cell anemia.

A

TRUE

66
Q

66) The most common leukocyte is the neutrophil while the least common leukocyte is the basophil.

A

TRUE

67
Q

67) Both granulocytes and agranulocytes arise from the lymphoid stem cell line.

A

FALSE

68
Q

68) Platelets can undergo mitosis and perform repairs if damaged.

A

FALSE

69
Q

69) Thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin, a mesh that glues together the platelet plug and helps seal the damaged vessel.

A

TRUE

70
Q

70) Thrombolysis begins with fibrinolysis and the breakdown of the fibrin glue that was produced during coagulation.

A

TRUE

71
Q

71) Agglutination occurs when blood type B+ receives blood type O− in a transfusion.

A

FALSE

72
Q

FOR QUESTION 73-76 SEE PHOTOS SENT THRU MESSAGES

A
73
Q

73) The most common type of leukocyte

A

B

74
Q

74) This leukocyte is recognizable due to its large U-shaped nucleus

A

A

75
Q

72) The universal blood donor is O− since this blood type lacks the A, B, and Rh antigens.

A

TRUE

76
Q

75) The least common type of leukocyte

A

D

77
Q

76) Characterized by a spherical nucleus and a lack of granules

A

E

78
Q

77) Responds to infection with parasitic worms

A

C

79
Q

78) Type AB
Answer: C

79) Type A
Answer: A

80) Type O
Answer: D

81) Type B
Answer: B

82) Lacks the A and B antigens
Answer: D

83) Possesses both the A and B antigens
Answer: C

A
80
Q
  1. What is found in the Buffy coat when blood is centrifuged? What percent of total blood volume doe the Buffy coat contribute?
A

The buffy coat consists of both leukocytes and platelets. The buffy coat makes up only 1% of total blood volume.

81
Q

85) What is the hematocrit?

A

The hematocrit is the percentage of blood composed of erythrocytes (approximately 44%) when whole blood is centrifuged.

82
Q

86) Describe the structure of hemoglobin.

A

Hemoglobin is a protein found in erythrocytes that consists of four polypeptide subunits: two alpha chains and two beta chains. Each chain is bound to an iron-containing compound called a heme group. The iron ion in each heme binds to oxygen and becomes oxidized.

83
Q

87) Explain how oxyhemoglobin differs from deoxyhemoglobin.

A

Oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) is formed when oxygen binds hemoglobin. Oxidized hemoglobin turns bright red. Deoxyhemoglobin is formed when hemoglobin releases oxygen into surrounding tissues from systemic capillaries. Blood with a low oxygen concentration is dark red.

84
Q

88) Explain how a reticulocyte differs from an erythrocyte.

A

Reticulocytes must eject their organelles to enter the blood stream and become erythrocytes. Reticulocytes are found in the blood stream in small numbers and can bind and transport oxygen on their hemoglobin molecules.

85
Q

89) Explain the negative feedback loop by which erythropoiesis is regulated.

A

The negative feedback loop that maintains erythropoiesis primarily involves the hormone erythropoietin (EPO), with the concentration of oxygen in the blood influencing the production of this hormone. When blood oxygen levels fall below normal, kidney cells detect the falling oxygen levels. The kidneys produce more EPO and release it into the blood. Erythrocyte production in the red bone marrow increases and homeostasis is restored when blood oxygen levels return to normal.

86
Q

90) Explain how you would distinguish a granulocyte from an agranulocyte when viewing these cells through a microscope.

A

Granulocytes can be distinguished from other cell types by the presence of granules in the cytoplasm and their unusual nuclei. Each cell has a single nucleus with multiple lobes that are connected by thin bands of nuclear material. Agranulocytes lack visible cytoplasmic granules.

87
Q

91) Tiesha has been sick for weeks. When her complete blood count (CBC) was examined, she had higher than normal levels of neutrophils. Provide a reason for why Tiesha experienced an increase in neutrophils that may explain her illness.

A

Neutrophils are attracted to chemicals released by damaged cells. Neutrophils release their granules to directly kill bacterial cells, enhance inflammation, or attract more neutrophils and leukocytes to the area. It is possible Tiesha had a bacterial infection that the neutrophils were fighting.

88
Q

92) A young patient has a type of cancer called acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). In a child with ALL, too many cells become lymphoblasts. Into what type of cells do lymphoblasts differentiate?

A

During leukopoiesis, the lymphoid cell line differentiates first into lymphoblasts. Lymphoblasts develop into precursor cells known as prolymphocytes. Prolymphocytes mature into T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes. T lymphocytes destroy cancer or virally infected cells while B lymphocytes secrete antibodies.

89
Q

93) Explain how megakaryocytes form platelets.

A

Megakaryocytes undergo repeated rounds of mitosis without experiencing cytokinesis during anaphase and telophase. The megakaryocyte becomes a massive cell with multiple copies of DNA located in a single nucleus. Mature megakaryocytes extend arms into the bloodstream. The force of blood lops off small pieces that become platelets. Each megakaryocyte arm can form thousands of platelets.

90
Q

94) Define hemostasis and name the steps involved in the correct order.

A

Hemostasis is a process that minimizes the amount of blood lost from an injured blood vessel. The steps involved are vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation, clot retraction, and thrombolysis.

91
Q

95) Determine the effects of a calcium deficiency on blood clotting.

A

Calcium ions are necessary in both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways to activate factor X. Calcium ions are required for the factors to associate with platelets in the platelet plug. The end result of both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways is the same: activation of factor X to the active enzyme factor Xa. Without factor Xa, fibrin would not be formed in the common pathway and the platelet plug would not be “glued” together. Reactions in the common pathway also require calcium ions. Ultimately, coagulation is inhibited without calcium.

92
Q

96) Explain what thrombolysis accomplishes.

A

After the wound has healed, the blood clot is no longer necessary. The clot dissolves in a process known as thrombolysis. Thrombolysis begins with fibrinolysis, the removal of the fibrin glue that was produced in the coagulation cascade.

93
Q

97) Dina, who is blood type A−, wants to donate blood to her friend Sarah, who is blood type AB−. Do you recommend for Dina to donate blood to her friend? Explain why or why not.

A

Sarah has type AB− blood, which means that her erythrocytes have the A and B antigens only, and her plasma has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies. Her erythrocytes also lack the Rh antigens. Dina can safely donate blood since her A antigens will not react with Sarah’s blood and both women lack the Rh antigen.

94
Q

98) Briefly explain why AB+ is considered the universal recipient.

A

AB+ blood lacks the major antibodies (anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh) and thus can safely receive any blood type.

95
Q

99) Blood doping is a controversial topic in competitive sports and can involve injections of erythropoietin (EPO). Predict the effect on erythropoiesis and explain why an athlete might consider EPO injections to provide a competitive edge.

A

Erythrocyte production, known as erythropoiesis, primarily involves a hormone known as erythropoietin (EPO). EPO injections can speed up the rate of erythropoiesis and reduces the amount of time needed for new erythrocytes to mature. More erythrocytes may be made as a result of EPO injections. Since erythrocytes transport oxygen, having extra erythrocytes means more oxygen can be transported to the athlete’s muscles. More oxygen available for tissue can enhance performance.

96
Q

100) Explain why a person with kidney failure could develop anemia.

A

Erythropoietin (EPO) is produced by the kidneys. EPO is necessary for erythrocyte production by red bone marrow. Damaged kidneys produce less EPO so the red bone marrow is not stimulated to produce enough erythrocytes. Anemia is a condition that is defined as decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

97
Q

101) Explain how agglutination is a different process from coagulation.

A

Antibodies cause bound antigens to clump together, or agglutinate. Agglutination promotes destruction of erythrocytes, a reaction known as hemolysis. Agglutination can occur as a result of mismatched blood types during a transfusion. By contrast, coagulation is a step that occurs during hemostasis. Coagulation promotes the production of factor Xa, the production of thrombin, and the production of fibrin to convert the soft, liquid platelet plug into a more solid mass.

98
Q

102) Predict how a medication that inhibits the active enzyme factor Xa from being activated would impact the coagulation cascade.

A

The end result of both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways is the same: activation of factor X to the active enzyme factor Xa. In the common pathway, factors Xa and Va along with calcium ions form prothrombin activator. Prothrombin activator converts the inactive prothrombin into the active enzyme thrombin. Thrombin turns fibrinogen into fibrin, which forms the mesh that glues together the platelet plug. Without factor Xa, this common pathway would not be able to proceed and fibrin would not be produced. The coagulation cascade would not be able to complete without factor Xa.

99
Q

103) Jamessa is performing a blood typing experiment in her anatomy and physiology lab. She takes a few drops of her own blood sample and mixes it with different antibodies. Her blood agglutinates when mixed with the anti-B antibodies, but it does not agglutinate with the anti-A or anti-Rh antibodies. Determine her blood type and explain how you came to this conclusion.

A

Jamessa carries the B antigen since her blood reacted and agglutinated with the anti-B antibodies. She lacks the A antigen and the Rh antigen since her blood did not agglutinate with the anti-A or anti-Rh antibodies. Thus, her blood type is B−.

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