Blood Bank Unit 1 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which antibodies can activate complement? Which is better at activating complement?

A

1 IgM or 2 IgG. IgM is better at activating complement.

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2
Q

Function of Complement

A

Lysis of abnormal cells
Opsonization to aid in phagocytosis
Mediators of inflammation

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3
Q

Classical Pathway of Complement

A

C1 -> C4 -> C2 -> C3 -> C5 -> C6 -> C7 -> C8 -> C9

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4
Q

Which components of Complement is the MAC?

A

C5 through C9

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5
Q

Which component of Complement can go to opsonization?

A

C3 can go to C3a and cause opsonization

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6
Q

What activates complement cascade?

A

antigen-antibody complex (1 IgM or 2 IgG)

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7
Q

Where is Complement made? Where does it circulate?

A

Complement is made by the liver and circulates in the plasma of blood (inactively)

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8
Q

Homozygous

A

Identical alleles at the corresponding loci on a pair of chromosomes

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9
Q

Heterozygous

A

2 different alleles at the corresponding loci on a pair of chromosomes

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10
Q

Definition of Dosage

A

The phenomenon where antibody reacts more strongly with homozygous red cells (double dose) rather than heterozygous (single dose)

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11
Q

Where is dosage seen?

A

Kidd system, Duffy System, Rh system, M&N system

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12
Q

If you are homozygous, would dosage be stronger (4+) or weaker (0)

A

Dosage would be stronger (4+).

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13
Q

Genotype

A

Individual’s actual genetic makeup

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14
Q

Phenotype

A

Characteristics that are observable based on the genetic makeup

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15
Q

amorph

A

a silent gene, does not produce a detectable antigen

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16
Q

Grading of reactions in a tube: What would a 0 or negative reaction look like?

A

no clumps at all, homogenous smooth suspension

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17
Q

Grading of reactions in a tube: What would a 1+ reaction look like?

A

numerous tiny clumps, very cloudy or turbid background

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18
Q

Grading of reactions in a tube: What would a 2+ reaction look like?

A

medium clumps, clear supernatant or slightly cloudy

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19
Q

Grading of reactions in a tube: What would a 3+ reaction look like?

A

several large clumps, clear supernatant

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20
Q

Grading of reactions in a tube: What would a 4+ reaction look like?

A

1 Solid clump with clear supernatant

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21
Q

Grading of reactions in a gel: What would a 0 or negative reaction look like?

A

all cells are unagglutinated and are at the bottom of the microtube

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22
Q

Grading of reactions in a gel: What would a 1+ reaction look like?

A

majority of the agglutinated red cells are on the lower half of the microtube

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23
Q

Grading reactions in a gel: What would a 2+ reaction look like?

A

agglutinated red cells are dispensed throughout the entire length of the microtube

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24
Q

Grading reactions in a gel: What does a 3+ reaction look like?

A

majority of the agglutinated red cells are at the upper half of the microtube

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25
Q

Grading reactions in a gel: What does a 4+ reaction look like?

A

there is a solid band of agglutinated red cells on the top of the microtube

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26
Q

Where are B cells produced? Where are T cells produced?

A

Both are produced in the bone marrow, but T cells differentiate in the thymus

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27
Q

Function of B cells

A

B cells are precursors to plasma cells, which secrete and produce antibodies.
These can then become memory cells and can be involved in secondary immune response.

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28
Q

What are the two types of T cells? Which HLA molecules do they interact with?

A
CD4+ (T-Helper) cells - interact with HLA class II molecules 
CD8+ (Cytotoxic) cells - interact with HLA class I molecules
29
Q

Are T and B cells a part of the innate or adaptive immune response?

A

Adaptive

30
Q

More IgM is produced during primary or secondary immune response? More IgG?

A

More IgM = primary immune response

More IgG = secondary immune response

31
Q

Compare and contrast primary and secondary immune response

A

Primary immune response - first exposure to an antigen, longer lag phase, lots of IgM made

Secondary immune response - second exposure to same antigen, T and B cells respond much faster due to memory cell activation, lag phase is shortened, log phase is much longer, much higher antibody production (IgG)

32
Q

Hapten

A

small molecule that is incapable of activating the immune system alone

33
Q

Molecular weight of an antigen

A

> 10,000 Daltons to be antigenic

34
Q

If an antigen weighs less than 10,000 Daltons, what is it considered?

A

a Hapten

35
Q

Factors that influence antigen immunogenicity

A
Size 
Degree of foreignness 
Chemical composition 
Dosage - "antigen density" 
Route of exposure
36
Q

What portion of the antibody is the FAB region? What binds here?

A

FAB region is found at the open “Y” side of the antibody. Antigen/foreign object binds to FAB region.

37
Q

What portion of the antibody is the Fc region? What binds here?

A

Fc region is the straight portion of the “Y” antibody shape. Neutrophils and macrophage bind here.

38
Q

An antibody has how many heavy chains and how many light chains?

A

2 heavy chains, 2 light chains

39
Q

What is an antibody?

A

Protein that binds to specific epitope of an antigen

40
Q

Order of most abundant antibodies from greatest to least

A
IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE
41
Q

Antibody Affinity

A

The strength of antibody-antigen interaction (how much the antibody is attracted to the antigen)

42
Q

Antibody Avidity

A

The sum total strength of binding molecules to ligands

43
Q

Which antibody has higher avidity: IgM or IgG? and Why?

A

IgM has higher avidity because it is a pentamer and has multiple binding sites

44
Q

Which antibody has higher affinity: IgG or IgM and why?

A

IgG has higher affinity because it has less molecules in one area which equals less steric hindrance

45
Q

Which IgG molecules have the best complement binding ability in order from best to worst?

A

IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2 > IgG4

46
Q

Important characteristics of IgG antibodies

A
  • can cross the placenta
  • can activate complement (must have 2 IgG’s to activate complement)
  • very high affinity
  • most abundant type of antibody
47
Q

Important characteristics of IgM antibodies

A
  • Very high avidity
  • Very heavy due to pentameric shape
  • CANNOT cross the placenta
  • activates complement
48
Q

Important characteristics of IgA antibodies

A
  • relatively heavy due to J chain
  • CANNOT cross the placenta
  • CANNOT fix complement
  • found in mucosal tissues of the body (saliva, tears, GI secretions)
49
Q

IgE antibodies - when are they recruited

A

during allergic reactions or parasitic infections

50
Q

Ratio

A
  • Amount of antigen to antibody matters for visible agglutination
51
Q

What is the prozone?

A

Excess antibody - can create a false negative of agglutination

52
Q

What is equivalence?

A

Optimum proportions of both antibody and antigen - cross-linking

53
Q

What is the post zone?

A

Excess antigen - creates a false negative for agglutination

54
Q

First & second stage of agglutination

A
  1. Sensitization

2. Hemaagglutination/Lattice formation

55
Q

What is sensitization (the first stage of RBC agglutination)?

A

Physical attachment of antibody to antigen determinant on RBC surface (have not cross-linked)

56
Q

What 5 factors affect RBC sensitization?

A

temperature, pH, time, ionic strength, ratio

57
Q

What factors influence the second stage of RBC agglutination? (Lattice formation)

A
  • size of antibody molecule
  • number of antibody binding
  • number of antigen binding sites
  • location of antigen sites
  • zeta potential
  • centrifugation
  • AHG reagent
58
Q

How does centrifugation affect RBC agglutination?

A

decreases the reaction time by increasing gravitational forces on the reactants and bringing reactants closer together

59
Q

How does AHG (anti-human globulin) affect RBC agglutination?

A

If antibodies present in serum/plasma cannot cause RBC agglutination, add AHG which helps crosslink IgG

60
Q

In vivo

A

Reaction that happens within the body

61
Q

In vitro

A

Reaction that happens in artificial environment (test tube)

62
Q

cis

A

location of 2 or more genes on the same chromosome of a homologous pair

63
Q

trans

A

location of 2 or more genes on the opposite chromosome of a homologous pair

64
Q

visual signs of binding/positive reactions

A

hemolysis or agglutination

65
Q

what is the difference between serum and plasma?

A

plasma has clotting factors and serum does not

66
Q

What does polyethylene glycol do

A

Removes water to enhance antibody/antigen reactions

67
Q

what does LISS do

A

lowers ionic strength around RBCs bringing them closer together which increases antibody uptake onto cells

68
Q

what do proteolytic enzymes do

A

denatures antigen; destroy RBC