Blood Bank Unit 1 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which antibodies can activate complement? Which is better at activating complement?

A

1 IgM or 2 IgG. IgM is better at activating complement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Function of Complement

A

Lysis of abnormal cells
Opsonization to aid in phagocytosis
Mediators of inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Classical Pathway of Complement

A

C1 -> C4 -> C2 -> C3 -> C5 -> C6 -> C7 -> C8 -> C9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which components of Complement is the MAC?

A

C5 through C9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which component of Complement can go to opsonization?

A

C3 can go to C3a and cause opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What activates complement cascade?

A

antigen-antibody complex (1 IgM or 2 IgG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is Complement made? Where does it circulate?

A

Complement is made by the liver and circulates in the plasma of blood (inactively)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Homozygous

A

Identical alleles at the corresponding loci on a pair of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Heterozygous

A

2 different alleles at the corresponding loci on a pair of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Definition of Dosage

A

The phenomenon where antibody reacts more strongly with homozygous red cells (double dose) rather than heterozygous (single dose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where is dosage seen?

A

Kidd system, Duffy System, Rh system, M&N system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If you are homozygous, would dosage be stronger (4+) or weaker (0)

A

Dosage would be stronger (4+).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Genotype

A

Individual’s actual genetic makeup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Phenotype

A

Characteristics that are observable based on the genetic makeup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

amorph

A

a silent gene, does not produce a detectable antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Grading of reactions in a tube: What would a 0 or negative reaction look like?

A

no clumps at all, homogenous smooth suspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Grading of reactions in a tube: What would a 1+ reaction look like?

A

numerous tiny clumps, very cloudy or turbid background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Grading of reactions in a tube: What would a 2+ reaction look like?

A

medium clumps, clear supernatant or slightly cloudy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Grading of reactions in a tube: What would a 3+ reaction look like?

A

several large clumps, clear supernatant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Grading of reactions in a tube: What would a 4+ reaction look like?

A

1 Solid clump with clear supernatant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Grading of reactions in a gel: What would a 0 or negative reaction look like?

A

all cells are unagglutinated and are at the bottom of the microtube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Grading of reactions in a gel: What would a 1+ reaction look like?

A

majority of the agglutinated red cells are on the lower half of the microtube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Grading reactions in a gel: What would a 2+ reaction look like?

A

agglutinated red cells are dispensed throughout the entire length of the microtube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Grading reactions in a gel: What does a 3+ reaction look like?

A

majority of the agglutinated red cells are at the upper half of the microtube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Grading reactions in a gel: What does a 4+ reaction look like?
there is a solid band of agglutinated red cells on the top of the microtube
26
Where are B cells produced? Where are T cells produced?
Both are produced in the bone marrow, but T cells differentiate in the thymus
27
Function of B cells
B cells are precursors to plasma cells, which secrete and produce antibodies. These can then become memory cells and can be involved in secondary immune response.
28
What are the two types of T cells? Which HLA molecules do they interact with?
``` CD4+ (T-Helper) cells - interact with HLA class II molecules CD8+ (Cytotoxic) cells - interact with HLA class I molecules ```
29
Are T and B cells a part of the innate or adaptive immune response?
Adaptive
30
More IgM is produced during primary or secondary immune response? More IgG?
More IgM = primary immune response | More IgG = secondary immune response
31
Compare and contrast primary and secondary immune response
Primary immune response - first exposure to an antigen, longer lag phase, lots of IgM made Secondary immune response - second exposure to same antigen, T and B cells respond much faster due to memory cell activation, lag phase is shortened, log phase is much longer, much higher antibody production (IgG)
32
Hapten
small molecule that is incapable of activating the immune system alone
33
Molecular weight of an antigen
>10,000 Daltons to be antigenic
34
If an antigen weighs less than 10,000 Daltons, what is it considered?
a Hapten
35
Factors that influence antigen immunogenicity
``` Size Degree of foreignness Chemical composition Dosage - "antigen density" Route of exposure ```
36
What portion of the antibody is the FAB region? What binds here?
FAB region is found at the open "Y" side of the antibody. Antigen/foreign object binds to FAB region.
37
What portion of the antibody is the Fc region? What binds here?
Fc region is the straight portion of the "Y" antibody shape. Neutrophils and macrophage bind here.
38
An antibody has how many heavy chains and how many light chains?
2 heavy chains, 2 light chains
39
What is an antibody?
Protein that binds to specific epitope of an antigen
40
Order of most abundant antibodies from greatest to least
``` IgG IgA IgM IgD IgE ```
41
Antibody Affinity
The strength of antibody-antigen interaction (how much the antibody is attracted to the antigen)
42
Antibody Avidity
The sum total strength of binding molecules to ligands
43
Which antibody has higher avidity: IgM or IgG? and Why?
IgM has higher avidity because it is a pentamer and has multiple binding sites
44
Which antibody has higher affinity: IgG or IgM and why?
IgG has higher affinity because it has less molecules in one area which equals less steric hindrance
45
Which IgG molecules have the best complement binding ability in order from best to worst?
IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2 > IgG4
46
Important characteristics of IgG antibodies
- can cross the placenta - can activate complement (must have 2 IgG's to activate complement) - very high affinity - most abundant type of antibody
47
Important characteristics of IgM antibodies
- Very high avidity - Very heavy due to pentameric shape - CANNOT cross the placenta - activates complement
48
Important characteristics of IgA antibodies
- relatively heavy due to J chain - CANNOT cross the placenta - CANNOT fix complement - found in mucosal tissues of the body (saliva, tears, GI secretions)
49
IgE antibodies - when are they recruited
during allergic reactions or parasitic infections
50
Ratio
- Amount of antigen to antibody matters for visible agglutination
51
What is the prozone?
Excess antibody - can create a false negative of agglutination
52
What is equivalence?
Optimum proportions of both antibody and antigen - cross-linking
53
What is the post zone?
Excess antigen - creates a false negative for agglutination
54
First & second stage of agglutination
1. Sensitization | 2. Hemaagglutination/Lattice formation
55
What is sensitization (the first stage of RBC agglutination)?
Physical attachment of antibody to antigen determinant on RBC surface (have not cross-linked)
56
What 5 factors affect RBC sensitization?
temperature, pH, time, ionic strength, ratio
57
What factors influence the second stage of RBC agglutination? (Lattice formation)
- size of antibody molecule - number of antibody binding - number of antigen binding sites - location of antigen sites - zeta potential - centrifugation - AHG reagent
58
How does centrifugation affect RBC agglutination?
decreases the reaction time by increasing gravitational forces on the reactants and bringing reactants closer together
59
How does AHG (anti-human globulin) affect RBC agglutination?
If antibodies present in serum/plasma cannot cause RBC agglutination, add AHG which helps crosslink IgG
60
In vivo
Reaction that happens within the body
61
In vitro
Reaction that happens in artificial environment (test tube)
62
cis
location of 2 or more genes on the same chromosome of a homologous pair
63
trans
location of 2 or more genes on the opposite chromosome of a homologous pair
64
visual signs of binding/positive reactions
hemolysis or agglutination
65
what is the difference between serum and plasma?
plasma has clotting factors and serum does not
66
What does polyethylene glycol do
Removes water to enhance antibody/antigen reactions
67
what does LISS do
lowers ionic strength around RBCs bringing them closer together which increases antibody uptake onto cells
68
what do proteolytic enzymes do
denatures antigen; destroy RBC